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Spinal Anatomy Summer 2015 > Exam 1 Questions > Flashcards

Exam 1 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

what is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

osteoblast- form bone
osteocyte- maintain or bone nurturing
osteoclast- bone remodeling

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2
Q

what are the bone cells embedded in?

A

an amorphous matrix consisting of various minerals, protein fibers, and ground substance

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3
Q

what is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

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4
Q

what types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?

A

chondroitin sulfate
keratin sulfate
hyaluronic acid

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5
Q

what is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type I

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6
Q

what is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

hydroxyapatite

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7
Q

bone is also the repository for what additional ions?

A 
lead
radium
strontium 
sodium
magnesium
flouride
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8
Q

what is Wolff’s law as it pertains to bone?

A

living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

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9
Q

what are the three responses of bone that allow it to be described as living?

A

it has the ability to heal
to remodel under stressors
to age

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10
Q

what is bone the embryological derivative of?

A

Mesenchyme or cartilage

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11
Q

what is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

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12
Q

what is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the 2nd to 3rd month in utero

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13
Q

what is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

endochondral ossification

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14
Q

what is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the 2nd month to 5th month in utero

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15
Q

what part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

chondrocranium

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16
Q

which skull bones are ossified by both enochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

mandible
sphenoid
temporal
occipital

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17
Q

which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both enodochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

clavicle

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18
Q

what is the name given to the fibrocellular lining of bone?

A

endosteum

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19
Q

what is the name given to the outer fibrocellular covering of bone?

A

periosteum

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20
Q

what is the name given to the bone below an articulating surface?

A

subchondral bone

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21
Q

what are the names given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

primary centers- appears before birth

secondary centers- appears after birth

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22
Q

what are the four basic tissues of the human body?

A

epithelial
muscular
neural
connective

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23
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

Sexual dimorphism gender variation
ontogenic variation growth or age variation
geographic or population-based variation ethnic variation
Idiosyncratic variation individual variation

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24
Q

What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?

A 
Long bones 
short bones 
flat bones 
irregular bones 
Paranasal sinus pneumatic bone 
sesamoid bones
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25
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in spinal II?

A

Heterotopic and accessory bone

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26
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

Heterotopic bone

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27
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

Accessory bone

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28
Q

What are the names given to the parts of a long bone?

A

The diaphysis shaft and typically two epiphyses extremities

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29
Q

What is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

They are essentially cuboidal

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30
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

Most of the bones of the carpus and Tarsus

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31
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

The parietal bone and sternum

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32
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A 
Frontal 
ethmoid 
maxilla 
Sphenoid 
Temporal
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33
Q

What bones contain paranasal sinuses?

A

Frontal
ethmoid
maxilla
Sphenoid

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34
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

The bone develops within a tendon

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35
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

Patella and pisiform

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36
Q

What are examples of heterotopic bones?

A

Calcific deposits in the Pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

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37
Q

What are examples of accessory bones?

A

Para articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

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38
Q

What are the four basic surface feature categories?

A

Elevations
depressions
tunnels or passageways
facets

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39
Q

What are types of osseous elevations?

A

Linear
rounded
sharp

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40
Q

What are types of osseous linear elevation?

A

Line
Ridge
crest

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41
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A 
Tubercle 
protuberance 
trochanter 
tuber tuberosity 
malleolus
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42
Q

What is the definition of an osseous trochanter?

A

A large blunt projection from the surface of bone with a significant base and height

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43
Q

What is the definition of an osseous malleolus?

A

A hammerhead like elevation on the surface of bone

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44
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

Spine and process

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45
Q

What is the definition of an osseous elevation called spine?

A

A thorn like elevation from the surface of bone

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46
Q

What is the definition of an osseous process?

