Digestive System Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

The digestive system is a group of organs known as

A

gastrointestinal tract, that work together to convert food into energy and nutrients to feed the entire body. The digestive tract also eliminates what the body doesn’t absorb during the digestive process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Upper GI Tract

A

consists of the mouth, pharynx, esophagus and stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lower GI Tract

A

consists of the small intestine and large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

accessory organs

A

consist of the liver, gallbladder and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

or/o, stomat/o

A

mouth
begins preparation of food for digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pharyng/o

A

pharynx
transports food from the mouth to the esophaguses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

esophag/o

A

esophagus
transport food from the pharynx to the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

gastr/o

A

stomach
breaks down food and mixes it with gastric juices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

enter/o

A

small intestine
mixes chyme coming from the stomach with digestive juices to complete the digestion and absorption of most nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

col/o, colon/o

A

large intestine
absorbs excess water and prepares solid waste for elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

an/o, proct/o, rect/o

A

rectum and anus
control the excretion of solid waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

hepat/o

A

liver
secretes bile and enzymes to aid in the digestion of fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

cholecyst/o

A

gallbladder
stores bile and releases it into the small intestine as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

pancreat/o

A

pancreas
secretes digestive juices and enzymes into the small intestine as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

an/o

A

anus, ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

chol/e

A

bile, gall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

cholecyst/o

A

gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

col/o, colon/o

A

colon, large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

-emesis

A

vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

enter/o

A

small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

esophag/o

A

esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

gastr/o

A

stomach, belly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

hepat/o

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

-lithiasis

A

presence of stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

-pepsia

A

digest, digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

-phagia

A

eating, swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

proct/o

A

anus and rectom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

rect/o

A

rectum, straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

sigmoid/o

A

sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

aerophagia

A

the excessive swallowing of air while eating or drinking, and is a common cause of gas in the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

anastomosis

A

surgical connection between two hollow or tubular structures; plural, anatomoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

antiemetic

A

medication administered to prevent or relieve nausea and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

aphthous ulcers

A

Gray-white pits with a red border that appear in the soft tissues lining the mouth; also known as canker sores or mouth ulcers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ascites

A

an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

bariatrics

A

the branch of medicine concerned with the prevention and control of obesity and associated diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

borborygmus

A

the rumbling noise caused by the movement of gas in the intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

cachexia

A

a condition of physical wasting away due to the loss of weight and muscle mass that occurs in patients with diseases such as advanced cancer or AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

celiac disease

A

an inherited autoimmune disorder characterized be a severe reaction to food containing gluten; also known as gluten intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

cheilosis

A

a disorder of the lips characterized by cracklike sores at the corners of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

choledocholithotomy

A

an incision into the common bile duct for the removal of gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

cholelithiasis

A

the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder or bile ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

cirrhosis

A

a progressive degenerative disease of the liver characterized by scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

colonoscopy

A

the direct visual examination of the inner surface of the entire colon, from the rectum to the cecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

colostomy

A

the surgical creation of an artificial excretory opening between the colon and the body surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

a chronic autoimmune disorder that can occur anywhere in the digestive tract; however, it is most often found in the ileum and in the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

dental prophylaxis

A

the professional cleaning of the teeth to remove plaque and calculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

diverticulitis

A

inflammation or infection of one or more diverticula in the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

diverticulosis

A

the chronic presence of an abnormal number of diverticula in the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

dyspepsia

A

pain or discomfort in digestion; also known as indigestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

dysphagia

A

difficulty in swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

enema

A

the place of a solution into the rectum and colon to empty the lower intestine through bowel activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

enteritis

A

inflammation of the small intestine caused by eating or drinking substances contaminated with viral or bacterial pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

eructation

A

the act of belching or raising gas orally from the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

esophageal varices

A

enlarged and swollen veins at the lower end of the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

esophagogastroduodenoscopy

A

an endoscopic procedure that allows direct visualization of the upper GI tract; this includes the esophagus, stomach, and upper duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

gastroduodenostomy

A

the establishment of an anastomosis between the upper portion of the stomach and the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

gastroesophageal reflux disease

A

the upward flow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus; also known as GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

gastrostomy tube

A

the surgical placement of a feeding tube from the exterior of the body directly into the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

hematemesis

A

the vomiting of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

hemoccult test

A

a laboratory test for hidden blood in the stools; also known as fecal occult blood test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

hepatitis

A

inflammation of the liver usually caused by a viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

herpes labialis

A

blisterlike sores on the lips adjacent tissue caused by the oral herpes simples virus type 1 (HSV-1); also known as cold sores or fever blisters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

hiatal hernia

A

an anatomical abnormality in which a portion of the stomach protrude upward into the chest through an opening in the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

hyperemesis

A

extreme, persistent vomiting that can cause dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

ileus

A

the partial or complete blockage of the small intestine, large intestine, or both caused by the stopping of normal peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

inguinal hernia

A

the protrusion of a small loop of bowel through a weak place in the lower abdominal wall or groin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

jaundice

A

a yellow discoloration of the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes caused by greater-than-normal amounts of bilirubin in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

leukoplakia

A

an abnormal white precancerous lesion (sore) that develops on the tongue or the inside of the cheek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

melena

A

the passage of black, tarry, and foul-smelling stools that is caused by the presence of digested blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

morbid obesity

A

the condition of weighing two or more times the ideal weight or having a body mass index value greater than 40; also known as severe obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

nasogastric intubation

A

the placement of a feeding tube through the nose and into the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

obesity

A

an excessive accumulation of fat in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

palatoplasty

A

the surgical repair of a cleft palate or cleft lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

peptic ulcers

A

sores that affect the mucous membranes of the digestive system caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylorior by medications, such as aspirin, that irritate the mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

peristalsis

A

a series of wavelike contractions of the smooth muscle in a single direction that moves the food forward into the digestive system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

polyp

A

a mushroomlike growth from the surface of a mucous membrane; not all polyps are malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

proctologist

A

a physician who specializes in disorders of the colon, rectum, and anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

regurgitation

A

a return of swallowed food into the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

samonellosis

A

an infectious disease of the intestines that is transmitted by food contaminated with feces; also referred to as salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

sigmoidoscopy

A

the endoscopic examination of the interior of the rectum, sigmoid colon, and possibly a portion of the descending colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

stomatitis

A

an inflammation of the mucosa of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

trismus

A

any restriction to the opening of the mouth caused by trauma, surgery, or radiation associated with the treatment of oral cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

ulcerative colitis

A

a chronic condition of unknown cause in which repeated episodes of inflammation in the rectum and large intestine cause ulcers and irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

volvulus

A

twisting of the intestine upon itself, causing an obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

xerostomia

A

the lack of adequate saliva due to diminished secretions by the salivary glands; also known as dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

major structures of the oral cavity

A

also known as the mouth, are the lips, hard and soft palates, salivary glands, tongue, teeth and periodontium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

