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el fin Flashcards

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1
Q

Threshold of a neuron is

A

voltage at which the inflow of sodium ions causes reversal of the resting potential.

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2
Q

An neuronal circuit in which one presynaptic neuron stimulates a group of neurons, each of which then synapses with a common postsynaptic cell is a:

A

Parallel after discharge

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3
Q

Following injury to a peripheral neuron, chromatolysis occurs, which is:

A

breakup of the Nissl bodies.

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4
Q

The nerve that stimulates the diaphragm to contract arises from which plexus:

A

cervical plexus.

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5
Q

Spinal nerves emerge from the vertebral column via:

A

intervertabral foramina

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6
Q

the threshold of a given neuron varies considerably depending on local conditions.

true or false

A

True

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7
Q

spinothalamic tract carry what information

A

sensory impulses regarding temperature, pain, itch and tickle.

AKA anterolateral

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8
Q

corticospinal tracts stimulate what

A

Voluntary muscle movement

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9
Q

Trigeminothalamic pathway involved in

A

tactile, thermal and pain from face, nasal cavity, oral cavity and teeth

Facial to thalamus and cortex

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10
Q

Which pathway is involved most in voluntary mvement

A

Corticospinal

  1. Lateral corticospinal - distal muscles of limbs: precise movements of hands and feet (eg. Play piano)
    - Limbs and trunk
  2. Anterior corticospinal – muscles of trunk and proximal limbs
  3. Corticobulbar tract – muscles of head
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11
Q

Disease attacking the corticospinal pathway

A

ALS

motor area of cortex is attacked and UMN’s and LMN’s
- Corticalspinal track Aren’t sending info to LMN (also can have LMN problems)
- No cognitive detrement

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12
Q

Brain needs such high amount of blood flow bc

A

the movement of the blood stimulates the growth the neuronal cytoplasmic extensions.

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13
Q

Part of the pons

A

a) Pontine Nuclei
- Respiratory control
- Voluntary muscle control

b) Vestibular Nuclei - Involved in equilibrium (along w/ medulla)

c) Pneumotaxic Area inhibits respiration – prevents overinflation

d) Apneustic Area Stimulates respiration
  1. Nuclei for 4 pairs of cranial nerves (V, VI, VII, VIII )
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14
Q

Degree of muscle stretch monitered by

A

Muscle spindle

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15
Q

Muscle spindle vs GTO

A

Muscle spindle moniters muscle length, contracting if it gets too long

GTO moniters force on muscle, causing it to relax if force is too great

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16
Q

what is a receptor potential

A

receptor potential only facilitates signal transduction or stimulates inward current flow.

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17
Q

Selectivity of a receptor

A

Receptors respond weakly or not at all to anything BUT their corresponding stimuli

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18
Q

Receptor potentials and generator potentials

A

Receptors always occur from receptors producing APs, generator potneitals seem to be tied to general senses

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19
Q

What kind of receptor would sense equlibrium

A

Mechano

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20
Q

Intrafusal fibers stimulated by? Extrafusal?

A

Intra - Gamma motor neurons
Extra - Alpha motor neurons

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21
Q

The cell bodies of first-order neurons in the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway to the cortex are located in the:

A

posterior root ganglia of spinal nerves

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22
Q

Reason for visceral pain = referred pain

A

sensory neurons for both visceral pain and surface structures enter the same segment of the spinal cord, and surface sensations are better localized by the brain.

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23
Q

What are olfactory hairs

A

cilia projecting from the dendrites of first-order neurons.

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24
Q

The auditory (Eustachian) tube connects the:

A

Middle ear and nasopharynx

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25
Q

Primary location on the cortex for gustation

A

parietal lobe.

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26
Q

Whenever light hits the pupil it

A

Decreases in size

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27
Q

Muscles in the pupil function to

A

Radial dialate

Circular constrict

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28
Q

More cones or rods

A

Rods

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29
Q

order of transmission of visual stimulus

A

photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, optic nerve, optic tract, optic chiasm

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30
Q

In the autonomic nervous system, all preganglionic fibers release the neurotransmitter:

A

ACh

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31
Q

Interstitial cells of testes are stimulated by hormone

A

LH

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32
Q

Major target organ for glucagon

A

Liver

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33
Q

Second messenger binding system, what occurs after enzyme binds to receptor

A

adenylate cyclase is activated by a G protein.

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34
Q

Function of adenylate cyclatase

A

conversion of ATP to cAMP (cyclic AMP)

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35
Q

Function of cAMP

A

(Cyclic AMP)
activates protein kinases (any enzyme that is a kinases adds a phosphate to something)

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36
Q

Function of - Phosphodiesterase

A

inactivates cAMP

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37
Q

somatostatin

A

Produced by Delta cells in pancreas
.
o Somatostatin inhibits insulin AND glucagon (slows down process of adding glucose so system has time for absorption of nutrients)

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38
Q

What does cortisone and cortisol do to the body?

