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anatomy and physiology > clinical connections > Flashcards

clinical connections Flashcards

1
Q

skin grafts

A

transfer of a patch of healthy skin taken from a donor site to cover wound

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2
Q

autologous skin transplantation

A

if the skin damage is so great, a self-donation procedure…for severely burned patients a small amount of epidermis is removed and keratinocytes are cultured to create sheets of skin

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3
Q

apigraft and transite skin graftsare grown where and from what

A

grown in laboratory from the foreskins of circumcised infants

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4
Q

what provides clues for diagnosing certain conditions

A

colour of skin and mucous membrane

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5
Q

cyanosis

A

due to lack of oxygen, skin appears bluish

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6
Q

jaundice

A

buildup of bilirubin in blood, yellowish appearance to the skin and whites of eyes..liver issue

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7
Q

erythema

A

redness of skin caused by engorgment of capillaries in the dermis with blood due to skin injury, exposure to heat, infection, inflammation, allergic reaction

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8
Q

pallor

A

paleness of skin…shock or anemia

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9
Q

chemotherapy-what is it, what does it interupt, what loses stuff

A

treatment of disease, usually cancer, using chemical substances or drugs
-chemotherapeutic agents interrupt the life cycle of rapidly dividing cancer cells
-hair loss, 15% stay in resting state so it stays

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10
Q

acne

A

inflammation of sebaceous glands that usually beings at puberty, when the sebaceous glands are stimulated by androgens

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10
Q

where does acne occur

A

in sebaceous follicles that have been colonized by bacteria

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10
Q

transdermal (transcutaneous) drug administration

A

enables a drug contained within an adhesive skin patch to pass through the epidermis and into the blood vessels of the dermis

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11
Q

transdermal (transcutaneous) drug administration examples and what it does

A

-nitroglycerin- prevention of angina pectoris…chest pain with heart disease
- scopolamine…motion sickness
- estradiol…estrogen replacement therapy during menopause
- ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin in contraceptive patches
- nicotine to help stop smoking
- fentanyl- relieve severe pain in cancer patients

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12
Q

bone scan-how is it administered, what indicates abnormlities, why is it important to do, what does it do

A

intravenous
figures out the amount of blood flow to bone
darker or lighter areas indicated abnormalities
standard test for bone density screening….important for females for checking for osteoporosis

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13
Q

bone scan-darker areas

A

hot spots
indicate bone cancer, abnormal healing of fractures, abnormal bone growth…areas of increased metabolism…increased blood flow

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14
Q

bone scan- lighter areas

A

cold spots….decreased metabolism absorbs less radioactive tracer due to decreased blood flow
degenerative bone disease, decalcified bone, fractures, bone infections, paget’s disease, rheumatoid arthritis

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15
Q

orthodontics

A

dentistry that focuses on the prevention and correction of poorly aligned teeth…osteoclasts and osteoblasts remodel the sockets so teeth align properly

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16
Q

giantism

A

oversecretion of growth hormone during childhood

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17
Q

dwarfism and 2 types

A

small stature…under 4 feet 10 inches
2 types: proportionate and disproportionate dwarfism

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18
Q

proportionate dwarfism

A

all parts are small but proportionate to eachother
hyposecretion of GH and condition called pituitary dwarfism…can be treated until epiphyseal plate closure

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19
Q

disproportionate dwarfism

A

some parts are normal, others are small
achondroplasia…conversion of hyaline cartilage to bone is abnormal and long bones stop growing in childhood

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20
Q

achondroplastic dwarfism-disproportionate

A

short stature but normal head and trunk size

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21
Q

temporomandibular joint syndrome

A

improperly aligned teeth, grinding or clenching teeth, trauma to head and neck or arthritis
-dull pain around ear, tenderness of jaw muscles, clicking/popping noise when opening or closing mouth

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22
Q

celft palate

A

incomplete fusion of the palatine bones, failure to unite maxillary bones during week 10-12 of embryonic development
surgical fix 12-18 months of age

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23
Q

cleft lip

A

split in upper lip
surgical fix after the first few weeks after birth

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24
Q

what vitamin decreases the incidence of cleft palate and cleft lip

A

folic acid (vitamin b)

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25
Q

sinusitis-caused, what is it, treatment

A

inflammation of the mucous membrane of one or more paranasal sinuses
-caused by microbial infection(virus, bacteria, fungus), allergic reactions, nasal polyps, deviated nasal septum
-treatments: decongestant sprays/drops, oral decongestants, nasal corticosteroids, antibiotics, analgesics, warm compresses, surgery

