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Chapter 1: Medical Terms > Ch.11 Special senses - eyes and ears > Flashcards

Ch.11 Special senses - eyes and ears Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Opt/i, opt/o, optic/o, ophathalm/o

A

eyes
receptor organs for the sense of sight

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2
Q

ir/i, ir/o, irid/o, irit/o

A

iris
controls the amount of light entering the eye

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3
Q

phac/o, phak/o

A

lens
focuses rays of light on the retina

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4
Q

retin/o

A

retina
covers light images into electrical impulses and transmits them to the brain

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5
Q

dacryocyst/o, lacrim/o

A

lacrimal apparatus
accessory structures of the eyes that produce, store, and remove tears

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6
Q

acus/o, acust/o, audi/o, audit/o, ot/o

A

ears
receptor organs for the sense of hearing; also helps maintain balance

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7
Q

pinn/i

A

outer ear
transmits sound waves to the middle ear

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8
Q

myring/o, tympan/o

A

middle ear
transmits sound waves to the inner ear

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9
Q

labyrinth/o

A

inner ear
receives sound vibrations and transmits them to the brain

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10
Q

blephar/o

A

eyelid

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11
Q

-cusis

A

hearing

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12
Q

irid/o

A

iris, colored part of eye

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13
Q

kerat/o

A

cornea, hard, or horny

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14
Q

myring/o

A

tympanic membrane, eardrum

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15
Q

ophthalm/o

A

eye or vision

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16
Q

-opia

A

vision condition

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17
Q

opt/o

A

vision or eye

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18
Q

ot/o

A

ear or hearing

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19
Q

phak/o

A

lens of eye

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20
Q

presby/o

A

old age

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21
Q

retin/o

A

retina, net

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22
Q

scler/o

A

white of eye, sclera or hard

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23
Q

trop/o

A

turn or change

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24
Q

tympan/o

A

tympanic membrane, eardrum

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25
Q

adnexa

A

the appendage or accessory structures of an organ. In the eye, these are the structures outside the eyeball, including the orbit, eye muscles, eyelids, eyelashes, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus

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26
Q

amblyopia

A

dimness of vision or the partial loss of sight, especially in one eye, without detectable disease of the eye

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27
Q

ametropia

A

any error of refraction in which images do not focus properly on the retina

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28
Q

anisocoria

A

a condition in which the pupils are unequal in size

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29
Q

astigmatism

A

a condition in which the eye does not focus properly because of uneven curvatures of the cornea

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30
Q

audiometry

A

the use of an audiometer to measure hearing acuity

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31
Q

cataract

A

the loss of transparency of the lends of the eye that causes a progressive loss of visual clarity

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32
Q

chalazion

A

a nodule or cyst, usually on the upper eyelid, caused by obstruction in a sebaceous gland

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33
Q

cochlear implant

A

an electronic device that bypasses the damaged portions of the ear and directly stimulates the auditory nerve

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34
Q

conjunctivitis

A

inflammation of the conjunctiva, usually caused by an infection or allergy; also known as pinkeye

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35
Q

dacryoadenitis

A

an inflammation of the lacrimal gland that can be bacterial, viral, or fungal infection

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36
Q

diplopia

A

the perception of two images of a single object; also known as double vision

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37
Q

ectropion

A

the eversion (turning outward) of the edge of an eyelid

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38
Q

emmetropia

A

the normal relationship between refractive power of the eye and the shape of the eye that enables light rays to focus correctly on the retina

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39
Q

entropion

A

the inversion (turning inward) of the edge of an eyelid

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40
Q

esotropia

A

strabismus characterized by an inward deviation of one eye or both eyes; also known as cross-eyes

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41
Q

exotropia

A

strabismus characterized by the outward deviation of one eye relative to the other; also known as walleye

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42
Q

fluorescein angiography

A

a photographic study of the blood vessels in the back of the eye following the intravenous injection of a fluorescein dye that acts as a contrast medium

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43
Q

glaucoma

A

a group of eye diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure (IOP) that causes damage to the optic nerve and retinal nerve fibers

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44
Q

hemianopia

A

blindness in one-half of the visual field

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45
Q

hordeolum

A

a pus-filled and often painful lesion of the eyelid resulting from an infection in a sebaceous gland; also known as a stye

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46
Q

hyperopia

A

a vision defect in which light rays focus beyond the retina; also known as farsightedness

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47
Q

infectious myringitis

A

a contagious inflammation associated with a middle-ear infection that causes painful blisters on the eardrum

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48
Q

iridectomy

A

the surgical removal of a portion of the iris tissue

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49
Q

iritis

A

inflammation of the uvea affecting primarily structures in the front of the eye

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50
Q

keratitis

A

inflammation of the cornea

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51
Q

labyrinthectomy

A

the surgical removal of all or a portion of the labyrinth of the inner ear

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52
Q

laser trabeculoplasty

A

treatment of open-angle glaucoma in which a laser is used to create an opening in the trabecular meshwork to allow fluid to drain properly

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53
Q

mastoidectomy

A

the surgical removal of mastoid cells

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54
Q

mydrasis

A

the dilation of the pupil

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55
Q

myopia

A

a vision defect in which light rays focus in front of the retina; also known as nearsightedness

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56
Q

myringotomy

A

a small surgical incision into the eardrum to relieve pressure from excess pus or fluid or to create an opening for the placement of ear tubes

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57
Q

nyctalopia

A

a condition in which an individual with normal daytime vision has difficulty seeing at night; also known as night blindness

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58
Q

nystagmus

A

involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball

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59
Q

opathalmoscopy

A

the visual examination of the fundus (back part) of the eye with an ophthalmoscope; also known as a funduscopy

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60
Q

optometrist

A

a specialist who holds a Doctor of Optometry degree and provides primary eye care, including diagnosing eye disease and conditions are measuring the accuracy of vision to determine if corrective lenses are needed

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61
Q

otitis media

A

inflammation of the middle ear

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62
Q

otomycosis

A

a fungal infection of the external auditory canal; also known as swimmer’s ear

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63
Q

otopyorrhea

A

the flow of pus from the ear

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64
Q

otorrhea

A

any discharge from the ear

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65
Q

otosclerosis

A

ankylosis of the bones of the middle ear, resulting in a conductive hearing loss

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66
Q

papilledema

A

swelling and inflammation of the optic nerve at the point of entrance into the eye through the optic disk; also known as choked disk

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67
Q

periorbital edema

A

swelling of the tissues surrounding the eye or eyes

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68
Q

photophobia

A

excessive sensitivity to light

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69
Q

presbycusis

A

a gradual sensorineural hearing loss that occurs as the body ages

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70
Q

presbyopia

A

decline of near vision that occurs with age as the lends becomes less flexible and the muscles of the ciliary body become weaker