A

(a stress hormone) is the opposite of an anabolic, causes catabolism of lean body mass (protein)

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39
Q

The primary stimulus for the release of insulin is:

A

Elevated blood glucose

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40
Q

Insulin-like growth factors are necessary for the full effect of:

A

hGH

The indirect effects of hGH occur primarily by the action of insulin-like growth factor-1, which hepatocytes primarily secrete in response to elevated HGH binding to surface receptors.

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41
Q

Percentage of infant that is fluid

A

75%

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42
Q

Intercellular vs extracellular fluid

A

intracellular is 2/3

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43
Q

Main method of fluid movement

A

Osmosis

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44
Q

Barriers seperating intra cellular fluid, interstitial fluid, and blood plasma

A

Plasma membrane
Blood vessel walls

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45
Q

Where is water mainly stored

A

Muscle (lean body mass)
- usually around 65%

fat stores around 20%%

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46
Q

Which organ is responsible for most fluid lost

A

Kidneys

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47
Q

What contributes to total fluid loss

A

Gi Tract
Respiration
Skin
Kidneys

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48
Q

Other than ingestion, how is fluid gained?

A

Every time you have metabolic reaction, some fluid is produced

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49
Q

Vast percentage of water reabsorption occurs where in the nephron?

A

PCT

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50
Q

Hormones regulating renal reabsorption

A

Angiotensin II
Aldosterone
Atrial Natruretic Peptide

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51
Q

Major hormone regulating water loss/retention

A

ADH

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52
Q

Increase of ANP results in

A

Reduced reabsorption of NaCl by kidneys
therefore increased loss of NaCl and water through urine

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53
Q

Aldosterone

A

Stimulated release by Angiotensin II

By promoting urinary reabsorption of Na+ and Cl-, increases water reabsorption via osmosisat DCT and CD.

Reduces loss of water in urine.

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54
Q

ADH

A

Vasopressin

Promotes insertion of water-channel proteins (aquaporin -2) into the apical membranes of principal cells in the collecting ducts of the kidneys. As a result, the water permeability of these cells increases and more water is reabsorbed.

Reduces loss of water in urine.

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55
Q

ANP

A

Promotes natriuresis, elevated urinary excretion of Na+ (and Cl-) accompanied by water.

Increases loss of water in urine.

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56
Q

How can water intoxication occur

A
  • Only take in plain water (No replenishing of solutes)
  • Decreased sodium and chlorine conc
  • Water moves into cells (where more sodium is)
  • Causes cell swelling
  • Convulsions, coma, and possible death
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57
Q

Function of electrolytes in body fluids

A

i) Control osmosis of H2O between fluid compartments
ii) Ions help maintain acid-base balance
iii) Carry electrical currents for AP’s and CoP’s
iv) Cofactors needed for enzyme activity (Not involved directly)

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58
Q

How do bases tend to work in blood

A

Binding wih H ions, and taking them out of solution

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59
Q

Three major systems to regulate pH

A

Removing H ions

Buffer system

CO2 xhalation

Kidney Excretion of H

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60
Q

How effective is the buffer system in blood

A

Fast but not a strong effect

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61
Q

Why does one continue to exhale after stopping excercise

A

Exercise generates lactic acid

respiration rate remains high, clearing out lactic acid/acidic environment)

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62
Q

Kidney excretion of H+

A
  • Strongest approach to regulating blood pH
  • Remains active until problem is fixed
  • Can excrete H ions
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63
Q

What action does the buffer system take to affect pH

A

prevent rapid or dramatic changes in pH by converting strong acids to weak acids or strong bases to weak bases.
- Change by combining and or disassociating

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64
Q

Principal buffers in body fluids?

A

Protein, carbonic acid-biocarbonate, and the phosphate buffer system

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65
Q

Bicarbonate ion is a

A

Weak base

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66
Q

Carbonic acid is a

A

weak acid buffer

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67
Q

Phosphate buffer system

A

Combats strong bases by converting them to H2O

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68
Q

How dos breathing affect pH

A

As CO2 increases, pH drops
As CO2 decreases, pH increaes

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69
Q

Is CO2 helpful in blood

A

necessary in the blood to stimulate cardiovascular center in the brain

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70
Q

What does a normal breathing rate signify in regards to pH

A

Blood pH level is normal

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71
Q

How do kidneys help control pH

A

Excrete H into bloodstream to maintain pH
Hours to do job

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72
Q

a blood pH of less than 7.35 would be considered

A

Acidosis

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73
Q

A blood pH of greater than 7.45

A

Alkilosis

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74
Q

pH imbalances in the blood is most often due to

A

Respiratory problems
Metabolic problems

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75
Q

Respiratory Acidosis

A

Alveolar ventilation can not keep up with CO2 production

Decrease in blood pH

PCO2 > 45mm of pressure

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76
Q

Respiratory Alkilosis

A

PCO2 < 35
Hyperventilation
decrease of CO2 in blood and thus pH decrease

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77
Q

Metabolic acidosis

A

Arteriole conc of bicarbonic ion less than 22mEquivperL

Decrease in HCO3
- Caused by Renal dysfunction, diahreeah
Blood pH drops

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78
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

A

Arteriole conc. of bicarbonic ion Going to be greater than 26mequivperL

Increase in HCO3- (loss of acid or intake alkaline drugs)

Caused by
- Diuretic use
- Antacid intake
- Dehydration

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79
Q

Uncompensated OR partial acid-base balance

A

The blood pH of a person can be brought up or down, but exactly optimal (7.4 pH) cannot be reached (Can be on its own or with medical intervention)

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80
Q

Infant metabolic rate

A

2x faster than adults in resting state (implying 2x more waste products to maintain pH balance)

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81
Q

Infants body surface in relation to pH maintenance

A

Infants have more surface area facing to the air (organs are not proportionately functioning to body size)

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82
Q

Why are infants more prone to water loss

A

Infants 30 – 80 breathes per minute (water loss every breath)

excessive body surface area

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83
Q

What would infants high conc. of K and Cl put them at risk for?