A

A relatively sharp bony projection from the surface of bone with an increased length

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47
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions

A

Notch or incisure
groove
sulcus

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48
Q

What is the definition of an osseous groove

A

A long furrow of variable depth on the surface of the bone

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49
Q

What is the definition of an osseous sulcus

A

A wide groove of variable length and depth on the surface of bone

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50
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions

A

Fovea and fossa

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51
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fovea

A

A shallow depression a variable circumference on the surface of bone

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52
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fossa

A

A deep depression a variable circumference on the surface of bone

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53
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone

A

Ostium or orifice

hiatus

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54
Q

What is the definition of an osseous hiatus

A

An irregular opening on the surface of bone

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55
Q

What are the names giving to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone

A

Foramen or canal

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56
Q

What is the definition of an osseous Foramen

A

And ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone

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57
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal

A

And ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

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58
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind ended passageway

A

Meatus

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59
Q

What is the definition of an osseous Fissure

A

An irregular slit like or crack like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

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60
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets

A

Flat facets

rounded facets

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61
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets

A

Articular heads and articular condyles

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62
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton

A 
Skull 
hyoid 
vertebral column 
sternum 
ribs
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63
Q

What is the name given to the adults skull minus the mandible

A

Cranium

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64
Q

What are the names given to the top of the adults skull

A

Calvaria or Calva

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65
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull

A

28 bones

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66
Q

What bones form the Neurocranium of the typical adult skull

A 
Frontal 
parietal 
temporal 
occipital 
Sphenoid 
ethmoid
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67
Q

How many bones formed the typical adult neurocranium

A

8 bones

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68
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton

A

14 bones

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69
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column

A

Spine

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70
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adults spine

A

24 bones

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71
Q

What is the definition of spine as it pertains to the vertebral column

A

The pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column

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72
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum

A

1 bone

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73
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum

A

Manubrium sterni
corpus sterni
xiphoid process

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74
Q

How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton

A

12 pair or 24 ribs

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75
Q

What is the term used to identify the study of joints

A

Arthrology

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76
Q

What is the term used to identify the study of ligaments

A

Syndesmology

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77
Q

What are the three histological classifications of joints

A

Fibrous
cartilaginous
synovial fluid

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78
Q

What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally align during closure of the mouth

A

Malocclusion

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79
Q

What fibrous connective tissue classically fills the joint space of syndesmosis

A

Interosseous ligament

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80
Q

What are the examples of the typical syndesmosis from the vertebral column

A

Most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column and ligamentous sacral iliac joints

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81
Q

What are the characteristics of the amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

A

They are primary Cartilage joints
temporary in Longevity
composed of hyaline Cartilage
form between ossification centers within a Cartilage template

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82
Q

What are examples of temporary Cartilage joints

A

Metaphysis
Neurocentral joint
Neuroarch joint
chondrocranium

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83
Q

What are examples of permanent amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

A

Costochondral joints or the first sterno chondral joint

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84
Q

Which Cartilage joint classification would be considered secondary

A

Amphiarthrosis symphysis

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85
Q

What type of cartilage is characteristic of the amphiarthrosis symphysis

A

Fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

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86
Q

What are the characteristics of an amphiarthrosis symphysis

A

Limited motion
median plane location
support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint
more permanent in Longevity then synchondrosis
they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

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87
Q

What are the classic examples of an Amphiarthrosis symphysis

A

Intervertebral disc
pubic symphysis
sternal symphysis
symphysis menti

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88
Q

Which example of an Amphiarthrosis Symphysis is temporary

A

symphysis menti

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89
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial diarthrosis joints

A

Articular or fibrous capsule
synovial membrane
articular Cartilage
synovial fluid

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90
Q

Thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the

A

Capsular ligament

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91
Q

What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament

A

Intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments

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92
Q

What are the characteristics of the type one articular receptors

A

Located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule
resemble Ruffini endings
most numerous in cervical zygapophysis
they monitor the joint at rest

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93
Q

What are the characteristics of type two articular receptors

A

Located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule
resemble Pacinian corpuscles
most numerous in the cervical spine
monitor the joint during normal range of motion

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94
Q

What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors

A

Present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments
resemble golgi tendon organs
not initially observed along the vertebral column
monitor extreme joint motion

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95
Q

what is the function of type IV articular receptors?

A

nociceptive, they monitor pain

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96
Q

Type IVa articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

fibroud capsule, articular fat pads, or adventitia of blood vessels

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97
Q

Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

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98
Q

Type IV articular receptors would be absent in what parts of the synovial diarthrosis joint?