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71
Q

ptosis

A

dropping o the upper eyelid that is usually due to paralysis

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72
Q

radial keratotomy

A

a surgical procedure to treat myopia

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73
Q

retinopexy

A

treatment to reattach the detached area in a retinal detachment

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74
Q

scleritis

A

inflammation of the sclera of the eye

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75
Q

sensorineural hearing loss

A

deafness that develops when the auditory nerve or hair cells in the inner ear are damaged

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76
Q

stapedectomy

A

the surgical removal of part of the stapes bone and its replacement with a small prosthetic device

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77
Q

strabismus

A

a disorder in which the eyes point in different directions or are not aligned correctly because the eye muscles are unable to focus

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78
Q

trasorrhaphy

A

the partial or complete suturing together of the upper and lower eyelids

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79
Q

tinnitus

A

a ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears

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80
Q

tinnitus

A

a ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears

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81
Q

tonometry

A

the part of a routine eye examination in which intraocular pressure (IOP) is measured

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82
Q

tympanometry

A

the use of air pressure in the ear canal to test for disorder of the middle ear

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83
Q

vertigo

A

a sense of whirling, dizziness, and the loss of balance, often combined with nausea and vomiting

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84
Q

vitrectomy

A

the removal of the vitreous fluid of the posterior chamber of the eye and its replacement with a clear solution

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85
Q

xerophthalmia

A

drying of the eye surfaces; including the conjunctiva; also known as dry eye

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86
Q

OD

A

right eye (oculus dexter)

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87
Q

OS

A

left eye (oculus sinister)

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88
Q

OU

A

each eye (oculus uterque) or both eyes (oculi uterque)

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89
Q

oculus

A

means eye and the plural is oculi

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90
Q

the joint commission

A

is the largest American standards-setting and accrediting body in health care, recommends writing out these terms instead of using abbreviations

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91
Q

structures of the eye include the eyeball

A

and the adnexa that are attached to or surround the eyeball

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92
Q

major structures of the eyeball

A

-lacrimal gland (under the eyelid)
-eyelashes
-outer canthus
-lower eyelid
-conjunctiva
-iris
-sclera
-inner canthus
-pupil
-upper eyelid

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93
Q

adnexa of the eyes

A

also known as adnexa oculi, are the structures outside the eyeball. These include (whats listed above)

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94
Q

adnexa

A

means the accessory or adjoining anatomical parts of an organ. the term adnexa is plural

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95
Q

orbit

A

also known as the eye socket, is the boney cavity of the skull that contains and protects the eyeball and its associated muscles, blood vessels, and nerves

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96
Q

6 major eye muscles

A

which are arranged into three pairs:
-superior and inferior oblique muscles
-superior and inferior rectus muscles
-lateral and medial rectus muscles

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97
Q

oblique

A

describes an angle that is slanted but is not perpendicular or parallel.

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98
Q

rectus

A

means straight

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99
Q

binocular vision

A

occurs when the muscles of both eyes work together in coordination to make normal depth perception possible.

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100
Q

depth perception

A

is the ability to see things in three dimensions

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101
Q

upper and lower eyelids

A

together with the eyebrows and eyelashes help protect the eyeball from foreign matter, excessive light, and injuries due to other causes

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102
Q

canthus

A

is the angle where the upper and lower eyelids meet. The plural of canthus is canthi

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103
Q

canth

A

means corner of the eye-

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104
Q

-us

A

is a singular noun ending
-the edges of the eyelids contain oil-producing sebaceous glands.

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105
Q

cilia

A

which are small hairs, make up the eyebrows and eyelashes. Cilia are also present in the nose to prevent foreign matter from being inhaled

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106
Q

tarsus

A

also known as the tarsal plate, is the framework within the upper and lower eyelids that provides the necessary stiffness and shape. The plural of tarsus is tarsi. NOTE: tarsus also refers to the several tarsal bones of the foot’s instep

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107
Q

conjunctiva

A

is the transparent mucous membrane that lines the underside of each eyelid and continues to form a protective covering over the exposed surface of the eyeball. The plural of conjunctiva is conjunctivae.
Primary functions are:
-keep the front surface of the eye moist and lubricated.
-Keep the inner surface of the eyelids moist and lubricated so they open and close easily without friction or causing eye irritaion
-protect the eye from dust, debris and infection-causing microorganisms

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108
Q

lacrimal apparatus

A

also known as the tear apparatus, consists of the structures that produce, store, and remove tears.

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109
Q

Lacrimation

A

is the secretion of tears

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110
Q

lacrimal glands

A

which secrete lacrimal fluid (tears) are located on the underside of the upper eyelid just above the outer corner of each eye

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111
Q

lacrimal fluid

A

commonly known as tears, is to maintain moisture on the anterior surface of the eyeball. Blinking distributes the lacrimal fluid across the eye

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112
Q

lacrimal canal

A

consists of a duct at the inner corner of each eye. These ducts collect tears and empty them into the lacrimal sacs. Crying is the overflowing of tears from the lacrimal canals

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113
Q

lacrimal sac

A

also known as the tear sac, is an enlargement of the upper portion of the lacrimal duct

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114
Q

lacrimal duct

A

also known as the nasolacrimal duct, is the passageway that drains excess tears into the nose

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115
Q

eyeball

A

also known as the globe, is a 1-inch sphere with only about one-sixth of its surface visible

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116
Q

optic

A

means pertaining to the eye or sight

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117
Q

ocular

A

means pertaining to the eye

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118
Q

extraocular

A

means outside the eyeball

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119
Q

extra-

A

means on the outside

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120
Q

-ar

A

means pertaining to

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121
Q

intraocular

A

means iwthin the eyeball

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122
Q

intra-

A

means within

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123
Q

walls of the eyeball

A

the walls of the eyeball are made up of three layers; the sclera, choroid, and retina

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124
Q

sclera

A

also known as the white of the eye, maintains the shape of the eye and protects the delicate inner layers of tissue. This tough, fibrous tissue forms the outer layer of the eye, except for the part covered by the cornea. Notes: combining form scler/o means the white of the eye, and it also means hard.)