A

metabolic acidosis

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84
Q

hypernatremia

A

elevated sodium in the blood, linking to kidney function – less sodium is reabsorbed so more water stays in blood – BV and BP increase.

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85
Q

Hypokalemia

A
  • Lower than desired potassium
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86
Q

zygote

A

Sperm and egg post fertalization

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87
Q

gonads

A

Organs that produce egg and sperm
- Also secrete hormones to help with that process

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88
Q

supporting reproductive structure

A

(penis and uterus): Assist in the delivery of egg and sperm, they do not produce

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89
Q

Autosomes

A
  • All of the other chromosomes except the X and Y
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90
Q
  • Raphe
A

Ext. Seperation of the scrotum

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91
Q

Sperm ideally produced at what temp

A

within 2-3 degrees of body tem (colder normally)

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92
Q

Cryptorchidism

A

Testes do not desend

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93
Q

Layers of testis

A

i) Tunica Vaginalis
- Outermost membrane lying on top of each testis
ii) Tunica Albuginea
- Generally fibrous, irregular, connective tissue
- Descends to intenior, seperateing the internal testis into rooms or lobules (200-300)

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94
Q

i) Spermatic Cord

A

Main blood supply of testis

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95
Q

Seminiferous tubules

A
  • Convoluted tubules inside each lobule
  • Site of sperm production
  • Sperm collects in rete testies
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96
Q

Epidydimis

A
  • Where sperm is stored and matures
  • Takes abt 64 days from production to maturation for fertility of sperm
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97
Q

Sustentacular cells

A

Sertoli cells

  • Buried in and around developing sperm, nourishes and protects them
  • Also regulate testosterone production and FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone)
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98
Q
  • Blood –testis-barrier
A
  • Tight junctions that try to protect the developing sperm from antibodies
  • When sperm becomes haploid, the body will attack it
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99
Q

Sperm production and travel out of seminiferous tubulse

A

Spermatagonium
primary Spermatocytes (2N)
primary Spermatocytes (1N)
Spermatids
Sperm (Spermatazoa)
Released into ST

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100
Q

Spermiogeneiss

A

From spermatid to sperm

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101
Q

Common fuel source for sperm

A

Fructose

Aerobic energy production cell, mitochondria produces the energy

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101
Q
  • Spermiation
A

Fluid is produced which produces all the sperm away from the wall into the rete testes

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102
Q

Principal piece of sperm

A

Longer bend portion

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103
Q

What stimulates the process of spermatogenesis

A

Anterior pit releases LH and FSH

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104
Q

Testosterone affect on Ant pit

A

Decreases relase of GnRH and LH

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105
Q

What does Gonadatropin releasing hormone do?

A

Released by hypothalamus, goes to ant. Pit gland
- Ant pit gland produces luteinizing hormone (Helps interstiltial cells produce testosterone) and FSH

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106
Q
  • ABP
A

androgen binding protein – binds to androgen (testosterone) to ensure testosterone at level necessary for spermatogenesis

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107
Q

LH primary job

A

Increase testosterone production

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108
Q

FSH primary job

A

Responsible for production of the sperm

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109
Q

Inhibin primary job

A

Inhibit further testosterone production if already at a high level bc certain. Level of testosterone optimal to produce maximal amount of sperm

Operates a negative feedback loop if testosterone level already at necessary level

Produced by sertoli cells

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110
Q

Seminal vesicle production

A

60% of semen

Add fluid that is slightly alkaline (bc urethra is typically more acidic)

  • Fructose: An energy source for sperm
  • Prostaglandins: A chemical that increases mobility and viability of sperm (last longer and move better)
  • When prostaglandin comes I contact with female smooth muscle it fascilitates sperm travel
  • Semogelin: A clotting protein, immediately after semen is released semen will coagoulate (more gel like than fluid like)
  • In 15 minutes it should reliquefy for mobility
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111
Q

Prostate secretions

A
  • Citrate (potential energy source linked to creb cycle),
  • phosphalase, proteoltic enzymes (both help reliquefy semen),
  • PSA (Prostate specific antigen): An element that is a measurement of the growth of the cells of the prostate gland
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112
Q

Indirect inguinal hernia

A
  • Not only bulging but probably has travelled down the canal to some location (even as far as the testes)
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113
Q