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26
Q

caudal anesthesia

A

relieves pain during labour, injected in the lower portion of the spinal cord
- acts of sacral and coccygeal nerves injected through sacral hiatus

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27
Q

most common chest injury and how do they happen, why cant they be bound by bandages

A

rib fractures
direct blows…impact of steering wheels, falls and crushing injuries to chest
-would casue pneumonia that would results from lack of proper lung ventilation

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28
Q

what is one of the most common broken bones, how does it happen, how to treat

A

fractured clavicle
- mechanical force transmitted from upper limb to clavicle, a blow to the superior part of anterior thorax
- figure 8 sling to immobilize arm

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29
Q

carpal tunnel syndrome-what is it, causes what

A

narrowing of carpal tunnel, median nerve is compressed
causes pain, numbness, tingling, weakness in hand

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30
Q

pelvimetry what is it, what gets planned if too small

A

measurement of the size of the inlet and outlet of the birth canal by ultrasonography or physical examination.
cesarean section is planned if too small for birth of baby

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31
Q

patellofemoral stress syndrome, known as, what is it. causes

A

runner knee
normal tracking does not occur, patella tracks laterally, superiorly and inferiorly, increased pressure on the joint so aching or tenderness around or under patella happens
-causes: walking, running, jogging on same side of road, running on hills, running long distance, knock-knee (anatomical deformity)

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32
Q

shin splints-what, cause

A

soreness or pain along the tibia
inflammation of the periosteum due to repeated tugging of attached muscles and tendons-walking, running up and down hills

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33
Q

flatfoot-what, causes, can cause

A

medial longitudinal arch decreases or falls
-causes: excessive weight, postural abnormalities, weakened supporting tissues, genetic predisposition
-can cause inflammation of deep fascia…plantar fasciitis, Achilles tendinitis, shin splints, stress fractures, bunions, calluses

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34
Q

where is the needle inserted in a spinal tap, what does it take and why position the patient like that

A

-subarachnoid space
- withdraws cerebrospinal fluid for diagnostic purposes
- patient lies on their side with vertebral column flexed so that theres easy access to the subarachnoid space without the risk of damaging the spinal cord

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35
Q

what can cause a reflex to be absent or abnormal

A

damage or disease anywhere along the reflex arc

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36
Q

what does the absence of a patellar reflex indicate

A

damage of the sensory or motor neurons, spinal cord injury in lumbar region

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37
Q

what does the absence of a normal pupillary light reflex indicate

A

brain damage or injury

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38
Q

how are somatic reflexes tested for

A

tapping or stroking the body surface

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39
Q

hydrocephalus- what is it, what intervention is needed, occurs when

A

elevated csf pressure due to an excess csf accumulation in the ventricles
- surgeons need to add a shunt
-occurs: after head injury, meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage. needs immediate intervention and is life threatening

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40
Q

injury to medulla

A

can be fatal-blow to the back of the head or upper neck
nonfatal- paralysis, loss of sensation for opposite side of the body, irregularities in breathing or heart rhythm
- alcohol overdose also suppresses medullary rhythmically area and may results in death

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41
Q

ataxia-what is it and how can it occur

A

damage to cerebellum that results in a loss of ability to coordinate muscular movements
-can occur as a result of a degenerative disease (multiple sclerosis, parkinsons), trauma, brian, tumors, genetic factors, side effects of bipolar disorder meds

42
Q

chronic traumatic encephalopathy-what is it, with who, symptoms

A

progressive, degenerative brain disorder caused by concussions and other repeated head injuries…common in hockey, football players and boxers
symptoms: memory loss, confusion, impulsive or erratic behaviour, impaired judgment, depression, paranoia, agression, difficulty with motor and balance skills

43
Q

most common brain disorder

A

cerebrovascular accident (CVA) aka stroke or brain accident

44
Q

what causes cerebrovascular accident

A

death of brain cells due to lack of oxygen

45
Q

ischemic stroke

A

type of stroke that kills brain cells due to a blood clot and is 85% of all strokes

46
Q

hemorrhagic stroke

A

15% of all strokes
leaky or ruptured vessel, overtreatment of anticoagulants and weak spots in blood vessels (aneurysms) cause this type of stroke