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125
Q

choroid

A

also known as the choroid coat, is the opaque middler layer of the eyeball that contains many blood vessels and provides the blood supply for the entire eye

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126
Q

opaque

A

means that light cannot pass through this substance

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127
Q

retina

A

is the sensitive innermost layer that lines the posterior segment of the eye. the retina receives nerve impulses and transmits them to the brain via the optic nerve. This is also known as the second cranial nerve

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128
Q

segments of the eyeball

A

the interior of the eyeball is divided into the anterior and posterior segments

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129
Q

anterior segment of the eye

A

the anterior segment makes up the front one-third of the eyeball. This segment is divided into anterior and posterior chambers
-the anterior chamber is located behind the cornea and in front iris. The posterior chamber is located behind the iris and in front of the ligaments holding the lens in place. Note: Don’t confuse the posterior chamber with the posterior segment

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130
Q

aqueous humor

A

which is also known as aqueous fluid, fills both of these chambers. The term aqueous means watery or containing water. As used here, the term humor describes any clear body liquid or semifluid substance

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131
Q

aqueous humor

A

helps the eye maintain its shape and nourishes the intraocular structures. This fluid is constantly filtered and drained through the trabecular meshwork and the canal of Schlemm

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132
Q

intraocular pressure (IOP)

A

is the measurement of the fluid pressure inside the eye. This pressure is regulated by the rate at which aqueous humor enters and leaves the eye

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133
Q

posterior segment

A

which makes up the remaining two-thirds of the eyeball, is lined with the retina and filled with vitreous humor. Also known as vitreous gel, this is a soft, clear, jelly-like mass that contains millions of fine fibers. These fibers, which are attached to the surface of the retina, help the eye maintain its shape

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134
Q

rods and cones

A

of the retina receive images that have passed through the lends of the eye. These images are converted into nerve impulses and transmitted to the brain via the optic nerve. Rods are the black and white receptors, and cones are the color receptors

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135
Q

macula

A

also known as the macula lutea, is the clearly defined light-sensitive area area in the center of the retina that is responsible for sharp central vision. Note that the term macula means a small spot. A macula, also known as a macule, can also refer to a small, discolored spot on the skin, such as a freckle

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136
Q

fovea centralis

A

is a pit in the middle of the macula. Color vision is best in this area because it contains a high concentration of cones and no rods

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137
Q

optic disk

A

also known as the blind spot, is a small region in the eye where the nerve endings of the retina enter the optic nerve. This is called the blind spot, because it does not contain any rods or cones to convert images into nerve impulses

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138
Q

optic nerve

A

transmits these nerve impulses from the retina to the brain

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139
Q

uvea

A

is the pigmented layer of the eye. It has a rich blood supply and consists of the choroid, ciliary body and iris

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140
Q

ciliary body

A

which is located within the choroid, is a set of muscles and suspensory ligaments that adjust the thickness of the lens to refine the focus of light rays on the retina
-the ciliary body produces the aqueous humor that fills the anterior segment of the eye
-to focus on nearby objects, these muscles adjust the lens to make it thicker
-to focus on distant objects, these muscles stretch the lends so it is thinner

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141
Q

iris

A

is the colorful circular structure that surrounds the pupil. The muscles within the iris control the amount of light that is allowed to enter the eye through the pupil.
-To decrease the amount of light entering the eye, the muscles of the iris contract, making the opening of the pupil smaller
-to increase the amount of light entering the eye, the muscles of the iris relax, or dilate, making the opening of the pupil larger.

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142
Q

dilate

A

refers to expanding any opening of the body, for example ,the dilating of the cervix during childbirth

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143
Q

cornea

A

is the transparent outer surface of the eye covering the iris and pupil. It is the primary structure focusing light entering the eye.

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144
Q

puil

A

is the black circular opening in the center of the iris that permits light to enter the eye

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145
Q

lens

A

is the clear, flexible, curved structure that focuses images on the retina. The lens is contained within a clear capsule located behind the iris and pupil

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146
Q

accommodation

A

is the process whereby the eyes make adjustments for seeing objects at various distances. These adjustments include contraction (narrowing) and dilation (widening) of the pupil, movement of the eyes, and changes in the shape of the lens

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147
Q

convergence

A

is the simultaneous inward movement of the eyes toward each other. This occurs in an effort to maintain single binocular vision as an object comes nearer

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148
Q

emmetropia

A

is the normal relationship between the refractive power of the eye and the shape of the eye that enables light rays to focus correctly on the retina

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149
Q

emmetr

A

means in proper measure

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150
Q

-opia

A

means vision condition

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151
Q

refraction

A

also refractive power, is the ability of the lens to bend light rays so they focus on the retina.

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152
Q

visual acuity

A

is the ability to distinguish object details and shape at a distance

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153
Q

acuity

A

means sharpness

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154
Q

ophthalmologist

A

is a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating the full spectrum of diseases and disorders of the eyes, from vision correction to eye surgery

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155
Q

ophthalm

A

means eye

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156
Q

optometrist

A

holds a doctor degree and provides primary eye care, including diagnosing eye diseases and conditions and measuring the accuracy of vision to determine whether corrective lenses are needed

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157
Q

optician

A

is a health care practitioner who designs, fits, and dispenses lenses for vision correction

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158
Q

ptosis

A

is the drooping of the upper eyelid that is usually due to paralysis. The term blepharoptosis has the same meaning

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159
Q

ptosis

A

means drooping or sagging

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160
Q

chalazion

A

is a nodule or cyst, usually on the upper eyelid, caused by obstruction in a sebaceous gland. The plural of chalazion is chalazie. A chalazion is a type of granuloma

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161
Q

hordeolum

A

also known as a stye, is a pus-filled and often painful lesion on the eyelid resulting from an acute infection in a sebaceous gland. Compare with chalazion

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162
Q

blepharitis

A

is swelling of the eyelid, often at the location of the eyelash hair follicles

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163
Q

blephar

A

means eyelid

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164
Q

ectropion

A

is the eversion of the edge of an eyelid. Eversion means turning outward. This usually affects the lower lid, thereby exposing the inner surface of the eyelid to irritation and preventing tears from draining properly.

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165
Q

Ectropion

A

is the opposite of entropion

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166
Q

entropion

A

is the inversion of the edge of an eyelid. Inversion means turning inward. This usually affects the lower eyelid and causes the eyelashes to rub against the cornea. Entropion is the opposite of ectropion

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167
Q

en-

A

means in

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168
Q

trop

A

means turn

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169
Q

-ion

A

means condition

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170
Q

periorbital edema

A

is swelling of the tissues surrounding the eye or eyes. This can give the face a bloated appearance and cause the eyes to be partially covered by the swollen eyelids. This swelling is associated with conditions such as allergic reaction, nephrotic syndrome and cellulitis

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171
Q

peri-

A

means surrounding

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172
Q

orbit

A

means eyeball

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173
Q

-al

A

means pertaining to

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174
Q

conjunctivitis

A

also known as pinkeye, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva that is usually caused by an infection or allergy

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175
Q

conjunctiv

A

means conjunctiva

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176
Q

-itis

A

means inflammation

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177
Q

dacryoadenitis

A

is an inflammation of the lacrimal gland caused by a bacterial, viral, or fungal infection. Signs and symptoms of this condition include sudden severe pain, redness, and pressure in the orbit of the eye

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178
Q

dacry/o

A

means tear

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179
Q

aden

A

means gland

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180
Q

subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

is bleeding between the conjunctiva and sclera. This condition, which is usually caused by an injury, creates a red area over the white of the eye

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181
Q

xerophthalmia

A

also known as dry eye, is drying of eye surfaces, including the conjunctiva, because the tear glands do not produce enough tears. This condition is often associated with aging. It can also be due to systemic diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis or caused a lack of vitamin D