Direct hernia

A
  • Hernia implies that SI is bulging out against abdominal wall (or localized
  • Very observable and palpable
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114
Q

pH of semen and amount per

A

7.2-7.7

2.5-5ml per ej

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115
Q

When is there a risk of infertility in regards to quantity of sperm ej

A

less than 20 million sperm/mL

(average is 50-150sperm/mL)

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116
Q
  • Priapism
A

persistent erection that does not involve sexual activity – can last several hours

usually neurological (brain stem function) or tumor or anything that compresses blood vessels keepin them from relaxing, or when otherwise healthy males mix drugs with alcohol , SC damage

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117
Q

Erection is result of which NS

A

Parasymp

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118
Q

Ejaculation result of which NS

A

Symp

  • Smooth muscle at base of urinary bladder closes (don’t want urine withsemen)
  • Peristalic contractions in the ampulla of the epidymis move in peristalsis, vas
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119
Q

Erectile tissue compsoed of

A
  • Corpora cavernosa: 2 large and 1 small areas, vascular tissue with tremendous blood supply
  • Once filled with blood the spongey urethra becomes erectile tissue
  • Corpus spongiosum
  • Spongy urethra
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120
Q

When do ovaries descend

A

3 month

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121
Q

Ovaries produces

A

progesterone, inhibin, estrogen, relaxin, and the egg

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122
Q

Ligaments of ovaries

A

i) Broad ligament

ii) Ovarian ligament: Ligament that attaches the ovaries to the uterus 

iii) Suspensory ligament: Attaches ovaries to pelvic wall (suspends in proper location)

iv) Mesovarium
123
Q

Germinal epithelium

A
  • Germinal Epithelium: Outer most layer around each ovary (Simple epithelium)
  • Basically the covering
  • Misnamed bc it has nothing to do with germination or follicle growth
124
Q

follicular cell

A

Oocyte (the egg) + single layer of surrounding cells

125
Q

Granulosa Cell

A

Oocyte + several layers of surrounding cells (For protection and nourishment)

126
Q

Cycle of ovulation/follicular development

A

Primordial Follicle (primitive ones that have migrated from yolk sac to ovaries)

Primary (preantral) Follicles: The ones that develop to the next stage, but stay there until puberty (number drops consider, many die off)

Secondary (antral) Follicles: Typically 2 layers of cells around it (Strongest becomes mature follicle)

Corpus Hemorrhagicum (Ruptured Follicle)

“Ovulation” Secondary Oocyte: After ovulation bc it is haploid in number of chromosomes

Early Corpus Luteum

Mature Corpus Luteum

Corpus Albicans

127
Q
  • Zona Pellucida
A

Glycogprotein layer right on top of the egg for nourishment

128
Q
  • Theca Folliculi
A

A little more superficial, involved in secretion of estrogen (precursor to estrogen) and another layer of connective tissue

129
Q

How many eggs are present at birth

A

200,000 - 2 million

130
Q

How many eggs present at puberty

A

4000

131
Q

How many eggs reach ovulation stage

A

400

132
Q

Infundibulum

A

The open portion of the FT

133
Q
  • Isthmus
A

Narrowest portion of FT before uterus

134
Q

Peg cells

A

Cilia that move egg through FT to uterus

135
Q

Fertilization occurs how many days after sex

A

5-6 days

136
Q

Which layer of uterus is stimulated to cnotract during birth

A

Myometrium (middle)
: The muscular layer (3 layers of smooth muscle)
- The part that, during labor, is stimulated to contract by oxytocin.

137
Q

Layer removed during period

A
  • Functionalis Layer (Good blood supply) – so if fertilization this layer will be thick and noutrishes
  • Portion of utern lining that, if no pregnancy, removed each cycle
  • Proliferation/multiplication
  • Endometriosis is the result of excessive proliferation if functionalis layer
  • Controlled by birth control or balancing estrogen/prolactin
138
Q

Permanent layer of endometrium

A

basal layer

139
Q
  • Uterine Prolapse
A

The uterus (due to weaken/damaged ligaments) starts to fall down with gravity

140
Q

Cervical Mucus

A

Around ovulation (highest time for potential pregnancy) cervical mucous is very liquid and very hospitable to sperm
- Other times the cervical mucous is gelatin like and is inhospitable to sperm (lower pH)

141
Q

Partial hysterectomy leaves the

A

cervix

142
Q

HIV brought into V by

A
  • Antigen presenting cells: Typically dendritic cells (identify and process antigens)
  • One of the ways the HIV cells brought in bc they bind to dendritic cells
143
Q

Excersices meant to help regain control of bladder

A

Kegel

144
Q
  • Hymen
A

Very thin membranous membrane that partially covers external opening to the vagina

145
Q

Urogenital Triangle location on female

A

(BW anus and vagina)

146
Q

Bartholin’s Gland (greater vestibular

A
  • Similar to bulbolar urethra – secrete fluid during sexual activity
147
Q

EPISIOTOMY

A

Perineal cut between vagina and anus
- Typically stitched through self absorbing stitches (controlled cut heals better and scars less)
- Prevents tearing

148
Q

Prolactin

A

The hormone that stimulates milk production
- Estrogen progesterone have to be at certain level to stimulate release of prolactin