A

synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial menisci or intra-articular discs

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99
Q

what are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

synovial villi
articular fat pads or haversian glands
synovial menisci and intra-articular glands

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100
Q

what is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membranes?

A

aid in spreading synovial fluid

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101
Q

where are the articular fat pads located?

A

in the fibrous layer of synovial membrane; they are absent from articular cartilage, synovial menisci, intra- articular disc

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102
Q

articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?

A

lumbar zygapophyses

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103
Q

intra-articular discs are a feature of what joints examples?

A

temporomandibular
sternoclavicular
acromioclavicular
radio-ulnar

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104
Q

synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?

A

femur-tibia articulation
cerivcal zygopophyses
lumbar zygopophyses

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105
Q

what are the layers of the synovial membrane?

A

outer fibrous layer and an inner (lumenal) cellular layer AKA synovial lamina intima

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106
Q

what are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

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107
Q

what is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyalouronic acid

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108
Q

what is the source of nutrition for articular cartilage?

A

blood vessels in the synovial membrane, sinuses of the bone marrow cavity and from synovial fluid itself

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109
Q

which collagen fiber type predominates in articular cartilage?

A

type II

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110
Q

what are proteoglycans composed of?

A

a core protein and glycosaminoglycans

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111
Q

what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

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112
Q

cartilage is able to change shape due to a compression, a characteristic known as

A

deformation

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113
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

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114
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

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115
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

weeping theory

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116
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?

A

boosted theory

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117
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low friction observed during movement

A

boundary theory

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118
Q

what are the properties of synovial fluid

A

it is yellow-white,viscous, slightly alkaline, and tastes salty

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119
Q

which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior

A

hyaluronate

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120
Q

what substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior

A

lubricin

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121
Q

what is simple synovial joint (diarthrosis)

A

only one pair of articulating surfaces are observed

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122
Q

what is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)

A

within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra articular disc) or meniscus

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123
Q

what are the classifications of synovial joints (diarthroses) based on type of movement?

A 
nonaxial 
uniaxial
biaxial
multiaxial 
(ALL SYNOVIAL JOINTS)
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124
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial

A

plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)

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125
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial

A

hinge(diarthrosis ginglymus)

pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)

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126
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar
(diarthrosis) condylar
(diarthrosis) ellipsoidal
saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

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127
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multiaxial

A

ball and socket
(diarthrosis enarthrosis)
(diarthrosis spheroidal)
(diarthrosis cotyloid)

are all classifications given to the same joint

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128
Q

what are examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints

A

median atlanto-axial joint

proximal radio-ulnar joint

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129
Q

what are examples of diarthosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joint

A

temporomandibular joint

femur-tibia joint of the knee

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130
Q

what are examples of diarthosis ellipsoidal joints

A

radiocarpal joint of the wrist
metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand
metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot
atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

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131
Q

what are examples of synovial saddle (diarthosis sellar) joints

A

carpometacarpal joints of the thumb
talocrural joint of the ankle
calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

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132
Q

what are examples of diarthosis cotyloid joints

A

femur-acetabulum of innominate articulation at the hip

humerus- glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

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133
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent

A

33 segments

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134
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult

A

26 segments

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135
Q

what constitutes the spine

A

24 presacral segments, cervical, thoracic, lumbar

136
Q

how many segments unite to form the typical sacrum

A

5 segments

137
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx

A

4 segments

138
Q

Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae

A

The two toed sloth
Manitee
ant bear
three toed sloth

139
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae

A

Ant bear

three toed sloth

140
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae

A

Manitee

Two toed sloth

141
Q

What does the term cervical refer to

A

The region of the neck

142
Q

What does the term thoracic refer to

A

Breast plate or chest

it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

143
Q

What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest

A

Dorsal segments

the dorsal’s

144
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region

A

12 segments

145
Q

What does the term lumbar refer to

A

The loin

the region between the rib and the hip

146
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region

A

Five segments

147
Q

What does the term sacrum refer to

A

The holy bone or holy region

148
Q

What does the term coccyx refer to

A

A cuckoo birds bill or cuckoo birds beak

149
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column

A

About 70 cm or 28 inches

150
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column

A

About 60 cm or 25 inches

151
Q

What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column

A

About 3 inches

152
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region both measurements