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182
Q

uveitis

A

is an inflammation of the uvea causing swelling and irritation. Complications from uveitis can potentially lead to permanent vision loss

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183
Q

iritis

A

is the most common form of uveitis. This inflammation of the uvea affects primarily structures in the front of the eye. This condition has a sudden onset and may last six to eight weeks

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184
Q

corneal abrasion

A

is an injury, such as a scratch or irritation, to the outer layers of the cornea. Compare with corneal ulcer

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185
Q

corne

A

means cornea

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186
Q

-al

A

means pertaining to

187
Q

corneal ulcer

A

is pitting of the cornea caused by an infection or injury. Although these ulcers heal with treatment, they can leave a cloudy scar that impairs vision. Compare with corneal abrasion

188
Q

diabetic retinopathy

A

is damage to the retina as a complication of uncontrolled diabetes. As diabetic retinopathy progresses, diabetic macular edema can occur

189
Q

keratitis

A

is an inflammation of the cornea. This condition can be due to many causes, including bacterial, viral, or fungal infections. (note: kerat/o also means hard)

190
Q

kerat

A

means cornea

191
Q

keratoconus

A

occurs when the cornea becomes irregular and cone-shaped, causing blurring and distortion of vision

192
Q

scleritis

A

is an inflammation of the sclera. This condition is usually associated with infections, chemical injuries, or autoimmune diseases

193
Q

scler

A

means white of the eye

194
Q

anisocoria

A

is a condition in which the pupils are unequal in seize. This condition can be congenital or caused by a head injury, an aneurysm, or pathology of the central nervous system

195
Q

cataract

A

is the loss of transparency of the lens that causes a progressive loss of visual clarity. The formation of most cataracts is associated with aging; however, this condition can be congenital or due to an injury or disease

196
Q

floaters

A

also known as vitreous floaters, are particles of cellular debris that float in the vitreous humor and cast shadows on the retina. Floaters often occur normally but may be an indication of retinal detachment, especially when accompanied by photopsia

197
Q

photopsia

A

is the presence of what appears to be flashes of light, or flashers. These are often caused by damage to the eye or migraine headaches

198
Q

miosis

A

is the contraction of the pupil, normally in response to exposure to light but also possibly due to the use of prescription or illegal drugs

199
Q

mio-

A

means smaller

200
Q

-sis

A

means abnormal condition

201
Q

mydriasis

A

is the dilation of the pupil, is the opposite of miosis. The causes of mydriasis include diseases, trauma (injury), and drugs

202
Q

mydrias

A

means the dilation of the pupil

203
Q

nystagmus

A

is an involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball that can be congenital or caused by a neurological injury or drug use

204
Q

papilledema

A

also known as choked disk, is swelling and inflammation of the optic nerve at the point of entrance into the eye through the optic disk. This swelling is caused by increased intracranial pressure and can be due to a tumor pressing on the optic nerve

205
Q

retinal detachment

A

also known as detached retina, and retinal tears are the separation of some or all of the light-sensitive retina from the choroid. If not treated, the entire retina can detach, causing blindness. These condition can be caused by head trauma, aging, or the vitreous humor separating from the retina

206
Q

retinitis pigmentosa

A

is a progressive degeneration of the retina that affects night and peripheral vision. It can be detached by the presence of dark pigmented spots in the retina

207
Q

temporal arteritis

A

is a form of vasculitis that can cause a sudden vision loss, usually in one eye

208
Q

glaucoma

A

is a group of diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure that causes damage to the retinal nerve fibers and the optic nerve. this increase in pressure is caused by a blockage in the flow of fluid out of the eye. If untreated, this pressure can cause the loss of peripheral vision and eventually blindness.

209
Q

Open-angle glaucoma

A

also known as chronic glaucoma, is by far the most common form of this condition. The trabecular meshwork gradually becomes blocked, causing a buildup of pressure. Symptoms of this condition are not noticed by the patient until the optic nerve has been damaged; however, it can be detected earlier through regular eye examinations, including tonometry and visual field testing.

210
Q

closed angle glaucoma

A

also known as acute glaucoma, is opening between the cornea and iris narrows so that fluid cannot reach the trabecular meshwork. This narrowing can cause a sudden increase in the intraocular pressure that produces severe pain, nausea, redness of the eye, and blurred vision. Without immediate treatment, blindness can occur in as little as two days

211
Q

macular degeneration

A

is a gradually progressive condition in which the macula at the center of the retina is damaged, resulting in the loss of central vision but not in total blindness

212
Q

macul

A

means spot

213
Q

age-related macular degeneration

A

occurs most frequently in older people and is the leading cause of severe vision loss in those over 60

214
Q

dry macular degeneration

A

which accounts for 90% of all AMD cases, caused by the slow deterioration of the cells of the macula

215
Q

met macular degeneration

A

is an advanced form of dry AMD. New blood vessels growing beneath the retinal cells. These small hemorrhages usually result in rapid and severe vision loss

216
Q

diplopia

A

also known as double vision, is the perception of two images of a single object. It is sometimes a symptom of serious underlying disorder such as multiple sclerosis or a brain tumor

217
Q

Hemianopia

A

is blindness in one-half of the visual field

218
Q

hemi-

A

means half

219
Q

an-

A

means without

220
Q

-opia

A

means visual condition

221
Q

monochromatism

A

also known as color blindness, is the inability to distinguish certain colors in a normal manner. This is a genetic condition caused by deficiencies in or the absence of certain types of cones in the retina

222
Q

mon/o

A

means one

223
Q

chromat

A

means color

224
Q

-ism

A

means condition

225
Q

Nyctalopia

A

also known as night blindness, is a condition in which an individual with normal daytime vision has difficulty seeing at night

226
Q

nyctal

A

means night

227
Q

photophobia

A

means excessive sensitivity to light and can be the result of migraines, excessive wearing of contacts lenses, drug use, or inflammation

228
Q

presbyopia

A

is the condition of common changes in the eyes that occur with agin. With age, near vision declines noticeably as the lens becomes less flexible and the muscles of the ciliary body becomes weaker. The result is that the eyes are no longer able to focus the image properly on the retina

229
Q

presby

A

means old age

230
Q

strabismus

A

is a disorder in which the eyes point in different directions or are not aligned correctly, because the eye muscles are unable to focus together

231
Q

esotropia

A

also known as cross-eyes, is strabismus characterized by an inward deviation of one or both eyes.