149
Q

Oxytocin

A

Stimulates the ejection of milk from the nipple during suckling response

150
Q

Pathway of milk

A

Alveoli - secondary tubule - Mammary duct - Lactiferous sinus - Lactiferous duct - Nipple

151
Q

Suspensory ligament

A

Coopers, suspends breasts in location

152
Q

Fibrocystic Disease

A

Individual gets fibral cysts in their breast tissue
- Fluid filled, thickening of alveoli

153
Q

Estrogen

A

Promotes development of repro structures and secondary sex characteristics
- Increases protein anabolism
- Lowers blood cholesterol
- Moderate levels inhibit release of GnRH, FSH, LH

154
Q

Progesterone

A

Works with estrogen to prepare endometrium fr implantation

Prepares mammary glands to secrete milk

Inhibits release of GnRH and LH

155
Q

Relaxin

A

Ihibits contractions of uterus
During labour, increases flexibilty of pubic symphosis and dialates uterine cervix

affects other connective tissue in the body (ankles, hips, knees)
- 3rd trimester pregnant women have balance probems, fall risk increased
- Post delivery, relaxin remains high for abt 3 months

156
Q

Inhibin

A

Inhibts release of FSH and somewhat LH

Keeps follicles from maturing

157
Q

What phase of the uterine cycle is the endometrium at it’s thickest

A

Postovulatory phase

158
Q

What do the 2N follicles in the ovaries secrete

A

Estrogen, Inhibin and Progesterone
- about day 6 one follicle becomes dominant which secretes E and I → decreased FSH
- one dominant follicle called Graafian F

159
Q

Ovulation occurs what day in the repro cycle

A

14

160
Q

which hormones spike during/after ovulation

A

estrogen and LH

161
Q

Which hormone causes ovulation

A

caused by increased E of pre-ovulatory stage

Increased LH and GnRH = ovulation

PRIMARALLY LH

162
Q

corpus hemorrhagicum

A

Mature follicle that collaspes of ovulation

163
Q

hCG

A

(Human coreonic gonatatropin – produced by layer of embryo called coreon)

164
Q

What hormones decrease or increase at the end of a cycle without fertalization?

A

Progesterone, Estrogen, inhibin, and relaxin decrease

LH, and FSH increase, causing new cycle

165
Q

Female triad

A

Medical condition most common in female athletes with low body fat and monitoring food intake

Disordered Eating

Amenorrhea
- Absence of reproductive cycle
- Drop in FSH
- Drop in LH
- Drop in progesterone and estrogens.
- All these hormones require certain amount of fat to develop.

Osteoporosis
- Estrogen required to take Ca from blood to deposit into bones.

166
Q

What do oral contraceptives do?

A

Contraceptives (decreased FSH and LH OR block implantation by making endometrium inhospitable)

Usually composed of Estorgens &Progesterone

167
Q
  • EC “Morning After Pill” – Emergency Contraceptive
A

Combo of estrogen progesterone or very high dose of progesterone
- Inhibits LH and FSH
- Normally must be taken at least within 72 hours and then another one later

168
Q

Most fertile time

A

3 days after and 3 days before ovulation

169
Q

Consequences of menopause

A
  • Hair thinning
  • Bone density (osteoporosis risk)
  • Labito
  • Skin doesn’t have same lubrication
  • Hormone replacement therapy (patches that add estrogen and progesterone
170
Q

Andropause

A
  • Male version of menopause except reproductive ability do not disappear
  • Testosteraone about 50%
  • Viable sperm production drops
  • Fertilization is still possible
  • Lobito drops bc testosterone drops
171
Q

2 systems controlling all the funcitons of the body

A

Neural
endocrine

172
Q

Endocrine glands

A

produces the hormone, which travels through the interstitial fluid into the bloodstream.
- In the bloodstream it travels to specific target organ

173
Q

Hormones that cause growth and develop are known as

A

anabolics

174
Q
  • Down-regulation
A

There’s too much hormone, therefore, some receptors are removed to control the response

175
Q
  • Up-regulation
A

Adding more receptors when conc. of hormone is less than optimal.

176
Q

Types of hormones

A

Circulating H

Local H

177
Q

Circulating hormone

A
  • Most common type of endocrine hormone by far
  • Go from gland, into the blood, travel through the blood
  • Typically longer lasting
178
Q

Local Hormone

A
  • Hormone is released, but does not travel to blood but owrks on another organ or cell in the neigborhood OR to the gland that produced them (i.e nitric oxide that Is released by blood vessels and effects them)
  • Typically shorter acting
179
Q

Paracrines

A

Hormone will react on neighboring cell

180
Q

Autocrines

A

Released by the cell, but comes back to influence same cell that produced the hormone
- Common result: This hormone released causes cell to proliferate much faster

181
Q

Chemical classes of hormone

A

Lipid soluble
Water solube

182
Q

Types of water soluble hormones

A

Amine : NE and E
Peptide and protein : ADH and ocytocin
Eicosanoid: Prostglandins

183
Q

Types of lipid soluble hormones

A
  • Steroid
  • Thyroid – T3 and T4

Nitric oxide: Hormone AND NT

184
Q

How are lipid soluble hormones trasported in blood?