47
Q

brain cells without oxygen for 4-6 mins die at a rate of about

A

1,900,000 per minute

48
Q

the longer a stroke goes untreated

A

the greater potential for more brain damage and disability

49
Q

signs of a stroke

A

weakness or paralysis on one side of body, trouble speaking/understanding, visual problems, headache

50
Q

treatment for an ischemic stroke

A

meds that dissolve clots or prevent the formation of new ones: aspirin, heparin, clot-dissolving drug called tissue plasminogen activator
- remove plaque from carotid arteries
- placing stents in arterioles

51
Q

treatment for hemorrhagic stroke

A

meds that dissolve/prevent clots and procedures that repair weakened/rupture blood vessels

52
Q

what is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)

A

ministroke
blood clot that blocks the blood supply to the brain usually due to atherosclerosis

53
Q

aphasia

A

injury to the language areas of the cerebral cortex, an inability to use or comprehend words

54
Q

damage to the broca’s speech area results in

A

nonfluent aphasia…inability to form words

55
Q

damage to Wernicke’s area results in

A

fluent aphasia…characterized by faulty understanding of spoken or written words

56
Q

flaccid paralysis

A

damage or disease of lower motor neurons on the same side of body

57
Q

spastic paralysis- what is it and what happens

A

injury or disease of upper motor neurons in the cerebral cortex removes the inhibitory influences of some of these neurons on lower motor neurons on opposite side of body
-muscle tone increased, reflexes are exaggerated and pathological reflexes appear

58
Q

cardiopulmonary resuscitation

A

-emergency procedure for establishing a normal heartbeat and rate of breathing
- after calling 911, chest compressions should be administered
- 100 chest compressions per minute
-saves 20% more lives than the standard method(chest compression and mouth to mouth)

59
Q

coronary artery disease

A

effects of the accumulation of atherosclerotic plaques in coronary arteries which leads to a decrease in blood flow to the myocardium

60
Q

CAD- atherosclerosis

A

progressive disease characterized by the formation in the walls of large and medium-sized artery lesions called atherosclerotic plaques
-LDLs promote production of atherosclerosis

61
Q

CAD: c-reactive proteins CRP

A

proteins produced by the liver or present in blood in an inactive form that are converted to an active form during inflammation.
direct role in production of atherosclerosis by promoting uptake of LDLs by macrophages

62
Q

lipoprotein-CAD

A

LDL like particle that binds to epithelial cells, macrophages and blood platelets, may promote the proliferation of smooth muscle fibers and inhibits breakdown of blood clots

63
Q

fibrinogen-CAD

A

glycoprotein involved in blood clotting that may help regulate cellular proliferation, vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation

64
Q

homocysteine

A

amino acid that may induce blood vessel damage by promoting platelets aggregation and smooth muscle proliferation

65
Q

coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)

A

surgical procedure in which a blood vessel from another part of the body is attached to a coronary artery to bypass an area of blockage

66
Q

nonsurgical procedure used to treat CAD

A

percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). uses balloon catheter and places a shent via catheter

67
Q

stenosis- heart valve disorder

A

narrowing of a heart valve opening that restricts blood flow

68
Q

insufficiency or incompetence

A

failure of a valve to close completely

69
Q

mitral insufficency

A

scar formation or a congenital defect causes narrowing of the mitral valve

70
Q

mitral valve prolapse

A

backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium

71
Q

aortic stenosis

A

aortic valve is narrowed

72
Q

aortic insufficiency

A

backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle

73
Q

reperfusion

A

the reestablishment of blood flow after a blockage of the coronary artery

74
Q

free radical

A

have unpaired electrons, unstable and highly reactive

75
Q

artificial pacemaker

A

normal heart rhythm can be restored and maintained by surgically implanting device that sends out small electrical currents to stimulate the heart to contract

76
Q

heart murmur- what is it, what does it indicate

A

abnormal sound consisting of a clicking, rushing, gurgling noise that is heard before, between or after the normal heart sounds
-often indicate a valve disorder

77
Q

congestive heart failure (CHF)

A

heart is a failing pump
-causes: coronary artery disease, long-term high blood pressure, myocardial infarction, valve disorders

78
Q

pulmonary edema-chf

A

fluid accumulation in the lungs that can lead to suffocation

79
Q

peripheral edema- chf

A

swelling in the feet and ankles

80
Q

varicose veins

A

leaky venous valves that cause veins to be dilated and twisted in appearance
-varicose veins in anal canal are hemorroids
- bleeding esophageal varices are life threatening…from chronic liver disease