lips

A

which are also known as the labia, surrounding the opening to the oral cavity (singular, labium(. The term labia is also used to describe the female genitalia
during eating, the lips, tongue, and cheeks hold the food in the mouth
the lips also have important roles in breathing, speaking and the expression of emotions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

the palate

A

which forms the roof of the mouth, consists of three major parts
hard palate
soft palate
uvula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

hard palate

A

is the anterior portion of the palate. This area is covered with specialized mucous membrane. Rugae are irregular ridges or folds in the mucous membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

soft palate

A

is the flexible posterior portion of the palate. During swallowing, it has important role of closing off the nasal passage to prevent food and liquid from moving upward into the nasal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

uvula

A

is the third part, and it hands from the free edge of the soft palate. During swallowing, it moves upward with the soft palate. It also plays an important role in snoring and in the formation of some speech sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

tongue

A

very strong, flexible and muscular. The posterior portion of the tongue is attached. The anterior end of the tongue moves freely and is flexible. It is the structure of the tongue that makes it so important for chewing, speaking and swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

dorsum

A

upper surface of the tongue. This surface has a tough protective covering and in some areas, small bumps known as papillae. These papillae contain taste buds, which are the sensory receptors for the sense of taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

sublingual surface

A

of the tongue and the tissues that lie under the tongue are covered with delicate highly vascular tissues.
The presence of this rich blood supply under the tongue makes it suitable for administering certain medications sublingually by placing them under the tongue, where they are quickly absorbed into the bloodstream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

sublingual

A

means under the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

highly vascular

A

containing many blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

lingual frenum

A

is a band of tissue that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth. This frenum limits the motion of the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

periodontium

A

describes the structures that surround, support and are attached to the teeth. This consists of the bone of the dental arches and the soft tissues that surround and support the teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

peri-

A

surrounding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

odonti

A

means teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

-um

A

noun ending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

gengiva

A

also known as masticatory mucosa, or the gums, is the specialized mucous membrane that covers the bone of the dental arches and surrounds the neck of the teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

sulcus

A

is an area of space between a tooth and the surrounding gingiva. a buildup of food debris and bacteria in the sulcus can lead to infection. Sulci is also the term for fissures in the cerebral cortex of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Dental arches

A

bony structures of the oral cavity. These arches hold the teeth firmly in position to facilitate chewing and speaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

maxillary arch

A

is commonly known as the upper jaw and consists of bones of the lower surface of the skull. This arch does not move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

mandibular arch

A

commonly known as the lower jaw, is a separate bone and is the only moveable component of the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

temporomandibular joint

A

commonly known as the TMJ, is formed at the back of the mouth where the maxillary and mandibular arches come together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

dentition

A

refers to the natural teeth arranged in the upper and lower jaws. Human dentition consists of four types of teeth
-incisors and canines
-premolars and molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

incisors and canines

A

also known as cuspids. These teeth are used for biting and tearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

premolars

A

which are also known as bicuspids and molars. These teeth are used for chewing and grinding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

deciduous dentition or babys teeth

A

-these 20 teeth erupt during early childhood, are normally lost in late childhood, and are placed by the permanent teeth. The primary dentition consists of eight incisors, four canines, and eight molars but no premolars
-permanent dentition consists of 32 teeth designed to last a lifetime. Of these, 20 replace primary teeth and 12 erupt at the back of the mouth. The permanent dentition includes 9 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, and 12 molars
-occlusion are used in dentistry, describes any contact between the chewing surfaces of the upper and lower teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

crown

A

is the portion of the tooth that is visible in the mouth. It is covered with enamel, which is the hardest substance in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

roots

A

of the tooth hold it securely in place within the arch. The roots are protected by cementum. This substance is hard, but it is not as strong as enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

cervix

A

also known as the neck of the tooth, is where the crown and root meet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

dentin

A

makes up the bulk of the tooth. The portion that is above the gum line is discovered with enamel. The root area is covered with cementum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

pulp cavity

A

is the area within the crown and roots of the tooth that is surrounded by the dentin to protect the delicate pulp of the tooth. In the roots, the pulp continues in the space known as the root canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

pulp

A

consists of a rich supply of blood vessels and nerves that provide nutrients and innervation to the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

saliva

A

is a colorless liquid that maintains the moisture in the mouth. It helps maintain the health of the teeth, and it begins the digestive process by lubricating food during chewing and swallowing (mechanical digestion). Saliva also contains digestive enzyme amylase and is the first step in chemical digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

there are 3 pairs of salivary glands

A

they secrete saliva that is carried by ducts into the mouth
-parotid glands are located on the face, slightly in front of each ear. This duct for these glands are on the inside of the cheek near the upper molars
-sublingual glands are their ducts are located on the floor of the mouth under the tongue
-submandibular glands and their ducts are located on the floor of the mouth near the mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

pharynx

A

which is the common passageway for both respiration and digestion
-the pharynx plays an important role in deglutition, which is commonly known as swallowing
-epiglottis is a lid-like structure that closes off the entrance to the trachea (windpipe) to prevent food and liquids from moving from the pharynx during swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

esophagus

A

is a muscular tube through which ingested food passes from the pharynx to the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

lower esophageal sphincter

A

also known as the cardiac sphincter, is a muscular ring between the esophagus and stomach. During swallowing, it relaxes to allow food to enter the stomach
-The sphincter normally opens to allow the flow of food into the stomach and closes to prevent the stomach contents from regurgitating into the esophagus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Regurgitating

A

means flowing backward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

stomach

A

is a sac-like organ composed of fundus (upper, rounded part), body (main portion), and antrum (lower part)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

rugae

A

are the folds in the mucosa lining of the stomach. These folds allow the stomach to increase and decrease in size. Glands located within these folds produce gastric juices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

gastric juices

A

made up of enzymes and hydrochloric acid aid in the beginning of food digestion. Mucus produced by glands in the stomach create a protective coating on the lining of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

pyloric sphincter

A

is the ring-like muscle at the base of the stomach that controls the flow of partially digested food from the stomach to the duodenum of the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

pylorus

A

is the narrow passage that connects the stomach with the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

small intestine

A

extends from the pyloric sphincter of the first part of the large intestine. This coiled organ is up to 20 feet in length and consists of three sections where food is digested and the nutrients are absorbed into the blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

duodenum

A

is the first portion of the small intestine. The duodenum extends from the pylorus of the stomach to the jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

jejunum

A

which is the middle portion of the small intestine, extends from the duodenum to the ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

ileum

A

which is the last and longest portion of the small intestine, extends from the jejunum to the cecum of the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

large intestine

A

extends from the end of the small intestine to the anus. It is about twice as wide as the small intestine; however, it is only one-fourth as long. It is here that the waste products of digestion are processed in preparation for excretion through the anus. The major parts of the large intestine are the cecum, colon, rectum, and anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

cecum

A

is a pouch that lies on the right side of the abdomen. It extends from the end of the ileum to the beginning of the colon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

ileocecal sphincter

A

is the ring-like muscle that controls the flow from the ileum of the small intestine into the cecum of the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

vermiform appendix

A

commonly called the appendix, hangs from the lower portion of the cecum. The vermiform refers to a worm-like shape. The appendix consists of lymphoid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

colon

A

is the longest portion of the large intestine, is subdivided into four parts
-ascending colon
-transverse colon
-descending colon
-sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

ascending colon

A

travels upward from the cecum to the undersurface of the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

transverse colon

A

passes horizontally across the abdominal cavity from right to left toward the spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

transverse

A

means across

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

descending colon

A

travels down the left side of the abdominal cavity to the sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

descending colon

A

means downward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

sigmoid colon

A

is a S-shaped structure that continues from the descending colon above and joins the rectum below.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Sigmoid