A

most must be bound to transport protein (produced, typically by the liver)

  • Diffuse into the cell bc membrane is lipid bilayer, the lipid souble protein can move right through
185
Q

How do water soluble hormones move through blood

A

free form in plasma (free fraction)
- Cannot on their own diffuse through the membrane (bc water does not mix with lipid

186
Q

How do water soluble horones enter cells

A

Second messenger system

187
Q

Second messenger system

A
  • Binding to receptor activates G protein, which activates adenylate cyclatase – conversion of ATP to cAMP (cyclic AMP) (The second messenger)
  • cAMP activates protein kinases (any enzyme that is a kinases adds a phosphate to something)
  • Kinases phosphorylate cellular proteins forming new phosphorylated proteins
  • These phosphorated proteins cause s reactions which cause physiological responses
  • Phosphodiesterase inactivates cAMP
188
Q

Factors influencing responsiveness of cell to hormone

A
  • Hormone conc.
  • Number of hormone receptors on target organ/cell
  • How the interaction of different hormones influences their function
189
Q

Permissive effect

A

One hormone needs the presence of a second hormone to produce the ideal effect (otherwise response would still be produced, but weaker than is required)

190
Q

Synergistic effect

A

: Two hormones MUST be present at the same time for the effect to occur (i.e. estrogen and progesterone)

191
Q

Antagonistic effect

A

Certain hormones produce opposite events (i.e. Insulin and glucagon)

192
Q

How is blood conc regulated

A

NS
Chemical change
Other hormones

193
Q

The master gland

A

Hypothalamus

194
Q

hGH

A

Major anabolic hormones in the system; increases growth
- Released during deep sleep phase

Ant Pit

195
Q

TSH (thyrotropin)

A

Stimulate the thyroid gland
- Often blood test done to see someone’s thyroid function

ANT PIT

196
Q

PRL

A

Along with estrogen and progesterone begins the production of milk (permissive effect)

197
Q

Hormones released by post pit

A

OT
ADH/vasopressin

198
Q

ADH operates mostly on the

A

collecting ucts

199
Q

Cells producing T3 and T4

A

Follicular cells, controlled by TSH

200
Q

Almostevery cell in body has recptors for this hormone

A

Thyroid hormone

T3 and T4

201
Q

Parafollicular cells

A

located In bw the follicular cells

  • Produce a hormone called calcitonin
202
Q

T3 and T4 production regulated by

A

controlled by iodine level in the blood & negative feedback loop

Thyroid gland stores enough for about 100 days of function

203
Q

Actions of thyroid hormones

A

Increasing basal metabolic rate
Stimulate production of ATpase for Na/K pump
Increase in body temp (Calorigenic effect)
Stimulates lipolysis (breakdown of fat for production of ATP)
Enhance some action of catecholamines (Stress hormones E and NE)
Regulate growth and development of nervous tissue and bones

204
Q

What cell produces PTH

A

Chief cells in parathyroid galnds

Increase blood calcium by increasing activity of osteoclasts

205
Q

Hormones produced by Thyroid and parathyroid

A

Thyroid

T3 and T4
Calcitonin

Parathyroid
PTH

206
Q

Catecholamine

A

stress hormones
When symp is increased, E and NE increases

207
Q

What does adrenal medulla release

A

E, NE & dopamine

208
Q

Adrenal cortex releases

A

glucocorticoids (cortisone, cortisol and corticosterone)

209
Q

Hormone releasing cells of pancreas

A

Alpha, beta, delta, and F cells

210
Q

Alpha cells

A

Produce glucagon
o Glucagon INCREASES blood glucose (breaks down glycogen and more)

211
Q

Beta cells

A

Produce insulin.
o Insulin DECREASES blood glucose by putting it into cells (requires transporters etc)

212
Q

Delta cells

A

produces somatostatin.
o Somatostatin inhibits insulin AND glucagon (slows down process of adding glucose so system has time for absorption of nutrients)

213
Q

Glycogenolysis

A

The breakdown of glycogen to give you glucose.
Insulin necessary to bring energy into cells

214
Q

Glucogenesis

A

Creation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources

215
Q

Phases of stress response

A

FOF
Resistence
Exhaustion

216
Q

Resistance reaction to stresss

A

When the stress is lasting longer than short term event
- Increase in cortisol
- More adrenal gland involvement
- Typically a good weight loss technique (lipolysis BREAKDOWN of fat)

217
Q

Addisons disease

A

(Adrenal)- hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and aldosterone
- Usually more autoimmune related

218
Q
  • Hyperthyroidism/Hypothyroidism- excess – Graves’ Disease
A

Fluid in eye secreted more than it should be and thus bulging eye
- High metabolic rate
- High reactions
- Course of treatment: Swallow iodine with radiation and kills excessive thyroid cells

219
Q

Diabetes 1 vs 2

A

1 – No insulin produced
2 – Insulin resistance

220
Q

Insulin, somatotropin, and T3 are all protein _________

A

Anabolists

221
Q

Antibodies are

A

B lymphocytes

222
Q

What produces antibodies

A

Plasma cells

223
Q

Thoracic duct empties lymph into

A

left subclavian vein.