232
Q

eso-

A

means inward

233
Q

exotropia

A

also known as walleye, is strabismus characterized by the outward deviation of one eye relative to the other

234
Q

exo-

A

meanas outward

235
Q

trop

A

means turn

236
Q

-ia

A

means abnormal condition

237
Q

refractive disorder

A

is a focusing problem that occurs when the lens and cornea do not bend light so that it focuses properly on the retina

238
Q

hyperopia

A

also known as farsightedness, is a defect in which light rays focus beyond the retina. This condition can occur in childhood but usually causes difficulty after age 40. Hyperopia is the opposite of myopia

238
Q

ametropia

A

is any error of refraction in which images do not focus properly on the retina. Astigmatism, hyperopia and myopia are all forms of ametropia

238
Q

astigmatism

A

is a condition in which the eye does not focus properly because of uneven curvatures of the cornea

239
Q

myopia

A

also known as nearsightedness, is a defect in which light rays focus in front of the retina. This condition occurs most commonly around puberty. Myopia is the opposite of hyperopia

240
Q

hyper-

A

means excessive

241
Q

-opia

A

means vision condition

242
Q

my

A

is from the greek word for shortsighted

243
Q

blindness

A

is the inability to see

244
Q

legal blindness

A

is the point at which, under law, an individual is considered to be blind. A commonly used standard is that a person is legally blind when his or her best-corrected vision is reduced to 20/200 or less

245
Q

amblyopia

A

is a dimness of vision or the partial loss of sight, especially in one eye, without detectable disease of the eye

246
Q

ambly

A

means dim or dull

247
Q

scotoma

A

also known as blind spot, is an abnormal area of diminished vision surrounded by an area of normal vision

248
Q

snellen chart (SC)

A

is used to measure visual acuity. The results for each eye are recorded as a fraction with 20/20 being considered normal
-the first number indicates the standard distance from the chart, which is 20 feet
-the second number indicates the deviation from the norm based on the ability to read progressively smaller lines of letters on the chart

249
Q

refraction test

A

is done to determine an eye’s refractive error so that the best corrective lenses can be prescribed. This term also refers to the ability of the lens to bend light rays so they focus on the retina

250
Q

diopter

A

is the unit of measurement of a lens’s refractive power

251
Q

cover test

A

is an examination of how the two eyes work together and is used to assess binocular vision. One eye at a time is covered while the patient focuses on an object across the room

252
Q

visual filed testing

A

also known as perimetry, is performed to determine losses in peripheral vision. Peripheral means occurring away from the center. Blank sections in the visual field can be symptomatic of glaucoma or an optic nerve disorder. This test is done by having the patient look straight ahead and indicate whether or not they can see an object or flash of light when it is presented in their periphery

253
Q

Ophthalmoscopy

A

also known as funduscopy, is the use of an ophthalmoscope to visually examine the fundus (back part) of the eye. This examination includes the retina, optic disk, choroid, and blood vessels

254
Q

dilation

A

of the eyes is required in preparation for the ophtalmoscopic examination of the interior of the eye. Artificial enlargement of the pupils is achieved through the use of mydriatic edrops

255
Q

mydriatic drops

A

are placed into the eyes to produce temporary paralysis, forcing the pupils to remain dilated even in the presence of bright light

256
Q

slit-lamp ophthalmoscopy

A

is a diagnostic procedure in which a narrow beam of light is focused onto parts of the eye to permit the ophthalmologist to examine the structures at the front of the eye, including the cornea, iris, and lens. Often fluorescein staining is used to help detect foreign bodies or an infected or injured area of the eye

257
Q

fluorescein staining

A

is the application of fluorescent dye to the surface of the eye via eye drops or a strip applicator. This dye causes a corneal abrasion to temporarily appear bright green

258
Q

fluorescein angiography

A

is a photographic study of the blood vessels in the back of the eye following the intravenous injection of a fluorescein dye as a contrast medium. The resulting angiograms are used to determine whether there is proper circulation in the retinal vessels

259
Q

PERRLA

A

is an acronym meaning:
Pupils are
Equal
Round
Responsive to
Light and
Accommodation.
This diagnostic observation, and any abnormality here could indicate a head injury or damage to the brain

260
Q

Tonometry

A

is the measurement of intraocular pressure. Abnormally high pressure can be an indication of glaucoma

261
Q

ton/o

A

means tension

262
Q

-metry

A

means to measure

263
Q

orbitotomy

A

is a surgical incision into the orbit. This procedure is performed for biopsy, abscess drainage, or removal of a tumor or foreign object

264
Q

orbit

A

means bony socket

265
Q

-otomy

A

means surgical incision

266
Q

tarsorrhaphy

A

is the partial or complete suturing together of the upper and lower eyelids to protect the eye when the lids are paralyzed and unable to close normally

267
Q

tars/o

A

means eyelid.

268
Q

rrhaphy

A

means surgical suturing

269
Q

corneal transplant

A

also known as keratoplasty, is the surgical replacement of a scarred or diseased cornea with clear corneal tissue from a donor

270
Q

enucleation

A

is the removal of the eyeball, leaving the eye muscles intact

271
Q

e-

A

means out of

272
Q

nucle

A

means nucleus

273
Q

-ation

A

means action

274
Q

ocular prosthesis

A

also known as an artificial eye, may be fitted to wear over a malformed eye or to replace an eyeball that is either congenitally missing or has been surgically removed. A prothesis is an artificial substitute for a diseased or missing body part

275
Q

iridectomy

A

is the surgical removal of a portion of the tissue of the iris. This procedure is most frequently performed to treat closed-angle glaucoma

276
Q

radial keratotomy

A

is a surgical procedure to treat myopia. During the surgery, incisions are made in the cornea to casue it to flatten. These incisions allow the sides of the cornea to bulge outward and thereby flatten the central portions of the cornea. This brings the focal point of the eye closer to the retina and improves distance vision. Compare with LASIK, in the later section “Laser Treatments of the Eyes”

277
Q

scleral buckle

A

is a silicone band or sponge used to repair a detached retina. The detached layers are brought closer together by attaching this band onto the sclera, or outer wall, of the eyeball, creating an indentation or buckle effect inside the eye

278
Q

virectomy

A

is the removal of the vitreous humor and its replacement with a clear solution. This procedure is sometimes performed to treat a retinal detachment or when diabetic retinopathy causes blood to leak and cloud the vitreous humor

279
Q

vitr

A

means vitreous humor

280
Q

-ectomy

A

means removal

281
Q

lensectomy

A

is the general term used to describe the surgical removal of a cataract-clouded lens

282
Q

phacoemulsification

A

is the use of ultrasonic vibration to shatter and remove the lens clouded by a cataract. This performed through a very small opening, and the same opening is used to slide the intraocular lens into place

283
Q

intraocular lens (IOL)

A

is a surgically implanted replacement for the natural lens that has been removed. There are two types of IOLs, monofocal and multifocal, which was designed to eliminate the need for corrective lenses

