Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

bacteriostatic

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2
Q

how can tetracyclines be taken?

A

PO and topical

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3
Q

what can tetracyclins not be taken with?

A

milk because of calcium

or iron or magnesium

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4
Q

what happens if a pregnant woman takes tetracylins

A

skeletal issues in the child

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5
Q

macrcolides end in

A

thromycin

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6
Q

macrolides are …. cidal or static

A

cidal and static

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7
Q

what can be used if a patient is allergic to penicillin

A

Macrolides

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8
Q

How do old people present with UTI

A

confusion and disorientation

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9
Q

What is used for an uncomplicated UTI?

A

bactrim

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10
Q

example of a mycobacterium?

A

TB

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11
Q

sulfadrugs all have what in the name?

A

“sulfa”

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12
Q

what should you do for patients who have been given sulfadrugs?

A

watch renal functions and increase fluids

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13
Q

4 drugs used to treat TB

A

R ifampin
I soniazid
P yrazimadine
E thambutol

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14
Q

which drug do you not want to eat tyramine foods with?

A

INH

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15
Q

adverse effects of INH

A

hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy

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16
Q

Adverse effects of ethambutol

A

optic neuritis hyperuricemia

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17
Q

Adverse effects of rifampin

A

orange discoloration of fluids

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18
Q

INH cannot be given to …

A

people with liver issues

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19
Q

what to monitor with patients being treated for TB

A

eyes and liver

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20
Q

what ending indicates a fungal treatment

A
  • azol
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21
Q

how do we check for the flu?

A

nose swab

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22
Q

treatment for the flu

A

oseltamivir for 5 days

prophalactically for 10 days

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23
Q

what do tetracyclines end in?

A

-cycline

24
Q

what is bacterim comprised of?

A

Sulfonamide and trimethoprim

25
Q

adverse effect of bactrim?

A

Hypersensitivity reactions—Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Rash
Hematologic effects

26
Q

cephalosporin drugs all have

A

preffix Cef-

27
Q

drugs which can cause C Diff

A

Carbapenems and Cephalosporins

28
Q

adverse effect of Phenazopyridine

A

turn urine orange

29
Q

Effect of Nitrofurantoin at different levels

A

high dose- bacteriocidal

low dose - bacteristatic

30
Q

drug used for chronic uti patients

A

Nitrofurantoin

31
Q

adverse effects of Nitrofurantoin

A

neuropathy, pulmonary reactions

32
Q

what do patients who have been exposed to TB but not infected get treated with?

A

6 months of IMH treatment

33
Q

term for when all blood counts are low

A

Pancidopenia

34
Q

what do hep c drugs all start with

A

’s’

35
Q

who can not have pyrantel?

A

children under 2 years old

36
Q

what is used for pinworms and roundworms?

A

pyrantel

37
Q

worm meds end in

A

-bendazole

38
Q

what does tinia refer to?

A

fungus

39
Q

antimalarials drug ending

A

“quine”

40
Q

adverse effect of ketoconazole

A

– Hepatotoxicity

– Effect on sex hormones

41
Q

what is fluconazole used for?

A

prophylactic use for bone marrow transplant patients

42
Q

what is the main adverse effect associated with azoles

A

hepatoxicity

43
Q

who cannot get the chicken pox?

A

immunosuppressed patients because it’s a live disease

44
Q

Nystatin use

A

for the treatment of intestinal candidiasis; also available in a number of topical preparations

45
Q

Flucytosine use

A

Less toxic drug used for the treatment of systemic infections caused by Candida or Cryptococcus

46
Q

Caspofungin use

A

for the treatment of invasive aspergillosis in patients who are refractory to other treatments

47
Q

likely adverse effects of an antifungal?

A

liver issues
GI effects
CNS effects

48
Q

what antibiotic drugs can be used before an organism is identified?

A

broad-spectrum drugs

49
Q

when in combination drug therapy used?

A

often used initially for severe infections or for mixed infections

50
Q

aminoglycosides in end

A
  • mycin

+ amikacin

51
Q

what is used for MRSA

A

vancomycin

52
Q

what can a too rapid IV administration of vancomycin cause?

A

Red Man’s Syndrome

53
Q

penicillins end with …

A

“cillin”

54
Q

what happens to each progressing generation of cephalosporins?

A

increase the ability to reach cerebrospinal fluid

55
Q

what does primary prevention of cancer include

A

reducing cancer risks

56
Q

what does secondary prevention of cancer include

A

early detection

57
Q

what does tertiary prevention of cancer include

A

helping patients manage disease