224
Q

What activates mature T cells

A

Interleukin 2

225
Q

Is the action of IgG specific or not

A

Specific

226
Q

How are carbohydrates absorbed in the small intestine?

A

Faccilitatd diffusion

227
Q

What causes secretin secretion into SI?

A

As Chyme enters the SI

228
Q

WHy would protein catabolism be toxic without funcitoning hepatocytes

A

The production of ammonia

229
Q

The small intestine is attached to the posterior abdominal wall by a fold of the peritoneum called the:

A

Mesentary

230
Q

Role of Micelle in fat absorption

A

make triglycerides more soluble in the water of intestinal fluid.

231
Q

myogenic mechanism of renal autoregulation:

A

smooth muscle in afferent arterioles triggers vasoconstriction to decrease GFR.

232
Q

mesangial cells.

A

Contraction of mesangial cells regulates the size of the capillary lumen and thus the amount of glomerular blood flow.

233
Q

Tubular fluid as it moves through tubules

A

Constant through PCT
Descending loop of henle it increases (impermeable to ions, only water)
Ascending loop of henle it decrease (permeable to ions not water)
DCT varies depending on hormonal stimulus

234
Q

How does juxtaglomerular apparatus regulate BP

A

releasing renin from the macula densa.

235
Q

transport maximum

A

upper limit of reabsorption due to saturation of carrier systems.

236
Q

Filtrate moves from nephron to periubular capillarries how

A

filtered fluid to interstitial fluid, to epithelial cells, to peritubular capillaries.

237
Q

Collectin duct permeability regulated by

A

ADH

238
Q

The primary determinant of body fluid volume is the:

A

NaCl concentration

239
Q

Angiotensin II

A

Stimulated by low blood volume, increase results in production of aldosterone which causes NaCl to be absorbed in DCT and water as well.

240
Q

Bicarbonate is a weak ________-

A

Base

241
Q

Carbonic Acid is a weak _________

A

Acid

242
Q

strongest base

A

OH-

243
Q

Strongest acid

A

H+

244
Q

What stimulates desire to drink

A

Hypothalamus

245
Q

Ion neccessary for generation of APs

A

Na

246
Q

What does a weak acid acting on a base result in?

A

Weak base and water

247
Q

What does a weak base action on a strong acid result in

A

Carbonic acid (weak acid) which dissassociates into CO2 and H2O

248
Q

Increasing RR affects

A

More acid expelled as H2O
Dihydrogen phosphate expelled into urine (acid)

All go to increase pH

249
Q

Decreasing RR affects

A

Decrease pH

250
Q

LH is highest

A

Just prior to ovulation

251
Q

3 cranial nerves in gustatory pathway

A
  • Facial (VII) – anterior 2/3 of tongue
  • Supplies anterior 2/3 of tongue
  • Glossopharyngeal (1X) – posterior 1/3 of tongue
  • Vagus (X) – throat and epiglottis

All three connnect to gustatory nuc,eus in medullla and priamary gustatory nerve in the cortex

252
Q

Palpebrae

A

Eyelids

253
Q

Meibomian Glands

A

Fluid secretion and tear ducts

254
Q

What do Utricle and vestibule help with?

A

Balance and equillibirum

Within the vestibule

255
Q

3 channels of the cochlea

A

Scala vestibula
Scala tympani
Cochlear duct

256
Q

vestibochochlear nerve goes to the ___ of the brain

A

medulla
midbrain
thalamus
auditory complex

257
Q

Cristae

A

in the semicircular ducts are the primary sense organs of dynamic equilibrium.

258
Q

Sequence of lymph

A

Blood capillaries → interstitial spaces → lymphatic capillaries → lymphatic vessels → nodes and trunks → L & R lymphatic ducts → subclavian veins/jugular

259
Q

How much lymph produced and reabsorbed per day

A

3L/3L

259
Q

Thymus parts

A

Cortex
- Pre T cells
- Dendritic cells
- epithelial cells
- Macrophages

Medulla
- Mature T cells

259
Q

Epithelial cells of thymus

A

secrete hormones for maturation of T cells

260
Q

dendritic cells of thymus

A

APC [Antigen presenting Cells] this cell identifies pathogen in body and marks it so immune cell knows what to attack) and macrophages

261
Q

Parts of lymph node

A

Outer cortex
- Some B cells
- Follicular dendritic cells ATC
- Macrophages

Inner Cortex
- Mature T cells
- Dendritic Cells
- B cells
Deep medulla
- - B cells
- Plasma cells
- Macrophages

262
Q

Lymph flow through node

A

Afferent lymph vessel (Incoming only)

Subcapsular sinus

Trabecular sinus

Medullary sinus

Efferent lymph vessel

263
Q

Red pulp of parencyma in spleen

A

Venous sinuses
splenic (Billroth’s) cords (lympatic tissue

(All 5 found in splenic cord)
RBC
Macrophages
Lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Granulocytes

264
Q

Peyers patches

A

Congregation of whole bunch of lymphatic nodules (i.e tonsils)

265
Q

Interferon

A

stop viruses from replicating also enhance the activity of phagocytes and natural killer (NK) cell

266
Q

Transferrin

A

proteins that inhibit cell growth by reducing the amount of iron available to certain bacteria

267
Q

MHC

A

major histocompatibility complex (marker on membrane of own cells saying “Please do not attack”) – protein markers on cell membranes

have the ability to kill a wide variety of infectious microbes plus certain spontaneously arising tumor cells.