A

About 12 cm or 5 inches

153
Q

What is the length of my male thoracic region both measurements

A

About 28 cm or 11 inches

154
Q

What is the length of a male lumbar region both measurements

A

About 18 cm or 7 inches

155
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum both measurements

A

About 12 cm or 5 inches

156
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column what is the length of the male spine both measurements

A

About 58 cm or 23 inches

157
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weigh bearing transfer

A

S1 through S3 at the auricular surface

158
Q

What organs are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull

A

That Eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

159
Q

Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure

A

Notochord

160
Q

What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column

A

Para axial mesoderm

161
Q

what embryonic structure gives rise to somites

A

paraxial mesoderm

162
Q

name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite

A

sclerotome
myotome
dermatome

163
Q

what are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during developmental

A

membranous
cartilaginous
skeletal or osseous

164
Q

migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature

A

the perichordal blastema

165
Q

the perichondral blastema gives rise to what processes

A

neural processes and costal processes

166
Q

what is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichondral blastemae

A

intersegmental artery

167
Q

what forms between the sclerotomites of a perichondral blastema

A

the intrasclerotome fissure (fissure of von ebner)

168
Q

the intrasclerotome fissure (fissure of von ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature

A

the perichondral

169
Q

the union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclertomite from adjacent perichondral blastemae gives rise to what feature

A

the vertebral blastema

170
Q

what vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema

A

the segmental artery

171
Q

when will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema

A

beginning in the 6th embryonic week

172
Q

what is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage

A

chondrification

173
Q

what are the names given to the centers of chondrification within the vertebral blastema

A

centrum center
neural arch center
transverse process center

174
Q

how many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema

A

six…2 for the centrum
2 for the neural arches
2 for each transverse process

175
Q

what is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebra

A

during the 7th embryonic week

176
Q

what is the name given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance

A

primary centers appear in utero

secondary centers appear after birth

177
Q

what is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra

A

3 primary centers

5 secondary centers

178
Q

what are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra

A

centrum centers and neural arch centers

179
Q

what are the names locations of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical

A

tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers

180
Q

what is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra

A

during puberty, typical ages 11-16 year olds

181
Q

what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine

A

cervical- rectangular
thoracic- triangular
lumbar- reniform

182
Q

what is the given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body

A

superior epiphyseal plate

inferior epiphyseal plate

183
Q

what large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body

A

the basivertebral venous foramen

184
Q

what is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral arch where the transverse process and articular processes attach

A

the lamina- pedicle junction

185
Q

what is the generic orientation of the pericle at each region of the spine

A

cervical- posterolateral
thoracic- posterior, slight lateral
lumbar- posterior

186
Q

All lamina are oriented and what direction

A

Posterior and median

187
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina

A

The ligamentum flavum

188
Q

What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of ligamentum flavum

A

Para articular process

189
Q

What classification of bone will Para articular processes represent

A

Accessory bone

190
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on x-ray

A

Shingling

191
Q

What is the name given to the lamina pedicle Junction at each region of the spine

A

Cervical articular pillar

thoracic and lumbar pars inter-articularis

192
Q

What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch spinous process on lateral x-ray

A

The spinolaminar junction

193
Q

What names may be given to each apophysis of the spine

A

The transverse apophysis or transverse process

articular apophysis or articular process

194
Q

What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine

A

Cervical anterolateral
thoracic posterolateral
lumbar lateral

195
Q

What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process

A

The transverse tubercle

196
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter it’s initial direction in the cervical region

A

Cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

197
Q

What will cause the transverse process transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region

A

The growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

198
Q

What is the name given to the joint form between articular facets of the vertebral couple

A

The zygapophysis

199
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-zygapophysis

A

The superior articular process or superior articular apophysis

200
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the post zygapophysis

A

The inferior articular process or inferior articular apophysis

201
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen

A

The inferior articular process post zygapophysis
the superior articular process pre-zygapophysis
the capsular ligament
the ligamentum flavum