A

means curved like the letter S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

rectum

A

is the widest division of the large intestine. It makes up the last 4 inches of the large intestine and ends at the anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

anus

A

is the lower opening of the digestive tract. The flow of waste through the anus is controlled by the internal anal sphincter and the external anal sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

anorectal

A

refers to the anus and rectum as a single unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

an/o

A

anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

rect

A

retum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

-al

A

pertaining to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

accessory organs

A

of the digestive system are so named because they play a key role in the digestive process but are not part of the gastrointestinal tract. The accessory digestive organs are the liver, gallbladder and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

liver

A

is the larges organ in the body. It has several important functions related to removing toxins from the blood and turning food into the fuel and nutrients the body needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

hepatic

A

pertaining to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Liver

A

removes excess glucose, which is commonly known as blood sugar, from the bloodstream and stores it as glycogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

glycogen

A

is a form of glucose that is stored in the liver and muscles. When the blood sugar level is low, the liver converts glycogen back into glucose and releases it for use by the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

bilirubin

A

is a pigment excreted into the digestive fluid called bile, giving it a yellow to green color. Excessive amounts of bilirubin in the body can lead to jaundice and other diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

bile

A

which aids in the digestion of fats, is a digestive juice secreted by the liver that is necessary for the digestion of fat. Bile travels from the liver to the gallbladder, where it is concentrated and stored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

chol/e

A

refers to bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

biliary

A

provides the channels through which bile is transported from the liver to the small intestine. means pertaining to bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

common hepatic duct

A

small ducts in the liver join together like branches to form the biliary tree. The trunk, which is just outside the liver is known as the common hepatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

cystic duct

A

bile travels from the liver through the common hepatic duct to the gallbladder where it enters and exists through the narrow cystic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

common bile duct

A

cystic duct leaving the gallbladder rejoins the common hepatic duct to form the common bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

pancreatic duct

A

the common bile duct joints the pancreatic duct, and together they enter the duodenum of the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

gallbladder

A

is a pear-shaped organ about the size of an egg located under the liver. It stores and concentrates bile for later use
-when bile is needed, the gallbladder contracts, forcing the bile out through the biliary tree
-the term cholecystic means pertaining to the gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

pancreas

A

is a soft, 6-inch-long, oblong gland that is located behind the stomach. This gland has important roles in both the digestive and endocrine systems. The digestive functions are discussed here.
-the pancreas produces and secretes pancreatic juices that aid in digestion and contain digestive enzymes and sodium bicarbonate to help neutralize stomach acids (water, salt, sodium bicarbonate, and digestive enzymes)
- the pancreatic juices leave the pancreas through the pancreatic duct that joins the common bile duct just before the entrance into the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

pancreatic

A

means pertaining to the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

digestion

A

is the process by which complex foods are broken down into nutrients in a form the body can use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

digestive enzymes

A

are responsible for the chemical changes that break foods down into simpler forms of nutrients for use by the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

nutrient

A

is a substance, usually from food, that is necessary for normal functioning of the body. The primary, or macronutrients, are carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. Vitamins and minerals are essential micronutrients, which means they are required only in small amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

metabolism

A

includes all of the processes involved in the body’s use of nutrients. It consists of two parts; anabolism and catabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

anabolism

A

is the building up of body cells and substances from nutrients. Anabolism is the opposite of catabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

catabolism

A

is the breaking down of body cells or substances, releasing energy and carbon dioxide. Catabolism is the opposite of anabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

absorption

A

is the process by which completely digested nutrients are transported to the cells throughout the body.
-mucosa that lines the small intestine is covered with finger-like projections called vili. each villus contains blood vessels and lacteals. The blood vessels absorb nutrients directly from the digestive system into the bloodstream for delivery to the cells of the body.
-lacteals which are specialized structures of the lymphatic system, absorb fats and fat-soluble vitamins that cannot be transport directly by the bloodstream. Instead they absorb these nutrients and transport them via lymphatic vessels. As these nutrients are being transported, they are filtered by the lymph nodes in preparation for their delivery to the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

mastication

A

also known as chewing, breaks food down into smaller pieces, mixes in with saliva, and prepares it to be swallowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

bolus

A

is a mass of food that has been chewed and is ready to be swallowed. The term bolus is also used in relation to the administration of medication
-during swallowing, food travels from the mouth into the pharynx and on into the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

peristalsis

A

is a series of wave-like contractions of the smooth muscles in the single direction that moves the food forward into the digestive system. In the esophagus, food moves downward through the action of gravity and peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Role of the Stomach

A

-gastric juices of the stomach contain hydrochloric acid and digestive enzymes to continue to breakdown of food. Few nutrients enter the bloodstream through the walls of the stomach.
-the churning action of the stomach works with the gastric juices by converting the food into chyme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

chyme

A

is the semifluid mass of partly digested food that passes out of the stomach, through the pyloric sphincter, and into the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Roll of the small intestine

A

the conversion of food into the unstable nutrients is completed as the chyme is moved through the small intestine by peristaltic action.
-in the duodenum, chyme is mixed with pancreatic juice and bile. The bile breaks apart large fat globules so that enzymes in the pancreatic juices can digest the fats. This action is called emulsification and must be completed before the nutrients can be absorbed into the body
-jejunum secretes large amounts of digestive enzymes and contains the process of digestion
-the primary function of the ileum is to absorb nutrients from the digested food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

role of the large intestine

A

the role of the entire large intestine is to receive the waste products of digestion and store them until they are eliminated from the body
-Food waste enters the large intestine where excess water is reabsorbed into the body through the walls of the large intestine, helping maintain the body’s fluid balance. The remaining waste form into feces
-the large intestine contains gut microflora, which help break down organic waste material. This process produces gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

feces

A

also known as solid body wastes, are expelled through the rectum and anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

defecation

A

also known as a bowel movement (BM), is the evacuation or emptying of the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

gut microflora

A

refers to the billions of normal bacteria present in the large intestine to protect against infection and help maintain the immune system. A disruption of microflora resulting from the use of antibiotics can lead to infections such as C. Diff