268
Q

Phases of phagocytosis

A
  • Chemotaxis
  • Adherence
  • Ingestion
  • Digestion
  • Killing and residual bodies
269
Q

Stages of inflammation

A

Vasodilation/increased permeability:

Emigration of phagocytes

Tissue repair

270
Q

Histamines, kinins, prostoglandins, leukotrienes and complment protein systme

A

Role in enhancing permeability, BV dialation, and acting as chemotaxis agents during inflammation

271
Q

What is swelling caused by

A

increased movement of fluid and white blood cells into the injured area.

272
Q

Role of complement system

A

when activated, these proteins “complement” or enhance certain immune, allergic, and inflammatory reactions

273
Q

Opsonization

A

Process to enhance phagocytosis
- Puts coating on microbe, attracting phagocyties and allows for beter binding

274
Q

Neutralizing antigen antibody action

A

prevent attachment of antigen cells to healthy cells

275
Q

Lack of cell tolerance would imply

A

autoimmune disorder

276
Q

Where do B cells complete their development?

A

Bone marrow

277
Q

Anti-body mediated (humoral) immunity (AMI

A

Destruction of antigens by antibodies

278
Q

What is meant by antigen processing?

A

Begining with ingesting the antigen and ending with insertion of antigen-MHC-II complex into the plasma membrane.

279
Q

APC

A
  • Process cell
  • Recognized by T cell
  • Allows T cell to bind with antigen

Dendritic cells, B cells, Macrophages

280
Q

Hapten

A

a substance that can combine with a specific antibody but lacks antigenicity of its own.

281
Q

All cells except ________ cells display MHC class I antigens.

A

RBCs

282
Q

Which cells display display CD4 pattern

A

Helper T cells

283
Q

Cytokines

A

small protein hormones needed for many normal cell functions

Participate in immune functions

co-stimulator for other T-cells

284
Q

Diff bw cytoxic T cells and Killer T cells

A

Cytotoxic T-cells are part of your adaptive immune response. Natural killer cells are part of your innate immune response

285
Q

trypsin
chymotrypsin
carboxypeptidase

A

A part of pancreatic secretions

(finish up digestion of proteins)

286
Q

What stimulates CCK production

A

Chime entering small intestine

287
Q

Paneth cells

A

Part of intestinal glands/brush border
- secrete lysosomes

288
Q
  • Brunner’s Glands (Duodenal Glands)
A
  • Important, secretes alkaline secretion
  • Important for neutralizing acidic environment coming from the stomach
289
Q

Micelle

A

Transports fats to brush bordr, allowing them to travel through water (b/c they’re insoluble)

290
Q

Function of chylomiron

A

Reformed Fats cant move on their own, cylomicron leaves the intestinal wall and can be absorbed into the lacteal

291
Q

What is the last part of the defecation reflex?

A

Opening of internal sphincter and then voluntary (ext) sphincter

292
Q

Glycemic index

A

How quickly carbohydrates go from digestion to absorbed

  • High glycemic (20-30 minutes from breakdown to absorption
  • Low glycemic (1.5-2hr to go from digestion to absorption)
293
Q

Where are podocytes located?

A

lays on top of capillaries in the glomularis

 Eventually have ability to determine what leaves blood and goes into urine

294
Q
  • Principle Cells
A

Found in last part of distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct
o Primarily responsible for determining final concentration of urine (Thick or thin)
o Have receptors (Protein is inserted into those cells) for antidiuretic hormone.

295
Q
  • Mesangial Cells
A

Cells located on top of filtration membrane that help to determine size of filtration membrane (determining what can pass through) – influence how much can be filtered/ what can come through

296
Q
  • Pedicels
A

Fingers of podocyte

297
Q

Glomerular Blood Hydrostatic Pressure

A

Promotes filtration

~ 55 mmHg

298
Q

Capsular Hydrostatic Pressure

A

Resists filtration

  • 15 mmHg
299
Q

Blood Colloid Osmotic Pressure

A

Resists filtration

~30mmHg

300
Q

GFR regulated how?

A

i) Adjusting blood flow in and out of glomerulus (adjusting afferent arteriole)
- Increase blood flow in, increase GFR

ii) Altering glomerular capillary surface area for filtration.
- Allow it to filter more or less

301
Q
  • Myogenic (muscle) Mechanism vs tubuloglomerular
A

Two types of renal autoregulation

Myogenic is instant

Tubuloglomerular is slower

Both reduce arteriole blood flow (or increase)

302
Q

Would reduced arteriole blood flow increase or decrease GFR?

A

Decrease

303
Q

Mesecolon vs mesentary

A

Mesecolon: secures LI to posterior wall
Mesentary secures SI to posterior wall

BIO 242 (17 decks)

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