202
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen

A

The inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

203
Q

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen

A

The superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

204
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen

A

The vertebral body of the segment above
the vertebral body of the segment below
the intravertebral disc
the posterior longitudinal ligament

205
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process spinous apophysis

A

Calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane

206
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophysis as seen on x-ray

A

Imbrication

207
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process spinous apophysis at each region of the spine

A

Cervical slight angle inferior
thoracic noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar no inferior angle

208
Q

What is the typical shape outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column vertebral column

A

Cervical triangular
thoracic oval
lumbar triangular
sacrum triangular

209
Q

At what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate

A

L1

210
Q

It would vertebral level will the dural sack typically terminate

A

S2

211
Q

Identify all segmental arteries

A 
Vertebral 
ascending cervical 
deep cervical 
superior highest intercostal 
posterior intercostal 
subcostal 
lumbar 
iliolumbar 
lateral sacral
median middle sacral
212
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine

A

Vertebral artery
ascending cervical artery
deep cervical artery

213
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine

A

Deep cervical artery
superior highest intercostal artery
posterior intercostal artery
subcostal artery

214
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine

A

Lumbar arteries
iliolumbar artery
lateral sacral artery
median middle sacral artery

215
Q

What are the saying mental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebrae

A

Iliolumbar artery
lateral sacral artery
median middle sacral artery

216
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum

A

Iliolumbar Artery
Lateral sacral artery
median sacral artery

217
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery

A

C-1 through C6

218
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery

A

C-1 through C6

219
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery

A

C7 through T1

220
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the superior highest intercostal artery

A

T1 and T2

221
Q

What Segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery

A

T3 through T11

222
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the subcostal artery

A

T 12

223
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries

A

L1 through L4

224
Q

What are the segmental levels supplied by the
median sacral artery
iliolumbar artery
lateral sacral artery

A

L5
S1 through S5
coccyx

225
Q

What’s vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it

A

L5

226
Q

What are the segmental arteries for L5

A

Iliolumbar artery
median middle sacral artery
lateral sacral artery

227
Q

What branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and paravertebral region

A

Dorsospinal artery

228
Q

Which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid space

A

Spinal artery

229
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space

A

Osseous arteries
anterior spinal canal artery
posterior spinal canal artery

230
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

Anterior spinal canal artery and plexus

231
Q

What arteries are observed an epidural space near the ligamentum flavum

A

Posterior spinal canal artery and plexus

232
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space

A

Anterior radicular artery
posterior ridiculous artery
anterior medullary feeder artery
posterior medullary fear artery

233
Q

Which vessel will supply the ventral anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root

A

Anterior radicular artery

234
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root, and nerve root ganglion

A

posterior radicular artery

235
Q

What location and number of medullary feeder arteries present in the adult

A

9 anterior and 12 posterior medullary feeder arteries

236
Q

What is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length

A

Anterior spinal artery

237
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery

A

The vertebral artery

238
Q

Is the anterior spinal artery a single continuous artery along the spinal cord

A

No

239
Q

As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord what arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel

A

Anterior medullary feeder arteries

240
Q

The posterior spinal cord is a branch of which artery

A

The posterior inferior cerebellar artery

241
Q

What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord

A

It lies in the posterior lateral sulcus along the spinal cord

242
Q

Is the posterior spinal artery a single continuous artery along the spinal cord

A

No

243
Q

As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel

A

Posterior medullary feeder arteries

244
Q

What forms arterial vasa Corona above C3

A

A median anterior spinal artery
right and left posterior spinal artery’s
four communicating arteries

245
Q

What is the generic name given to arteries that penetrate the spinal cord

A

Intra-medullary arteries

246
Q

What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa Corona

A

Pial perforating arteries

central ventral sulcal perforating arteries

247
Q

What arterial vasa Corona up branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord

A

Ventral central sulcal perforating arteries

248
Q

What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa Corona

A

Anterior medullary feeder

posterior medullary feeder

249
Q

What vessels drain the spinal cord

A

Pial veins

250
Q

What will pial veins drain into

A

Venus vasa Corona

251
Q

What vessels form the Venous vasa Corona

A

Right and left anterior longitudinal veins
right and left posterior longitudinal veins
four communicating veins

252
Q

Which vessels will drain the Venous vasa Corona

A

Anterior medullary veins

posterior medullary veins

253
Q

What vessel will drain the dorsal posterior nerve root ganglion

A

Posterior radicular veins

254
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

Anterior Internal vertebral venous plexus Basivertebral vain

255
Q

What veins are observed an epidural space near the ligamentum Flavum

A

Posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

256
Q

What Venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen

A

Intervertebral veins

257
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal Medulla or medulla spinalis)

A

Dura matter
arachnoid matter
Pia matter

258
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space

A

Interstitial fluid

259
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

Anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein
re-current meningeal sinu-vertebral sinus vertebral nerve
Hoffman anterior Dural meningeal vertebral ligaments

260
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina

A

Posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
posterior Internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum Flavum

261
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

262
Q

What is the name given to the lateral extension of pia matter along the spinal cord

A

Dentate Denticulate ligament

263
Q

What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal cord

A

They lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

264
Q

In the horizontal view what direction of the spinal cord tends to be the largest

A

Transverse

265
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations in the name given to each

A

C3 through T1 the cervical enlargement

T9 through T 12 the lumbar lumbosacral enlargement

266
Q

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord

A

C6

267
Q

In which plane or direction will the diameter of the spinal decrease from C-2 through T1

A

Mid sagittal or anterior posterior plane

268
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the lumbar lumbosacral enlargement

A

L1 through S3 spinal nerves

269
Q

What is a generic cord level of origin vertebral level combination for the Lumbar lumbosacral enlargement

A

L1 L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra
L3 L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra
L5 S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra
S2 S3 cord levels in T 12 vertebra

270
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called

A

Conus medullaris

271
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris

A

Typically
S4
S5
Co1

272
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed

A

L1

273
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1

A

Cauda equina

274
Q

What is the continuation of Pia matter below the conus medullaris called

A

Filum terminale internum

275
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column

A

Typically S2, the dural cul de sac

276
Q

Neural tissue has been identified in which part of the filum terminale

A

Proximal part of the filum terminale internum

277
Q

What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum

A

It joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

278
Q

What does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminale externum appear to innervate

A

Lower limbs and the Extertal anal sphincter

279
Q

The last arterial vasa Corona creates which feature on angiogram

A

Cruciate anastomosis

280
Q

What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2

A

Filum Terminale externum

281
Q

What is the name given to the Caudal attachment of the meninges

A

Coccygeal medullary vestige

282
Q

What is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 in the filum terminale is thickened

A

Tethered cord syndrome

283
Q

What are the four basic tissues of the human body

A

Epithelial
Neural
Muscle
Connective

284
Q

What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome

A

It is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord

285
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic Intravertebral foramen

A

The spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple
in example T3 nerve exits the vertebral Intervertebral foramen formed by T3 T4 and rib four joints with this vertebral couple

286
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebra

A

Ant bear

three toed sloth

287
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae

A

Two toed sloth

Manatee

288
Q

Which vertebra are typical cervical’s

A

C3
C4
C5
C6

289
Q

What vertebra are a typical cervical’s

A

C1
C2
C7

290
Q

What is the shape of the typical cervical vertebra body from the cranial view

A

Rectangular

291
Q

What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view

A

Posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters

292
Q

What would be the direction of the cervical curve based on an osseous feature

A

Posterior or kyphotic

293
Q

What accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve

A

The inter-vertebral disc height

294
Q

What is the direction of the typical cervical curve

A

Anterior or lordotic

295
Q

At which vertebral couple with the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height

A

C5 C6

296
Q

What is the effect of aging on the cervical vertebral body

A

It diminishes the overall height of the vertebral body

297
Q

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical

A

Anterior groove
posterior groove
right and left uncinate processes

298
Q

What are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim

A 
Uncinate process 
unciform process 
Uncovertebral process 
uncus 
lateral lip
299
Q