284
Q

intra-

A

means within

285
Q

ocul

A

means eye

286
Q

corrective lenses

A

refractive errors in the eye can often be corrected with lenses that alter the angle of light rays before they reach the cornea. Glasses with concave lenses (curved inward) are used for myopia, or nearsightedness, and glasses with cortex lenses (curved outward) for hyperopia (farsightedness)
-corrective lenses can combine two or three different refractive powers, one above the other, to allow for better distance vision when looking up and near vision when looking down. Bifocals are lenses with two powers. Trifocals are lenses with three powers
-strabismus is sometimes treated with corrective lenses or an eye path covering the stronger eye and thus strengthening the muscles in the weaker eye
-contact lenses are refractive lenses that float directly on the tear film in front of the eye. Rigid gas-permeable lenses cover the central part of the cornea, and disposable soft lenses cover the entire cornea

287
Q

laser iridotomy

A

uses a focused beam of light to create a hole in the iris of the eye. This procedure is performed to treat closed-angle glaucoma by creating an opening that allows the aqueous humor to flow between the anterior and posterior chambers of the anterior segment of the eye

288
Q

irid

A

means iris

289
Q

laser trabeculoplasty

A

is used to treat open-angle glaucoma by creating in the trabecular meshwork to allow the fluid to drain properly

290
Q

LASKIK

A

is the acronym for Laser-Assisted in Situ Keratomileusis.

291
Q

Photocoagulation

A

is the use of a laser treat some forms of wet macular degeneration by sealing leaking or damaged blood vessels. This technique is also used to repair small retinal tears by intentionally forming scar tissue to seal the holes

292
Q

Retinopexy

A

is used to reattach the detached area in a retinal detachment.

293
Q

retin/o

A

means retina

294
Q

-pexy

A

means surgical fixation

295
Q

pneumatic retinopexy

A

a gas bubble is injected into the vitreous cavity to put pressure on the area of repair while it heals. The bubble gradually dissipates. Lasers are sued to remove clouded tissue that may have formed in the posterior portion of the lens capsule after cataract extraction

296
Q

functions of the ear

A

the ears the receptor organs of hearing, and their functions are to receive sound impulses and transmit them to the brain. The inner ear also helps maintain balance. The abbreviations relating to the ears, with the Latin words from which they originated.

297
Q

AD

A

right ear (auris dexter)

298
Q

AS

A

left ear (auris sinister)

299
Q

AU

A

each ear (auris uterque) or both ears (auris unitas)

300
Q

auditory

A

means pertaining to the sense of hearing.

301
Q

audit

A

means hearing or sense of hearing

302
Q

-ory

A

means pertaining to

303
Q

acoustic

A

means pertaining to sound or hearing

304
Q

acous

A

means hearing or sound

305
Q

3 regions are divided:

A

the outer ear, the middle ear, and the inner ear

306
Q

pinna

A

also known as the auricle or the outer ear, is the external portion of the ear. The pinna captures sound waves and transmits them into the external auditory canal

307
Q

external auditory canal

A

transmits these sound waves to the tympanic membrane (eardrum) of the middle ear

308
Q

cerumen

A

also known as earwax, is secreted by ceruminous glands that line the auditory canal. This sticky yellow-brown substances has protective functions because it traps small insects, dust, and some bacteria to prevent them from entering the middle ear

309
Q

middle ear

A

which is located between the outer ear and the inner ear, transmits sound across the space between these two parts

310
Q

tympanic membrane

A

also known as the eardrum, is located between the outer and middle ear. The word parts myring/o and tympan/o both tympanic membrane. When sound waves reach the eardrum, this membrane transmits the sound by vibrating

311
Q

mastoid process

A

is the temporal bone containing hollow air space that surrounds the middle ear. As used here, a process is a projection on a structure such as a bone

312
Q

auditory ossicles

A

are three small bones located the middle ear. The role of these bones is to transmit the sound waves from the eardrum to the inner ear by vibration. These bones are named for the Latin terms that describe their shapes. They are as follows:
Malleus - also known as the hammer
Incus - also known as the anvil
Stapes - also known as the stirrup

313
Q

eustachian tubes

A

also known as the auditory tubes, are narrow tubes that lead from the middle ear to the nasal cavity and the throat. The purpose of these tubes is to equalize the air pressure within the middle ear with that of the outside atmosphere

314
Q

inner ear

A

contains the sensory receptors for hearing and balance. The structures of the inner ear are a maze-like system known as the labyrinth

315
Q

oval window

A

which is located under the base of the stapes, is the membrane that separates the middle ear from the inner ear. Vibrations enter the inner ear through this structure

316
Q

cochlea

A

is the snail-shaped structure of the inner ear and is where the sound vibrations are converted into nerve impulses. Located within the cochlea are the cochlear duct, the organ of Corti, the semicircular canals, and the acoustic nerves. Cochlea come from the Greek term for snail

317
Q

organ of Corti

A

receives the vibrations from the cochlear duct and relays them to the auditory nerve fibers. These fibers transmit the sound impulses to the auditory center of the brain’s cerebral cortex, where they are heard and interpreted

318
Q

semicircular canals

A

connected to the cochlea by the vestibule, contain the liquid endolymph and sensitive hair cells. The bending of these hair cells in response to the movements of the head sets up impulses in nerve fibers to help maintain equilibrium.

319
Q

Equilibrium

A

is the state of balance

320
Q

acoustic nerves (cranial nerve VIII)

A

also called auditory nerves, transmit this information to the brain. The acoustic nerves are made up of two parts: cochlear nerves and vestibular nerves

321
Q

cochlear nerves

A

transmit sound for hearing

322
Q

vestibular nerves

A

that sense balance and head position

323
Q

structures of the ears

A

the ear is divided into three separate regions: the outer ear, middle ear and the inner ear

324
Q

the outer ear

A

pinna, external auditory canal, cerumen

324
Q

pinna

A

also known as the auricle or the outer ear, is the external portion of the ear. the pinna captures sound waves and transmits them into the external auditory canal

325
Q

external auditory canal

A

transmits these sound waves to the tympanic membrane (eardrum) of the middle ear

326
Q

cerumen

A

also known as earwax, is secreted by ceruminous glands that line the auditory canal. This sticky yellow-brown substances has protective functions because it traps small insects, dust, debris, and some bacteria to prevent them from entering the middle ear.