183
Q

borborymus

A

is the rumbling noise caused by the movement of gas in the intestine

184
Q

flatulence

A

also known as flatus, is the passage of gas out of the body through the rectum

185
Q

bariatrics

A

is the branch of medicine concerned with the prevention and control of obesity and associated diseases

186
Q

dentist

A

holds a doctor of dental surgery (DDS) or doctor of medical dentistry (DMD) and specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of teeth and tissues of the oral cavity

187
Q

gastroenterologist

A

is a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the stomach and intestines

188
Q

oral or maxillofacial surgeron

A

specializes in surgery of the face and jaws to correct deformities, treat diseases, and repair injuries

189
Q

orthodontist

A

is a dental specialist who prevents or corrects malocclusion of the teeth and related facial structures

190
Q

orthodontist

A

is a dental specialist who prevents or corrects malocclusion of the teeth and related facial structures

191
Q

orth

A

straight or normal

192
Q

odont

A

means teeth

193
Q

periodontist

A

is a dental specialist who prevents or treats disorders of the tissues surrounding the teeth

194
Q

proctologist

A

is a physician who specializes in disorders of the colon, rectum, and anus

195
Q

registered dietitian (RD)

A

is a specialist in food and nutrition who practices medical nutrition therapy and counsels patients on improving their dietary intake

196
Q

aphthous ulcers

A

also known as canker sores or mouth ulcers, are gray-white pits with a red border in the soft tissues lining the mouth. although the exact cause is unknown, the appearance of these very common sores is associated with stress, certain food or fever

197
Q

ulcer

A

is an open lesion of the skin or mucous membrane resulting in tissue loss around the edges

198
Q

cheilosis

A

also known as cheiltis, is a disorder of the lips characterized by crack-like sores at the corners of the mouth

199
Q

cheil-

A

lips

200
Q

-osis

A

abnormal condition or disease

201
Q

herpes labialis

A

also known as cold sores or fever blisters, are blister-like sores on the lips and adjacent facial tissue that are caused by the oral herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1). Most adults have been infected by this extremely common virus, and in some, it becomes reactivated periodically, causing cold sores

202
Q

leukoplakia

A

is an abnormal white, usually benign lesion (sore) that develops on the tongue or the inside of the cheek. These lesions develop in response to chronic irritation in the mouth such as constraint rubbing against a broken tooth. Occasionally, leukoplakia patches occur on the genitals, in the digestive system, or the urinary tract

203
Q

stomatitis

A

in an inflammation of the mucosa of the mouth

204
Q

stomat

A

mouth or oral cavity

205
Q

stomatomycosis

A

is any disease of the mouth due to a fungus

206
Q

myc

A

means fungus

207
Q

oral thrush

A

is a type of stomatomycosis that develops when the fungus candida albicans grows out of control. The symptoms are creamy white lesions on the tongue or inner cheeks. This condition occurs most often in infants, older adults with weakened immune systems, or individuals who have been taking antibiotics

208
Q

trismus

A

describes any restriction to the opening of the mouth caused by trauma, surgery, or radiation associated with the treatment of oral cancer. This condition causes difficulty in speaking and affects the patient’s nutrition due to impaired ability to chew and swallow

209
Q

xerostomia

A

also known as dry mouth, is the lack of adequate saliva due to diminished secretions by the salivary glands. This condition can be due to medications or radiation of the salivary glands, and can cause discomfort, difficulty in swallowing, changes in the taste of food and dental decay

210
Q

xer/o

A

means dry

211
Q

cleft lip

A

also known as a harelip, is a birth defect in which there is a deep groove in the lip running upward to the nose of a result of the failure of this portion of the lip to close during prenatal development

212
Q

cleft palate

A

is the failure of the palate to close during the early development of the fetus. This opening can involve the upper lip, hard palate, and/or soft palate. If not corrected, this opening between the nose and mouth makes it difficult for the child to eat and speak. Cleft lip and cleft palate can occur singly or together and usually can be corrected surgically

213
Q

bruxism

A

is the involuntary grinding or clenching of the teeth that usually occurs during sleep and is associated with tension or stress. It can also occur habitually during the day. Bruxism wears away tooth structure, damages periodontal tissues, and injuries the temporomandibular joint

214
Q

dental caries

A

also known as tooth decay or a cavity, is an infectious disease caused by bacteria that destroy the enamel and dentin of the tooth. If the decay processes is not arrested, the pump can be exposed and become infected

215
Q

dental plaque

A

which is a major cause of dental caries and periodontal disease, forms as soft deposits in sheltered areas near the gums and between the teeth. Dental plaque consists of bacteria and bacterial by-products. In contrast, the plaque associated with heart conditions consists of deposits of cholesterol that form within blood vessels

216
Q

edentulous

A

means without teeth. This term describes the situation after the natural permanent teeth have been lost

217
Q

halitosis

A

also known as bad breath, is an unpleasant odor coming from the mouth that can be caused by dental disease or respiratory or gastric disorders

218
Q

halit

A

means breath

219
Q

malocclusion

A

is any deviation from the normal positioning of the upper teeth against the lower teeth

220
Q

periodontal disease

A

also known as periodontitis, is an inflammation of the tissues that surround and support the teeth. this progressive disease is classified according to the degree of tissue involvement. In severe cases, the gums and bone surrounding the teeth are involved

221
Q

dental calculus

A

also known as tarter, is dental plaque that has calcified (hardened) on the teeth. these deposits irritate the surrounding tissues and cause increasingly serious periodontal diseases. The term calculus is also used to describe hard deposits, such as gallstones or kidney stones, that form in other parts of the body

222
Q

gingivitis

A

is the earliest stage of periodontal disease, and the inflammation affects only the gums

223
Q

gingiv

A

means gums

224
Q

acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)

A

also known as trench mouth, is caused by the abnormal growth of bacteria in the mouth. As this condition progresses, the inflammation, bleeding, deep ulceration, and the death of gum tissue become more severe.

225
Q

necrotizing

A

means causing ongoing tissue death

226
Q

Dysphagia

A

is difficulty in swallowing

227
Q

eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE)

A

is a chronic immune system disease in which a type of white blood cell called an eosinophil builds up in the esophagus, usually as the results of an allergy to certain foods. This resulting inflammation can make it difficult to swallow. This disease appears to be increasingly common in children and adults

228
Q

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

A

also known as GERD, is the upward flow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus.

229
Q

Reflux

A

means backward or return flow. When this occurs, the stomach acid irritates and damages the delicate lining of the esophagus

230
Q

Barrett’s esophagus

A

is a condition that occurs when the cells in the epithelial tissue of the esophagus are damaged by chronic acid exposure. Some patients with chronic GERD develop complication, which slightly increases the risk of esophageal cancer

231
Q

stricture

A

of the esophagus resulting from scar tissue or other damage can cause swallowing difficulties. A stricture is an abnormal narrowing of a bodily passage

232
Q

pyrosis

A

also known as heartburn, is the burning sensation caused by the return of acidic stomach contents into the esophagus

233
Q

pyr

A

means fever or fire

234
Q

-osis

A

means abnormal condition or disease

235
Q

esophageal varices

A

are enlarged and swollen veins at the lower end of the esophagus. Severe bleeding occurs if one of these veins ruptures.

