Contract Administration Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between contract administrator and employer’s agent?

A
  • CA - Administer the contract only.
  • EA - Act on the clients behalf on all matters and administer D&B contract.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the timescales associated with contractor payments?

A
  • Contractor issue valuation 7 days prior to due date.
  • QS reviews and issue recommendation.
  • C for P issued 5 days following due date at latest.
  • (pay less certificate issued 5 days prior to payment date)
  • Payment made 14 days following due date (usually amended)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do you ensure a contractor’s valuation is reflective of works complete?

A
  • Appoint QS
  • Review on site and receive their recommendation for payment.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the change control process that is usually followed in projects you are involved with?

A
  • Team member raises need for a change, submits change order form.
  • Contractor issues VO with cost
  • QS reviews cost and agrees
  • I notify the client of the change and receive approval to instruct.
  • I issue employer’s agent instruction.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an extension of time?

A
  • Issued when as a result of delay not caused by contractor.
  • Formally extends practical completion date.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is usually included in an extension of time?

A
  • Old PC date.
  • New PC date.
  • Relevant contract clause.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the process of issuing an extension of time?

A
  • Receive contractors notice of delay.
  • Assessment and comment / agree.
  • Notify client and meeting to review and agree EOT can be issued.
  • Issue extension of time.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is practical completion?

A
  • Signifies the works are materially complete.
  • Allows the space to be occupied.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the benefits of a JCT contract?

A
  • Known to the industry.
  • Amendments can be more easily agree
  • Meant for construction works.
  • Time efficiencies vs. bespoke.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What information do you require prior to issuing PC

A
  • Building control sign off.
  • Health and safety file.
  • Outstanding works schedule
  • Project team sign off.
  • Commissioning / life safety certs complete.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How would you deem if works were satisfactorily complete prior to issuing PC?

A
  • Regular site visits.
  • Building control approval received.
  • Project team had confirmed sign off and provided a small number of snags.
  • Health and safety file had been received.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What were the key areas inspected as part of your practical completion visit?

A
  • Life safety installations.
  • Bulk of the contract works.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In what part of a JCT contract is the PC date included?

A
  • Contract particulars.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which members of the project team join on PC inspection?

A
  • Client
  • Architect
  • Services Engineer
  • Quantity Surveyor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a building control certificate?

A
  • Certificate confirming completion of works in line with building regulations.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What information is typically shown on a building control certificate

A
  • Date
  • Description of works
  • Location of site
  • Confirmation works complete in line with building regulations.
17
Q

What is a health and safety file?

A
  • Principal Designer collates it
  • Description of work
  • Residual hazards
  • health and safety log
  • As built information
18
Q

What systems are typically witnessed?

A
  • FCU’s
  • Lighting
  • Fire alarm
19
Q

Is the defects rectification period typically 12 months in a standard JCT?

A

No, 6 months.

20
Q

What is your typical involvement during defect rectification period?

A
  • Light
  • Notifying contractor of any defects arising.
  • Inspection at the end of the period.
21
Q

Prior to occupation, what key activities would the client be required to undertake?

A
  • Fire risk assessment
  • Insurances into clients name.
22
Q

What is a Cat A+ refurbishment?

A
  • Fit-out works on behalf of a landlord
  • Tenant takes space fitted out.
  • Doesnt have AV typically
23
Q

How did you determine existing FCU’s were not suitable for retention?

A
  • Validations.
  • M&E engineer reviewed results.
  • Issues with flow rate and life expectancy.
24
Q

How did you ensure that the contractors cost for the new FCU’s was fair?

A
  • QS reviewed.
  • Benchmarked.
  • BCIS
25
Q

Was there a provisional sum in the contract for the new FCU’s?

A
  • Yes
26
Q

What information is included on an EAI?

A
  • Date.
  • Site location
  • Description of works instructed.
27
Q

Did the review of the costs prior to instructing the new FCU’s delay the project

A
  • No quick review by QS
  • Easier client decision as prov sum in the contract
  • Flagged as risk from the outset.
28
Q

Are you aware of any RICS documentation relevant to the role of employer’s agent?

A

Employer’s Agent: Design and Build (2017)

29
Q

What insurances would you typically receive from a contractor prior to works commencing on site?

A
  • Public Liability
  • Contract Works
  • Professional Indemnity
  • Employer’s Liability
30
Q

What is a latent defect?

A
  • One that is not immediately visible by a thorough inspection.
31
Q

What is a patent defect?

A
  • Can be discovered by reasonable inspection.
32
Q

What are the allowances for dispute resolution within a JCT contract?

A
  • Mediation (named)
  • Adjudication (named)
  • Arbitration
33
Q

in what is the latest point defects can be raised following the defect rectification period?

A
  • 14 days following defect rectification period date
34
Q

What timeframes are on the contractor to close out defects in liability period?

A
  • Reasonable timescales.
35
Q

What are the benefits of using an industry recognised contract?

A
  • Expedience of agreeing amendments
  • Limits risk of dispute.
36
Q

How do you go about determining works are practically complete?

A
  • Site inspection with project team.
  • Receipt of all necessary certs.
37
Q

What is your typical involvement during the defect rectification period?

A
  • Coordination with landlord / tenant
  • Any serious snags being rectified immediately.
  • Inspection at 12 months to determine any further snags.
  • Manage close out and issue certificate of making good defects.