81
Q

treatment for varicose veins

A

elastic stockings…for mild symptoms
sclerotherapy…injection damages tunica interna by producing a harmless superficial thrombophlebitis (inflammation involving a blood clot)
radiofrequency endovenous occlusion-heat up and close off varicose veins
laser occlusion- laser shuts veins
stripping- surgical procedure where veins are removed

82
Q

baroreceptor reflexes

A

counteract things ex if you stand up too quickly and theres a drop in your blood pressure then it counteracts this

83
Q

peritonitis

A

acute inflammation of peritoneum, results from surgical wounds in abdominal wall or perforation/rupture of abdominal organs bc contain microbes

84
Q

gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

A

when the lower esophageal sphincter doesn’t close fully and the stomach refluxes up and hcl irriates the esophageal wall…heartburn

85
Q

vomiting-what, can lead to

A

forcible expulsion of the contents of the upper GI tract through the mouth
-alkalosis (higher than normal blood ph), dehydration, damage to esophagus and teeth

86
Q

pancreatic cancer-why is it nearly always fatal and who does it effect mostly

A

-symptoms don’t appear until the cancer reaches a severe stage and has metastasized
- males over 50

87
Q

gallstones

A

bile containing insufficient bile salts or lecithin or excessive cholesterol and it crystallizes

88
Q

if you have a history of gallstones what procedure is necessary and why

A

cholecystectomy-removes gallbladder and contents

89
Q

liver function test- what, monitors what

A

blood tests designed to determine the presence of certain chemicals (enzymes and proteins) released by liver cells
-monitors: liver damage/disease

90
Q

lactose intolerance-what is a concern that they arent getting enough of

A

people who lack the enzyme lactase and cant breakdown disaccharide lactose
-calcium and vitamin d

91
Q

kidney transplant-what, recieves, careful of, takes

A
  • transfer of a kidney from a living donor cadaver to a recipient whose kidney(s) no longer function
  • receives one because kidney can maintain sufficient renal function with just one
  • must be careful about signs of infections, rejection and must take immunosuppressive drugs fro the rest of their life
92
Q

oliguria-why and what

A

when glomerular filtration slows
daily output of urine is 50-250ml

93
Q

anuria-why and what

A

when glomerular filtration slows
urine output is less than 50ml

94
Q

glucosuria-what is it, what causes it

A

glucose remains in urine
- diabetes mellitus-blood glucose level is far above normal because of insulin deficiency

95
Q

polyuria-what is it, accompanies, symptom of

A

excessive excretion of urine
accompanies glucosuria
symptom of diabetes

96
Q

diuretics

A

substances that slow reabsorption of water by the kidneys and cause diuresis, an elevated urine flow rate
- caffeine, alcohol

97
Q

diabetes insipidus

A

ADH (antidiuretic hormone)
secretion is inadequate and person pees up to 20L of dilute urine daily

98
Q

hemodialysis-when is it necessary, what is it, what machine used, what is the leading cause of renal failure, how long and how often

A

when a person’s kidneys can only function at 10-15% of their capacity
process that removes wastes and excess fluids from the blood and restores electrolyte balance in order to maintain homeostasis
-leading cause of renal failure: diabetes
- kidney dialysis machine
3-5 hours, 3 times per week

99
Q

what does a kidney dialysis machine do

A

monitors blood flow, blood pressure, fluid volume, vital info

100
Q

dialyzer

A

artificial kidney, equivalent to nephrons
removes wastes and excess fluid and restores the proper balance of electrolytes in the blood

101
Q

peritoneal dialysis - what is it, how often, where does stuff flow to

A

procedure that uses the lining of the abdominal cavity called the peritoneum as the selectively permeable membrane
- wastes and excess fluid and electrolytes flow from blood to dialysate
-4-6 times per day

102
Q

cystoscopy- what is it, what does it find

A

direct examination of the mucosa of the urethra and urinary bladder and prostate in males
-finds urinary problems ex cancer and infections and figure out how big an obstruction is

103
Q

urinary incontinence-what is it, who is more likely to develop this, most common type

A

a lack of voluntary control over micturition
-smokers are twice as likely to develop this
- stress incontinence-physical stress ex pregnancy, laughing, straining, lifting heavy objects etc

anatomy and physiology (18 decks)

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