236
Q

hiatal hernia

A

is an anatomical abnormality in which a portion of the stomach protrudes upward into the chest, through an opening in the diaphragm.

237
Q

hiat

A

opening

238
Q

hernia

A

is the protrusion of a part or structure through the tissues that normally contain it. This condition can cause GERD and pyrosis

239
Q

gastritis

A

common inflammation of the stomach lining that is often caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori

240
Q

gastroenteritis

A

is an inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the stomach and intestines

241
Q

gastroparesis

A

is a condition in which the muscles in the stomach slow down and work poorly or not at all, preventing the stomach from emptying normally

242
Q

-paresis

A

means partial paralysis

243
Q

gastrorrhea

A

is the excessive secretion of gastric juice or mucus in the stomach

244
Q

peptic ulcers

A

are sores that affect the mucous membranes of the digestive system. Peptic ulcers are caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori or by medications, such as aspirin, that irritate the mucous membranes. this condition of having peptic ulcers is referred to as peptic ulcer disease

245
Q

gastric ulcers

A

peptic ulcers that occur in the stomach

246
Q

duodenal ulcers

A

are peptic ulcers that occur in the upper part of the small intestine

247
Q

perforating ulcer

A

is a complication of a peptic ulcer in which the ulcer erodes through the entire thickness of the organ wall

248
Q

Anorexia

A

is the loss of appetite for food, especially when caused by disease.

249
Q

cachexia

A

is a condition of physical wasting away due to the loss of weight and muscle mass that occurs in patients with diseases such as advanced cancer or AIDS. Although these patients might be eating enough food, their bodies are unable to absorb enough nutrients

250
Q

Dehydration

A

is a condition in which fluid loss exceeds fluid intake and disrupts the body’s normal electrolyte balance

251
Q

de-

A

removal

252
Q

hydra

A

water

253
Q

-tion

A

means the process of

254
Q

malnutrition

A

is a lack of proper food or nutrients in the body due to a shortage of food, poor eating habits, or the inability of the body to digest, absorb, and distribute these nutrients.

255
Q

mal-

A

meaning bad or poor

256
Q

malabsorption

A

is a condition in which the small intestine cannot absorb nutrients from food that passes through it

257
Q

obesity

A

is an excessive accumulation of fat in the body. The term obese is usually used to refer to individuals who are more than 20-30% over the established weight standards for their height, age, and gender

258
Q

gender

A

refers to the difference between men and women

259
Q

morbid obesity

A

also known as severe obesity, is the condition of weighing two times or more than the ideal weight or having a body mass index value greater than 40. As used here the term morbid means a diseased state

260
Q

body mass index (BMI)

A

is a number that shows body weight adjusted for height. The results fall into one of these categories: underweight, normal, overweight or obese. A high BMI is one of many factors related to developing chronic diseases such as heart disease, cancer or diabetes

261
Q

comorbidity

A

describes the presence of more than one disease or health condition in an individual at a given time. Obesity is frequently present as a comorbidity with conditions such as hypertension or diabetes

262
Q

aerophagia

A

is the excessive swallowing of air while eating or drinking and is a common cause of gas in the stomach

263
Q

aer/o

A

means air

264
Q

-phagia

A

means swallowing

265
Q

dyspepsia

A

also known as indigestion, is pain or discomfort in digestion

266
Q

-pepsia

A

means digestion

267
Q

emesis

A

also known as vomiting, is the reflux ejection of the stomach contents outward through the mouth. Emesis is used either as a standalone term or as the suffix -emesis

268
Q

eructation

A

is the act of belching or raising gas orally from the stomach

269
Q

hematemesis

A

is the vomiting of blood. The substance that is vomited often resembles coffee grounds

270
Q

-emesis

A

means vomiting

271
Q

hyperemesis

A

is extreme, persistent vomiting that can cause dehydration. During the early stages of pregnancy, this is known as morning sickness

272
Q

nausea

A

is the urge to vomit

273
Q

regurgitation

A

is the return of swallowed food into the mouth

274
Q

celiac disease

A

is a hereditary autoimmune disorder characterized by a severe reaction to foods containing gluten.

275
Q

gluten

A

is a type of protein found in grains such as wheat, barley, and rye. This common disorder damages the villi of the small intestine and can cause malabsorption

276
Q

gluten intolerance

A

also known as non-celiac gluten sensitivity, is a response to gluten involving digestive distress but not causing the intestinal tissue damage of celiac disease. Gluten intolerance is sometimes caused by an allergy to wheat

277
Q

food allergy

A

is an immune system reaction that occurs after eating a certain food

278
Q

lactose intolerance

A

is the inability to digest dairy products due to the absence of the enzyme lactase, which is needed to process the sugar (lactose) found in milk and some other dairy products. Lactose intolerance is particularly common among African-Americans and East Asians

279
Q

Colorectal carcinoma

A

commonly known as colon cancer, often first manifests itself in polyps in the colon

280
Q

polyp

A

is a mushroom-like growth from the surface of a mucous membrane. Not all polyps are malignant

281
Q

diverticulosis

A

is the chronic presence of an abnormal number of diverticula in colon. Diverticulosis, which often has no symptoms, is believed to be related to a low-fiber diet

282
Q

diverticul

A

means diverticulum

283
Q

diverticulum

A

is a small pouch, or sac, found in the lining or wall of a tubular organ such as the colon (plural, diverticula)

284
Q

Diverticulitis

A

which sometimes develops as a result of diverticulosis, is the inflammation or infection of one or more diverticulum in the colon. Symptoms of this condition can include sudden abdominal pain, cramping and nausea

285
Q

enteritis

A

is an inflammation of the small intestine caused by eating or drinking substances contaminated with viral or bacterial pathogens

286
Q

enter

A

means small intestine

287
Q

ischemic colitis

A

occurs when part of the large intestine is partially or completely deprived of blood. If this lack of blood persists, it can lead to inflammation and permanent damage of the affected area

288
Q

ileus

A

is the partial or complete blockage of the small or large intestine. This condition is also known as paralytic ileus, and is caused by the stopping of the normal peristalsis of the area of the intestine. Symptoms of ileus can include severe pain, cramping, abdominal distention, vomiting, and the inability to pass gas or stools

289
Q

postoperative ileus

A

is a temporary impairment (stoppage) of bowel action that is considered to be normal response to abdominal surgery. It is often present for 24 to 72 hours, depending on which part of the digestive system was treated

290
Q

irritable bowl syndrome (IBS)

A

is a common condition of unknown cause with symptoms that can include intermittent cramping and abdominal pain, accompanied by constipation or diarrhea. This condition, which is usually aggravated by stress and by eating certain foods, is not believed to be caused by pathogens (bacteria or viruses)