At what developmental age well the uncinate process first be observed

A

3rd to 4th fetal month

300
Q

What are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical

A

Anterior lip
posterior lip
right and left lateral grooves

301
Q

What is the joint classification for the anterior lip anterior groove articulation

A

Fibrous Amphiarthrosis syndesmosis

302
Q

What is the joint classification for the uncinate process lateral groove articulation

A

Modified synovial saddle diarthrosis sellar

303
Q

What is the joint classification for the spongy bone intravertebral disc articulation

A

Cartilaginous amphiarthrosis symphysis

304
Q

How many joint surfaces are present an upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body

A

5

305
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical

A

10

306
Q

What is the name given to the uncinate process lateral groove articulation

A

Joint of luschka or uncovertebral joint

307
Q

What is the functional significance of the joint of Luschka

A

It appears to stabilize the intervertebral disc while accommodating flexion extension and requiring coupled motion axial rotation with lateral bending in the cervical spine

308
Q

What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body

A

The longus colli muscle

309
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical

A

Posterolateral 45°

310
Q

At what location on the vertebral body of a typical cervical will the pedicle attach

A

To the side and in the center of the vertebral body

311
Q

What ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical

A

Fibrous amphiarthrosis syndesmosis

312
Q

Ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature

A

Para articular processes

313
Q

Ossification on the ligamentum Flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will be associated with which classification of bone

A

Accessory bone

314
Q

What is the outline of the vertebral foramen of the typical cervical vertebra

A

Heart shaped or triangular

315
Q

Which is the greatest diameter of the vertebral foramen of typical cervical’s

A

Transverse

316
Q

What soft tissue diameter mimics the outline of the typical cervical vertebral foramen

A

The transverse diameter of the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord

317
Q

The greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at

A

C6

318
Q

The greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple

A

C5 C6

319
Q

List in order the Osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body

A 
Costal element 
anterior tubercle 
costotransverse bar 
posterior tubercle 
true transverse process
320
Q

What muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra

A

Anterior scalene
longus capitis
longus colli
anterior intertransversarii

321
Q

What muscles may attached to the posterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra

A 
Splenius cervisis 
iliocostalis cervisis 
longissimus cervisis
levator scapula 
middle scalene 
posterior scalene 
rotators 
posterior intertransversarii
322
Q

What muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar

A

Middle scalene and posterior intertransversarii

323
Q

What produces the primary tension on the transverse process that will cause remodeling in the anterolateral and inferior directions

A

Cervical spinal nerves as they directed anterolateral and inferiorly to form the cervical and brachial plexuses

324
Q

What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar

A

Sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

325
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process

A

60° anterolateral from the mid sagittal plane

15° inferiorly from the horizontal plane

326
Q

What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process

A

The carotid tubercle

327
Q

What will cause remodeling on the anterior tubercle at C6

A

The common carotid artery

328
Q

What will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen

A

The vertebral artery
vertebral venous plexus
postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers

329
Q

What is the name of the surface feature observed between ends of the articular pillar

A

The groove sulcus for the dorsal Ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

330
Q

What is the classic angulation of a typical cervical articular facet

A

40 to 45° from the coronal plane

331
Q

Recent work suggest that angulation for typical cervical articular facets

A

55 to 60°

332
Q

What is the orientation of the typical cervical superior articular facet

A

Bum backward upward medial

333
Q

What is the orientation of the typical cervical inferior articular facet

A

Fold forward lateral downward

334
Q

What muscles will attached to the cervical articular processes

A 
Longissimus capitis
Longissimus cervisis
Semispinalis capitis
Semispinalis cervisis 
Multifidus 
Rotators
335
Q

What muscles blend with the capsular ligament of the cervical zygapophysis

A

Semispinalis capitis
Multifidus
Rotator longus

336
Q

What is the joint classification for the typical cervical zygapophysis

A

Synovial plane diarthrosis arthrodia joint

337
Q

What modifications of the synovial joint are observed in the cervical spine

A

Meniscoidal folds

Spinal Anatomy Summer 2015 (67 decks)

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