327
Q

middle ear

A

which is located between the outer ear and the inner ear, transmits sound across the space between these two parts:
tympanic membrane and the mastoid process

328
Q

tympanic membrane

A

also known as the eardrum, is located between the outer and middle ear. The word parts myring/o and tympan/o both mean tympanic membrane. When sound waves reach the eardrum, this membrane transmits the sound by vibrating

329
Q

mastoid process

A

is the temporal bone containing hollow hair space that surrounds the middle ear. As used here, a process is a projection on a structure such as a bone

330
Q

auditory ossicles

A

are three small bones located within the middle ear. The role of these bones is to transmit the sound waves from the eardrum to the inner ear by vibration. These bones are named for the Latin terms that describe their shapes. They are as follows:
-malleus
-incus
-stapes

331
Q

malleus

A

also known as the hammer

332
Q

incus

A

also known as the anvil

333
Q

stapes

A

also known as the stirrup

334
Q

eustachian tubes

A

also known as the auditory tubes, are narrow tubes that lead from the middle ear to the nasal cavity and the throat. The purpose of these tubes is to equalize the air pressure within the middle ear with that of the outside atmosphere

335
Q

normal action of the ears

A

air conduction
bone conduction
sensorineural conduction

336
Q

air conduction

A

is the process by which sound waves enter the ear through the pinna and then travel down the external auditory canal until they strike the tympanic membrane, which is located between the outer ear and the middle ear

337
Q

bone conduction

A

occurs as the eardrum vibrates and causes the auditory ossicles of the middle ear to vibrate. The vibration of these bones transmits the sound waves through the middle ear to the oval window of the inner ear

338
Q

sensorineural conduction

A

occurs when these sound vibrations reach the inner ear. The structures of the inner ear receive the sound waves and relay them to the auditory nerve for transmission to the brain

339
Q

audiologist

A

specializes in the measurement of hearing function and in the rehabilitation of person with hearing impairments. An otolaryngologist is previous discussed

340
Q

audi-

A

means hearing

341
Q

otolaryngologist

A

ear, nose and throat physician

342
Q

speech-language pathologist (SLP)

A

can be involved in numerous medical areas including audiology. These practitioners help patients who have problems related to swallowing, speech, and communication disorders

343
Q

outer ear

A

impacted cerumen
otalgia
otitis
otomycosis
otopyorrhea
otorrhea
otorrhagia

344
Q

impacted cerumen

A

is an accumulation of earwax that forms a solid mass by adhering to the walls of the external auditory canal. Impacted means lodged or wedged firmly in place

345
Q

otalgia

A

also known as an earache, is pain in the ear

346
Q

ot

A

means ear

347
Q

-algia

A

means pain

348
Q

otitis

A

means any inflammation of the ear. The second part of the term gives the location of the inflammation. For example, otitis externa is an inflammation of the external auditory canal, also known as swimmer’s ear

349
Q

otlomycosis

A

is a fungal infection of the external auditory canal.

350
Q

myc-

A

means fungus

351
Q

-osis

A

means abnormal condition

352
Q

otopyorrhea

A

is the flow of pus from the ear

353
Q

py/o

A

means pus

354
Q

-rrhea

A

means flow or discharge

355
Q

otorrhea

A

is any discharge from the ear. In rare cases this could include leakage of cerebrospinal fluid

356
Q

otorrhagia

A

is bleeding from the ear

357
Q

-rrhagia

A

means bleeding

358
Q

the middle ear

A

barotrauma
cholesteatoma
mastoiditis
infectious myringitis
otitis
otosclerosis

359
Q

barotrauma

A

is a pressure-related ear condition. These conditions can be caused by pressure changes when flying, driving in the mountains, or scuba diving or when the eustachian tube is blocked

360
Q

bar/o

A

means pressure

361
Q

-trauma

A

means injury

362
Q

cholesteatoma

A

also known as a pearly tumor, is a destructive epidermal cyst in the middle ear and/or the mastoid process made up of epithelial cells and cholesterol. It can be congenital or a serious complication of chronic otitis media

363
Q

cholesteat

A

refers to cholesterol

364
Q

-oma

A

means tumor

365
Q

mastoiditis

A

is an inflammation of any part of the mastoid bone. This condition may develop when acute otitis media that cannot be controlled with antibiotics spreads to the mastoid process

366
Q

mastoid

A

means mastoid process

367
Q

infectious myringitis

A

is a contagious inflammation that causes painful blisters on the eardrum. The condition is associated with a middle ear infection. It is not to be confused with infectious meningitis, which is an inflammation of the brain and spinal cord

368
Q

myring

A

means eardrum

369
Q

otitis media

A

is an inflammation of the middle ear

370
Q

acute otitis media

A

is usually associated with an upper respiratory infection and is most commonly seen in young children. This condition can lead to a ruptured eardrum due to the buildup of pus or fluid in the middle ear

371
Q

serous otitis media

A

is a fluid buildup in the middle ear without symptoms of an infection. This condition can follow acute otitis media or can be caused by obstruction of the eustachian tube

372
Q

otosclerosis

A

is the ankylosis of the bones of the middle ear, resulting in a conductive hearing loss. Ankylosis means fused together. Ankylosis means fused together. This condition is treated with a stapedectomy

373
Q

labyrinthitis

A

is an inflammation of the labyrinth that can result in vertigo and deafness

374
Q

vertigo

A

is a sense of whirling, dizziness, and loss of balance that is often combined with nausea and vomiting. Although it is a symptom of many disorders, recurrent vertigo is sometimes associated with inner ear problems such as Méniére’s disease

375
Q

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)

A

is a common cause of vertigo that occurs when there is a shift in the location of small crystals in the semicircular canals. BBPV, labyrinthitis, and Meniere’s disease are examples vestibular disorders, which are disorders of the body’s balance-controlling vestibular system in the inner ear.

376
Q

meinere’s disease

A

is a rare chronic disorder in which the amount of fluid in the inner ear increases intermittently, producing attacks of vertigo, a fluctuating hearing loss (usually in one ear) and tinnitus

377
Q

tinnitus

A

is a condition of a ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears. It is often associated with hearing loss and is more likely to occur when there has been prolonged exposure to loud noises

378
Q

acoustic neroma

A

is a brain tumor that develops adjacent to the cranial nerve running from the brain to the inner ear. This is one of the most common types of brain tumors and can cause hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus

379
Q

acous

A

means hearing

380
Q

-tic

A

means pertaining to

381
Q

neuro

A

means nerve

382
Q

-oma

A

means tumor

383
Q

deafness

A

is the complete or partial loss of the ability to hear. It can range from the inability to hear sounds of the certain pitch or intensity, or to a complete loss of hearing

384
Q

presbycusis

A

is a gradual loss of sensorineural hearing that occurs as the body ages

385
Q

presby

A

means old age

386
Q

-cusis

A

means hearing

387
Q

conductive hearing loss

A

occurs when sound waves are prevented from passing from the air to the fluid-filled inner ear. Causes of this hearing loss include a buildup of earwax, infection, fluid in the middle ear, a punctured eardrum, otosclerosis, and scarring. This type of hearing loss can often be treated

388
Q

sensorineural hearing loss

A

also known as nerve deafness, develops when the auditory nerve or hair cells in the inner ear are damaged. This is usually due to age, noise exposure, or an acoustic neuroma. The source of this hearing loss can be located in the inner ear, in the nerve from the inner ear to the brain, or in the brain

389
Q

noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL)