291
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

A

is the general name for diseases that cause inflammation and swelling in the intestines. The two most common inflammatory bowel disease are ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease
-These conditions are grouped together because both are chronic and incurable and can affect the large and small intestines. They also have similiar symptoms, which include abdominal pain, weight loss, fatigue, fever, rectal bleeding, and diarrhea
-These conditions tend to occur at intervals of active disease known as flares alternating with periods of remission. Flares of these disorders are treated with medication and surgery to remove diseased portions of the intestine

292
Q

ulcerative colitis

A

is a chronic condition of unknown cause in which repeated episodes of inflammation in the rectum and large intestine cause ulcers (lesions in the mucous membrane) and irritation
-Ulcerative colitis usually starts in the rectum and progresses upward to the lower part of the colon; however, it can affect the entire large intestine
-ulcerative colitis affects only the innermost lining and not the deep tissues of the colon

293
Q

Crohn’s disease (CD)

A

is a chronic autoimmune disorder that can occur anywhere in the digestive tract; however, it is most often found in the ileum and in the colon
-In contract to ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease generally penetrates every layer of tissue in the affected area. This can result in scarring and thickening of the walls of the affected structures. The most common complication of Crohn’s disease is blockage of the intestine due to swelling and scarring

294
Q

intestinal obstruction

A

abnormally hold together parts of the intestine that should be separate. This condition, which is caused by inflammation or trauma, can lead to intestinal obstruction

295
Q

strangulating obstruction

A

the blood flow to a segment of the intestine is blocked. This can lead to gangrene or perforation.

296
Q

Gangrene

A

is tissue death that is associated with a loss of normal circulation

297
Q

perforation

A

describes a hole through the wall of a structure

298
Q

volvulus

A

is the twisting of the intestine on itself, causing an obstruction. Volvulus is Latin meaning rolled up or twisted. This condition can cause necrosis of the affected segment of the bowel

299
Q

intussusception

A

is the telescoping of one part of the small intestine into the opening of an immediately adjacent part. This rare but serious condition is sometimes found in children between three months and 6 years of age

300
Q

intussuscept

A

means to take up or to receive within

301
Q

-ion

A

means condition

302
Q

inguinal hernia

A

is the protrusion of a small loop of bowel through a weak place in the lower abdominal wall or groin. This condition can be caused by obesity, pregnancy, heaving lifting, or straining to pass a stool

303
Q

inguin

A

means groin

304
Q

strangulated hernia

A

occurs when a portion of the intestine is constricted inside the hernia, causing ischemia (insufficient oxygen) in this tissue by cutting off its blood supply

305
Q

infectious diseases of the intestines

A

can be transmitted through contaminated food and water or through poor sanitation practices. The more common of these infections diseases include the following:
C. Diff
Dysentery
E. coli
Salmonellosis

306
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

Also known as c. diff, is a bacterial infection common to older adults in hospitals or long-term-care facilities, typically following the use of antibiotics that wipe out competing bacteria. This disease causes diarrhea and can lead to inflammation of the colon. Infection control measures such as hand-scrubbing or wearing gloves can help prevent its spread

307
Q

dysentery

A

which is a bacterial infection, occurs most frequently in tropical countries where it is spread through food or water contaminated by human feces

308
Q

E. Coli

A

which is caused by the bacterium Escherichia coli, is transmitted through contaminated foods that have not been adequately cooked

309
Q

Salmonellosis

A

also referred to as salmonella, is transmitted by feces, either through direct contact with animals, or by eating contaminated raw or undercooked meats and eggs or unpstuerized milk and cheese products.

310
Q

anal fissue

A

is a small crack-like sore in the skin of the anus that can cause severe pain during a bowel movement. As used here, a fissure is a groove or crack-like sore of the skin

311
Q

bowel incontinence

A

is the inability to control the excretion of feces

312
Q

constipation

A

is defined as having a bowl movement fewer than three times per week. With constipation, stools are usually hard, dry, small in size, and difficult to eliminate. Constipation can be caused by a lack of fiber in the diet, disease, a side effect of certain drugs, and (especially in women) pelvic flood dysfunction

313
Q

pelvic floor dysfunction

A

is the lack of coordination of the muscles needed for the rectum to straighten and the anal sphincter to relax

314
Q

diarrhea

A

is an abnormally frequent flow of loose or watery stools and can lead to dehydration

315
Q

hemorrhoids

A

occur when a cluster of veins, muscles, and tissues slip near or through the anal opening. These veins can become inflamed, resulting in pain, fecal leakage, itching, and bleeding

316
Q

rectocele

A

is a bulging of the front wall of the rectum into the vagina, usually as the result of childbirth or pregnancy

317
Q

hematochezia

A

is the presence of bright red blood in the stool. This bright red color usually indicates that the blood is coming from the lower part of the gastrointestinal tract

318
Q

melena

A

in contrast to hematochezia, is the passage of black, tarry, foul-smelling stools. This appearance of the stools is caused by the presence of digested blood and often indicates bleeding in the upper part of the gastrointestinal tract

319
Q

steatorrhea

A

is the presence of excess fat in the stool. This condition, which results in frothy, foul-smelling stools, is usually caused by pancreatic disease, the removal of the gallbladder or malabsorption disorders

320
Q

steat/o

A

means fat

321
Q

ascites

A

is an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity. This condition is usually the result of severe liver disease creating pressure on the liver’s blood vessel. As used here, the term serous means substance having a watery consistency

322
Q

hepatomegaly

A

is the abnormal enlargement of the liver

323
Q

jaundice

A

is a yellow discoloration of the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. This condition is caused by greater-than-normal amounts of bilirubin in the blood

324
Q

hepatitis

A

is an inflammation of the liver usually caused by a viral infection. Viral hepatitis is the leading cause of liver cancer and the most common reason for liver transplants. The three most common varieties of viral hepatitis are HAV; HBV; and HCV

325
Q

Hepatitis A Virus

A

HAV is the most prevalent type of hepatitis. This highly contagious condition is transmitted mainly through contamination of food and water with infected fecal matter. A vaccine is available to provide immunity against HAV

326
Q

Hepatitis B virus

A

is a bloodborne disease that is transmitted through contact with blood and other bodily fluids that are contaminated with this virus. A vaccine is available to provide immunity against HBV

327
Q

Hepatitis C virus

A

is a bloodborne disease that is spread through contact with blood and other body fluids that are contaminated with this virus. HCV is described as a silent epidemic because it can be present in the body for years and destroy the liver before any symptoms appear. There is no vaccine available to prevent this form of hepatitis

328
Q

cirrhosis

A

is a chronic degenerative disease of the liver characterized by scarring.

