Clefydau Heintus Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components of the sepsis six?

A

Out
Lactate, blood culture, urine output
In
Broad spectrum antibiotic, O2, fluids

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2
Q

Most common organisms causing food poisoning?

A

Campylobacter (uncooked meat)
Salmonella (uncooked meat, raw egg, milk)
Listeria (chilled ready meals e.g. Sandwitches)

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3
Q

What is the first line treatment of uncomplicated cellulitis in a patient with no allergies?

A

Flucloxacillin the first line antibiotic for cellulitis most likely caused by Staph. aureus and Streptococci. It is very active against Staphylococcus aureus. Give clarithromycin if allergic to penicillin

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4
Q

What antibiotic is strongly associated with C.difficlie infection and why?

A

Clindomycin, as in addition to its activity against Staphylococci and Streptococci it is also active against most gut anaerobes except for C. difficile.

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5
Q

What is topical treatment for impetigo?

A

Fusidic Acid

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6
Q

What antibiotics are suitable for treatment of MRSA?

A

Vancomycin, doxycycline, linezolid and teicoplanin

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7
Q

Surgical debridement is only curative treatment for which type of infection

A

Necrotising fasciitis

It’s a medical emergency. Even with prompt treatment mortality is 10-30%. Antibiotics only supportive

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8
Q

If wounds is infected, has a foul discharge and on palpation, the surrounding tissue is very tender and crepitus is felt what is diagnosis?

A

Gas gangrene. This is medical emergency similar to necrotising fasciitis which similar treatment

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9
Q

What organism commonly causes gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfingens. Incubation period 2-3 days

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10
Q

Define antigenic drift and antigenic shift?

A

Antigenic drift – gradual accumulation of mutations that change the surface antigens and make the virus less susceptible to the antibodies produced during previous infections.
Antigenic shift – two or more strains combine to form a new subtype with surface antigens that humans have not encountered previously.

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11
Q

What is treatment for severe community acquired pneumonia?

A

Co-amoxiclav 1.2 gram TDS and Clarithromycin 500 mg BD IV

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12
Q

What is treatment for at risk person exposed to influenza

A

Prophylactic Oseltamivir 75 mg PO od for 10 days

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13
Q

What are key features of infection in immunocompromised patients?

A

Common pathogens can cause more severe infections.
Less virulent organisms can cause infections in these patients.
Severe infections can present with mild symptoms

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14
Q

What is treatment for amoebic liver abscess?

A

Metronidazole for 7-10 days is the main treatment. This is followed up with a lumen active agent (to target the Amoebic cysts), such as paromomycin or diloxanide furoate. Drainage of the abscess is not necessary unless there are significant complications.

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15
Q

What is causative organism for amoebic liver abscess?

A

The parasite is transmitted via the faecal oral route. Incubation periods can vary from weeks to years, but patients usually present at around 12 weeks from infection

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16
Q

What are serology test results for Hep A and Hep B immune patient?

A

Antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs)

Hepatitis A virus IgG

17
Q

What are serology test results for Hep B and Hep C exposed patients?

A

Antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc)

Hepatitis C antibody

18
Q

What are the serology test results for Hep B and Hep A infection?

A

Hepatitis A virus IgM

Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)

19
Q

What is the most characteristic features of mumps?

A

Parotitis (inflammatiin of parotid gland) causibg ear ache and pain on eating, fever, malaise

20
Q

What is the treatment for non-falciparum malaria?

A

Chloroquine

21
Q

Which hepatitis cannot be vaccinated against?

A

Hep C

22
Q

What organism classically causes pneumonia in alcoholics?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

23
Q

What pneumonia organism commonly causes hyponatraemia and lymphopenia?

A

Leigonella pneumophillia

24
Q

What is heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) used to diagnose?

A

Infectious mononucleosis

25
Q

What infection causes fat malabsorption, therefore greasy stool can occur. It is resistant to chlorination, hence risk of transfer in swimming pools.

A

Giardia Lamblia

26
Q

What is the most common neurological infection seen in HIV?

A

Cerebral toxoplasmosis, seen as multiple ring enhancing lesions on CT brain

27
Q

What is a psoas cyst?

A

A cyst in the psoas muscle, The psoas muscle extends from T12 - L5 caudally, inserting on the lesser trochanter of the femur. It can be of primary origin or a result of spread from local sources such as pyelonephritis or inflammatory bowel disease

28
Q

What is most likely causative organism for psoas cyst?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

29
Q

What are they symptoms of psoas cyst?

A

Psoas irritation is evidenced when the patient lies on their back with slightly flexed knees. Inability to weight bear or pain when moving the hip is usually evident.

30
Q

What organism is commonly associated with gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

31
Q

What is the causative organisms for Lyme Disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi is the causative organism in Lyme disease. Transmission to humans is by bites from the Ixodes tick, common in North America