A

is a type of nerve deafness caused by repeated exposure to extremely loud noises such as a gunshot or to moderately loud noises that continue for long periods of time
-These noises can permanently damage the hair cells in the cochlea, and at least partial hearing loss occurs. Unfortunately, this gradual hearing loss usually isn’t noticed until some hearing has been permanently destroyed
-any sound above 85 decibels (dB) can cause some hearing loss if the exposure is prolonged. Most portable music players and smartphones can produce sounds up to 105 dB, which is louder than a lawn mower or a chain saw and is the equivalent to an ambulance siren

390
Q

decibel

A

is commonly used as the measurement of the loudness of sound

391
Q

audiological evaluation

A

also known as speech audiometry, is the measurement of the ability to hear and understand speech sounds based on their pitch and loudness. This testing is best achieved in a sound-treated room with earphones. The resulting graph is an audiogram that represents the ability to hear a variety of sounds at various loudness levels

392
Q

audiometry

A

is the use of an audiometer to measure hearing acuity. An audiometer is an electronic device that produces acoustic stimuli of a set frequency and intensity

393
Q

How is sound measured

A

hertz and decibels
a Hertz (Hz) is a measure of sound frequency that determines how high or low a pitch is.

394
Q

otoscope

A

which is an instrument used to examine the external ear canal. A pneumatic otoscope has the attachment of a bulb filled with air; during an exam with an otoscope the bulb is pressed to visualized whether or not the tympanic membrane is immobile, indicating possible otitis media

395
Q

monaural testing

A

involves one ear. Comare with binaural testing

396
Q

mono-

A

means one

397
Q

binaural testing

A

involves both ears.

398
Q

bin-

A

means two

399
Q

tympanometry

A

is the use of air pressure in the ear canal to test for disorders of the middle ear. This resulting record is a tympanogram. This is used to test for middle-ear fluid buildup or eustachian tube obstruction, or to evaluate a conductive hearing loss

400
Q

acoustic reflectometry

A

measures how much sound is reflected back from the eardrum, a way to test how much fluid is in the middle ear to diagnose otitis media

401
Q

Weber and Rinne test

A

use a tuning fork to distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing losses. This patient’s perception of the tuning fork’s vibrations helps evaluate his or her hearing ability by air conduction compared to that of bone conduction

402
Q

otoplasty

A

is the surgical repair, restoration, or alteration of the pinna of the ear. This is sometimes done as cosmetic surgery called ear pinning to bring protruding ears closer to the head

403
Q

-plasty

A

means surgical repair

404
Q

ear tubes

A

formally known as tympanostomy tubes, are tiny ventilating tubes placed through the eardrum to provide ongoing drainage for fluids and to relieve pressure that can buildup after childhood ear infections

405
Q

mastoidectomy

A

is the surgical removal of mastoid cells. This procedure is used to treat mastoiditis that cannot be controlled with antibiotics or in preparation for the placement of a cochlear implant

406
Q

-ectomy

A

means surgical removal

407
Q

myringotomy

A

is a small surgical incision in the eardrum to relieve pressure from excess pus or fluid or to create an opening for the placement of ear tubes

408
Q

myring

A

means eardrum

409
Q

-otomy

A

means surgical incision

410
Q

stapedectomy

A

is the surgical removal of the top portion of the stapes bone and the insertion of a small prosthetic device known as a piston that conducts sound vibrations to the inner ear

411
Q

staped

A

means stapes

412
Q

tympanoplasty

A

is the surgical correction of a damaged middle ear, either to cure chronic inflammation or to restore function.

413
Q

tympan/o

A

means eardrum

414
Q

labyrinthectomy

A

is the surgical removal of all or a portion of the labyrinth. This procedure is performed to relieve uncontrolled vertigo; however, it causes complete hearing loss in the affected ear

415
Q

vestibular rehabilitation therapy (VRT)

A

is a form of physical therapy designed to treat a wide variety of balance disorders, the majority of which are caused by problems in the inner ear and vestibular nerve

416
Q

vestibul

A

means an enterance

417
Q

assistive listening device (ALD)

A

transmits, processes, or amplifies sound and can be used with or without a hearing aid. An ALD can be helpful in eliminating distracting background noise. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) requires that many public places provide assisted listening devices

418
Q

cochlear implant

A

is an electronic device that bypasses that damaged portions of the ear and directly stimulates the auditory nerve. The external speech processor captures sounds and converts them into digital signals. Electrodes that are implanted into the cochlea receive the signals and stimulate the auditory nerve. The brain receives these signals and perceives them as sound; however, it may take several months to adjust to the difference in speech when it is received in this manner

419
Q

fenestration

A

is a surgical procedure in which a new opening is created in the labyrinth to restore lost hearing

420
Q

fenestr/a

A

means window

421
Q

-tion

A

means process

422
Q

hearing aids

A

are electronic devices that are worn to correct a hearing loss. Sometimes a sensorineural hearing loss can be corrected with a hearing aid

423
Q

analog hearing aid

A

is an external electronic device that uses a microphone to detect and amplify sounds

424
Q

digital hearing aid

A

uses a computer chip to convert the incoming sound into a code that can be filtered before being amplified. This is designed to best compensate for a specific type of hearing loss. Hearing aid technology has steadily advanced, and some are even programmable from a smart phone or tablet

425
Q

hearing aids are worn:

A

behind the ear (BTE), in the ear (ITE), in the canal (ITC) or completely in the canal (CIC)

426
Q

astinmatism

A

AS

427
Q

CAT

A

cataract

428
Q

CI

A

conjunctivitis

429
Q

EM, em

A

emmetropia

430
Q

FA, FAG

A

fluroescein angiography

431
Q

G, glc

A

glaucoma

432
Q

MD

A

macular degeneration

433
Q

RK

A

radial keratotomy

434
Q

RD

A

retinal detachment

435
Q

SLE

A

slit-lamp examination

436
Q

VA

A

visual acuity

437
Q

VF

A

visual field

438
Q

acoust/o

A

hearing, sound

439
Q

blephar/o

A

eyelid

440
Q

ir/i

A

iris

441
Q

labyrinth/o

A

inner ear

442
Q

presby/o

A

old age

443
Q

inra-

A

within

444
Q

peri-

A

surrounding

445
Q

sub-

A

below

446
Q

-algia

A

pain

447
Q

-cusis

A

hearing

448
Q

-metry

A

to measure

449
Q

-opia

A

vision condition

450
Q

-pexy

A

surgical fixation

451
Q

-scope

A

instrument for visual examination

452
Q

-tomy

A

surgical incision

453
Q

EOMI

A

extraocular movements intact

454
Q

HEENT

A

head, eyes, ears, nose, throat

455
Q

LASIK

A

laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis

456
Q

OE

A

otitis externa

457
Q

OM

A

otitis media

458
Q

PERRLA

A

Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation

459
Q

TM

A

tympanic membrane, eardrum

460
Q
A

Chapter 1: Medical Terms (17 decks)

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