329
Q

cirrh

A

means yellow or orange

330
Q

degenerative

A

means progressive deterioration resulting in the loss of tissue or organ function
-Cirrhosis is often caused by excessive alcohol abuse or by viral hepatitis B or C
-The progress of cirrhosis is marked by the formation of areas of scarred liver tissue that are filled with fat. The liver damage causes abnormal conditions throughout the other body systems

331
Q

Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)

A

describes the accumulation of fat in the liver of people who drink little or no alcohol. Those with this condition, which usually has no signs or symptoms; are most often individuals who are obese, have type 2 diabetes or high cholesterol, or a combination of these conditions

332
Q

nonalcoholic steathohepatitis (NASH)

A

is a more serious form of this condition because it consists of fatty accumulations plus liver-damaging inflammation. In some cases, this will progress to cirrhosis, irreversible liver scarring, or liver cancer

333
Q

steat/o

A

means fat

334
Q

cholangitis

A

is an acute inflammation of the bile duct characterized by pain in the upper quadrant of the abdomen, fever and jaundice. The most common cause is a bacterial infection

335
Q

cholecystitis

A

is inflammation of the gallbladder, usually associated with gallstones blocking the flow of bile

336
Q

cholang

A

means bile duct

337
Q

cholecyst

A

means gallbladder

338
Q

gallstone

A

also known as a cholelith, a hard deposit formed in the gallbladder and bile ducts due to the concretion of bile components (plural calculi)

339
Q

Cholelithiasis

A

is the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder or bile ducts

340
Q

chole

A

means bile or gall

341
Q

-lithiasis

A

means presence of stone

342
Q

biliary colic

A

pain caused by the passage of a gallstone through the bile duct is called biliary colic

343
Q

abdominal computed tomography (CT)

A

is a radiographic procedure that produces a detailed cross-section of the tissue structure within the abdomen, showing, for example the presence of a tumor or obstruction

344
Q

abdominal ultrasound

A

is a noninvasive test used to visualize internal organs by using very high frequency sound waves.

345
Q

Cholangiography

A

is a radiographic examination of the bile ducts with the use of a contrast medium. This test is used to identify obstructions in the liver or bile ducts that slow or block the flow or bile from the liver. The resulting record is a cholangiogram

346
Q

cholangi/o

A

means bile duct

347
Q

enema

A

is the placement of a solution into the rectum and colon to empty the lower intestine through bowel activity. An enema is sometimes part of the preparation for an endoscopic examination; however, enemas are also used to treat severe constipation and as a means of injecting medication into the body

348
Q

esophagogastroduodenoscopy

A

is an endoscopic procedure that allows direct visualization of the upper GI tract. This includes the esophagus, stomach, and upper duodenum

349
Q

esophag/o

A

means esophagus

350
Q

gastr/o

A

stomach

351
Q

duoden/o

A

duodenum

352
Q

-scopy

A

means visual examination

353
Q

upper GI series and Lower GI series

A

are radiographic studies to examine the digestive system. A contrast medium is required to make these structures visible. A barium swallow is used for the upper GI series, and a barium enema is used for the lower GI series

354
Q

stool samples

A

are specimens of feces that are examined for content and characteristics. For example, fatty stools might indicate the presence of pancreatic disease. Cultures of the stool sample can be examined in the laboratory for the presence of bacteria or O&P (ova (parasite eggs) and parasites)

355
Q

endoscope

A

is an instrument used for an endoscopy, a visual examination of internal structures

356
Q

anoscopy

A

is the visual examination of the anal canal and lower rectum

357
Q

capsule endoscopy

A

is the use of a tiny video camera in a capsule that the patient swallows. For approximately 8 hours, as it passes through the small intestine, this camera transmits images of the walls of the small intestine. The images are detected by sensor devices attached to the patient’s abdomen and transmitted to a data recorder worn on the patient’s belt

358
Q

colonoscopy (COL)

A

is the direct visual examination of the inner surface of the entire colon from the rectum to the cecum using a colonoscope

359
Q

virtual colonoscopy

A

a small, flexible tube is inserted into the rectum and an MRI or CT machine is used to produce two- and three-dimensional images of the colon. The preparation, which requires that the bowels be completely emptied, is the same for both of these types of colonoscopy and sigmoidoscopy

360
Q

sigmoidoscopy

A

is the endoscopic examination of the interior of the rectum, sigmoid colon, and possibly a portion of the descending colon

361
Q

sigmoid/o

A

means sigmoid colon

362
Q

hemoccult test

A

also known as the fecal occult blood test, is a laboratory test for hidden blood in the stool. The test kit is used to obtain the specimens at home, and the results are then evaluated in a laboratory.

363
Q

cologuard

A

is a recently developed, noninvasive, collect-at-home stool test that uses DNA testing along with screening for hidden blood to determine the potential presence of colorectal cancer.

364
Q

antioxidants

A

are chemicals such as vitamins A, C, and E; carotene; and lutein that may prevent or delay cell damage by blocking the activity of potentially harmful chemicals called free radicals. Antioxidants are naturally present in fruits, beans, berries, nuts, and dark chocolate

365
Q

Probiotics

A

are living microorganisms sometimes described as “good” bacteria because of their role in aiding digestion and protecting the body from harmful bacteria

366
Q

pro-

A

supporting

367
Q

bio

A

means life

368
Q

prebiotics

A

are the non-digestible carbohydrates that probiotics feed on. Foods such as yogurt, some dairy drinks, and supplements contain both probiotics and probiotics

369
Q

antacids

A

which neutralize the acids in the stomach, are taken to relieve the discomfort of conditions such as pyrosis or to help peptic ulcers heal

370
Q

Proton pump inhibitors

A

decrease the amount of acid produced by the stomach. These medications are used to treat symptoms of GERD

371
Q

antiemetic

A

is a medication that is administered to prevent or relieve nausea and vomiting

372
Q

emet

A

means vomit

373
Q

laxatives

A

are medications or foods given to stimulate bowel movements.

374
Q

Bulk-forming laxatives

A

such as bran, treat constipation by helping fecal matter retain water and remain soft as it moves through the intestines

375
Q

animotility drugs and antacids

A

are among the over-the-counter medications used to treat diarrhea and upset stomach

376
Q

intravenous fluids (IV)

A

are administered to combat the effects of dehydration

377
Q

intra-

A

means within

378
Q

ven/o

A

means vein

379
Q

oral rehydration therapy (ORT)

A

is a treatment in which a solution of electrolytes is administered in a a liquid preparation to counteract the dehydration that can accompany diarrhea, especially in young children

380
Q

-tion

A

is the process of

381
Q

dental prophylaxis

A

is the professional cleaning of the teeth to remove plaque and calculus. The prophylaxis also refers to a treatment intended to prevent a disease or stop it from spreading. Examples include vaccination to provide immunity against a specific disease

382
Q

dental implant

A

is the anchoring of a crown, bridge, or denture to the bone of the jaw. Crowns, bridges, and dentures can also be placed in the mouth without being anchored to the jaw

383
Q

crown

A

is a mental or porcelain alloy cap shaped like a damaged tooth cemented over the remaining tooth structure. CAD-CAM )computer-aided design and computer-aided manufacturing) devices are now able to create crowns in the dental office instead of the traditional method of having these prosthetics made in an outside lab. Note: crown also refers to the portion of the tooth visible in the mouth

384
Q

bridge

A

is a fixed dental prosthesis used to join one or more artificial teeth to the adjacent teeth

385
Q

denture

A

is a plate holding one or more replacement teeth. Conventional dentures, also known as a full or partial set of false teeth, are removable

386
Q

root canal

A

refers both to the pulp cavity in the root of the tooth and to a procedure in which disease or damaged pulp in the root canal is removed in order to save the tooth. After it is free of infection, the cavity is filled with a protective substance and sealed

387
Q

gingivectomy

A

is the surgical removal of diseased gingival tissue

388
Q

gingiv

A

means gingival tissue

389
Q

-ectomy

A

means surgical removal

390
Q

maxillofacial surgery

A

is specialized surgery of the face and jaws to correct deformities, treat diseases and repair injuries

391
Q

palatoplasty

A

is the surgical repair of the cleft palate, also used to refer to the repair of a cleft lip

392
Q

palat/o

A

means palate

393
Q

gastrectomy

A

is the surgical removal of all or a part of the stomach

394
Q

gastr

A

means stomach

395
Q

nasogastric intubation (NG Tube)

A

is the placement of a feeding tube through the nose and into the stomach. This tube, which is placed temporarily, provides nutrition for patients who cannot take sufficient nutrients by mouth

396
Q

nas/o

A

means nose

397
Q

gastrostomy tube

A

is a surgically placed feeding tube from the exterior of the body directly into the stomach. This is also known as a G-Tube, and it is permanently placed to provide nutrition for patients who cannot swallow or take sufficient nutrients by mouth

398
Q

total parenteral nutrition (TPN)

A

is administered to patients who cannot or should not get their nutrition through eating. All of the patient’s nutritional requirements are met through a specialized solution administered intravenously

399
Q

parenteral

A

means not in or through the digestive system

400
Q

bariatric surgery

A

is performed to treat morbid obesity by restricting the amount of food that can enter the stomach and be digested. These procedures limit food intake and force dietary changes that enable weight reduction

401
Q

lap-band adjustable gastric banding-lap adjustable gastric banding (LAGB)

A

procedure involves placing an inflatable band around the exterior of the stomach to restrict the amount of food that can enter. This procedure has the advantage of being reversible through the removal of the band

402
Q

Endoscopic sleeve gastroplasty

A

is one of several endoscopic options for bariatric surgeries requiring general anesthesia. In this procedure, the stomach is sutured to make it into a small tube, reducing its capacity significantly

403
Q

coloectomy

A

is the surgical removal of all or part of the colon

404
Q

colo

A

colon

405
Q

-ectomy

A

means surgical removal

406
Q

colotomy

A

is a surgical incision in to the colon

407
Q

-otomy

A

means surgical incision

408
Q

diverticulectomy

A

is the surgical removal of a diverticulum

409
Q

doverticul

A

diverticulum

410
Q

gastroduodenostomy

A

is the establishment of an anastomosis between the upper portion of the stomach and the duodenum. This procedure is performed to treat stomach cancer or to remove a malfunctioning pyloric valve

411
Q

duoden

A

means first part of the small intestine

412
Q

-ostomy

A

means surgically creating an opening

413
Q

gastro-

A

stomach

414
Q

anastomosis

A

is a surgical connection between two hollow, or tubular structures (plural, anastomoses)

415
Q

ileectomy

A

is the surgical removal of the ileum

416
Q

ile

A

means ileum

417
Q

ostomy

A

is a surgical procedure to create an artificial opening between an organ and the body surface. This artificial opening is also known as a stoma. Ostomy can be used alone as a noun to describe a procedure or as a suffix with the work part that describes the organ involved

418
Q

ileostomy

A

is the surgical creation of an artificial excretory opening between the ileum, at the end of the small intestine, and the outside of the abdominal wall

419
Q

ile

A

means small intestine

420
Q

colostomy

A

is the surgical creation of an artificial excretory opening between the colon and the body surface. The segment of the intestine below the ostomy is usually removed, and the fecal matter flows through the stoma into a disposable bag. A colostomy can be temporary to divert feces from an area that needs to heal

421
Q

hemorrhoidectomy

A

is the surgical removal of hemorrhoids. Rubber band ligation is often used instead of surgery. Rubber bands cut off the circulation at the base of the hemorrhoid, causing it to eventually fall off. Ligation means the tying off of blood vessels or duct

422
Q

protopexy

A

is the surgical fixation of a prolapsed rectum to an adjacent tissue or organ. Prolapse means the falling or dropping down of an organ or internal part

423
Q

hepatectomy

A

is the surgical removal of all or part of the liver

424
Q

liver transplant

A

is an option for a patient whose liver has failed for a reason other than liver cancer. Because liver tissue regenerates, a partial liver transplant, in which only part of the organ is donated, can be adequate. A partial liver can be donated by a living donor whose blood and tissue types match

425
Q

choledocholithotomy

A

is an incision into the common bile duct for the removal of a gallstone

426
Q

choledoch/o

A

means the common bile duct

427
Q

lith

A

means stone

428
Q

cholecystectomy

A

is the surgical removal of the gallbladder. An open cholecystectomy is performed through an incision in the right side of the upper abdomen. A laparoscopic cholecystectomy, also known as a lap choley, is the surgical removal of the gallbladder using a laparoscope and other instruments inserted through three or four small incisions in the abdomen wall

429
Q

BMI

A

body mass index

430
Q

COL

A

colonoscopy

431
Q

EGD

A

esophagogastroduodenoscopy

432
Q

GERD

A

gastroesophageal reflux disease

433
Q

GI

A

gastrointestinal

434
Q

IBD

A

inflammatory bowel disease

435
Q

ibs

A

irritable bowel syndrome

436
Q

nasogastric tube

A

NG Tube

437
Q

PUD

A

peptic ulcer disease

438
Q

TPN

A

total parenteral nutrition

439
Q

UC

A

ulcerative colitis

440
Q

chirrh/o

A

orange-yellow

441
Q

pept/o

A

digestion

442
Q

proct/o

A

rectum and anus

443
Q

-cele

A

hernia

444
Q

-emesis

A

vomiting

445
Q

-lithiasis

A

presence of stones

446
Q

-meagly

A

abnormal enlargement

447
Q

-paresis

A

partial paralysis

448
Q

-pepsia

A

digestion

449
Q

-phagia

A

eating, swallowing

450
Q

bowel

A

intestine

451
Q

occult blood

A

blood that is not visibly apparent and can be detected only by lab testing

452
Q

parenteral

A

outside of or bypassing the digestive system

453
Q

stricture

A

abnormal narrowing of a bodily passage

454
Q

medical term for burping

A

eructation

455
Q

Barium enema

A

also called a lower GI series, a liquid contrast medium (barium) is injected into the rectum that coats the lower GI tract. X-rays are the ntaken of the rectum and colon

456
Q
A