Cleaning, Disinfection, and Sterilization Flashcards

1
Q

Process of appraisal that considers the value and significance of quality, cost, safety, and practitioner choice for product selection

A

Product evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the benefits of product evaluation

A
  1. Systematic product review and value analysis
  2. Inventory control
  3. Product standardization
  4. Cost control through competitive pricing
  5. Influencing purchasing agreements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the joint commission’s infection prevention requirement for product evaluation

A

Facility must limit transmission of infections associated with the use of medical equipment devices and supplies and the infection preventionist must participate in product evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How can IPs get the information needed to review products?

A

Attend conferences
Review evidence-based practices in the literature
Review product materials
Network with colleagues
Review current guidelines
Critically evaluate clinical studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the primary objective for product evaluation programs

A

To select and purchase products that meet specific performance criteria, contributes a good patient outcomes, meet safety requirements, and are cost effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the process for product evaluation

A
  1. Need for a product is identified
  2. Develop functional product specifications
  3. Research the product
  4. Review potential safety and IP implications
  5. Develop product trial protocol
  6. Conduct product trial
  7. Evaluate trial results
  8. Present to PEC for final decision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe training and competence of new products

A
  • ensure appropriate training and personnel with all products and equipment- conduct post implementation surveillance to ensure ongoing competence, proper use, and intended outcomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Application of a product for a purpose that’s not included in approved device labeling

A

Off label use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the FDA review and approval structure for medical devices?

A

Pre-market approval (PMA) + pre-market notification (510k) = FDA designates labeled or indicated use of product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is one common off label product use?

A

Reprocessing single use devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What organization oversees reprocessing of single use devices?

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the process for reprocessing a single-use device so that it can be patient ready?

A

Decontamination
Functional testing
Repackaging
Relabeling
Sterilizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A device intended for one use on a single patient during a single procedure

A

Single use device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who determines if a product should be labeled as single use?

A

The manufacturer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What class of devices presents the lowest potential risk to the patient and carries the least regulation?

A

Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What class of medical device poses the greatest potential risk and requires the greatest regulation?

A

Class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What typically prompts consideration of reprocessing and reuse of single-use devices?

A

Cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who should be involved in decisions to reprocess single-use devices?

A

Infection prevention
Hospital administration
Supply chain administrator
Liability insurance carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Should healthcare facilities reprocess single-use devices on site?

A

No CMS recommends using a third party because most of their facilities do not have what is needed to reprocess single use devices to regulatory standards of the FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How should IP be involved with selecting the third party reprocessor for single use devices

A
  • review FDA approval of the 510k application
  • conducting on-site visit to review policies and observe cleaning and decontamination inspection testing and sterilization
  • review quality control records
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The process of removing visible dirt, organic material, and debris from surfaces and objects

A

Cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The process of killing or inctivating microorganisms on surfaces and objects

A

Disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Destroys all microorganisms including bacterial spores

A

Sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the three categories of medical equipment under the Spaulding classification system

A
  1. Critical
  2. Semi-critical
  3. Non-critical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What did AAMI add as the fourth category for classifying medical equipment?

A

Environmental surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Spalding classification in which the medical equipment enters tissue and must be sterile

A

Critical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Spalding classification in which the medical equipment contacts mucous membranes and requires high level disinfection

A

Semi- critical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Spalding classification in which medical equipment comes in contact with intact skin and requires low level disinfection

A

Non-critical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are examples of critical medical equipment in the Spaulding classification?

A

Surgical instruments
Cardiac and urinary catheters
Implants
Ultrasound probes used in sterile body cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the minimum reprocessing requirement for critical equipment?

A

Sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are examples of semi critical equipment?

A

Respiratory therapy and anesthesia equipment
Scopes
Esophageal manometry probes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the minimum reprocessing requirement for semi critical equipment

A

High level disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are examples of non-critical medical equipment items?

A

Blood pressure cuff
Stethoscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the minimum reprocessing requirement for non-critical items?

A

Low level disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is always required before disinfection and or sterilization?

A

Cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where does cleaning begin

A

Point of use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the first step to cleaning?

A

Remove gross debris and keep the medical equipment moist prior to transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Is open but unused equipment contaminated?

A

Yes, it needs to be reprocessed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How should reusable items be transported from the point of use to the reprocessing area?

A

In closable, puncture resistant, leak proof containers that are properly marked as biohazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

This reduces the bioburden and removes foreign material such as organic residue and inorganic salts that interfere with the sterilization process by acting as a barrier to the sterilization agent

A

Cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is used to clean with friction?

A

Brushes based on the manufacturers instruction for use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

This is used to remove soil and debris from internal channels after brushing and when the design does not allow the passage of a brush through a channel

A

Fluidics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How to load medical equipment into washers

A

Open hinged instruments
Do not stack
Disassemble as much as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where are contaminated items cleaned?

A

Decontamination area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is used to clean and decontaminate equipment?

A

Water and detergents or enzymatic cleaners
Brushes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Type of cleaning used when the area does not have a mechanical unit or for fragile or difficult to clean instruments

A

Manual cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What cleaning methods are important for manual cleaning?

A

Friction and fluidics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Fluids under pressure to clean

A

Fluidics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If using automated washers what steps are still needed before loading the equipment?

A

Pre-cleaning and decontamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the types of automated washers?

A
  1. Ultrasonic cleaners
  2. Washer decontaminators
  3. Washer disinfectors
  4. Washer sterilizers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

This automated washer cleans by cavitation

A

Ultrasonic cleaner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

This automated washer cleans like a dishwasher

A

Washer decontaminator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

This automated washer is computer controlled

A

Washer disinfectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

This automated washer is a modified steam sterilizer

A

Washer sterilizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When using a washer disinfector, care should be taken as to the method of.. ?

A

Loading instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What PH is best choice for cleaning instruments?

A

Neutral or near neutral pH detergent solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Adding_____ assist in the removal of organic material

A

Enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

These cleaning agents maybe used because they dissolve protein and fat residues

A

Alkaline based cleaning agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

This is a non-enzyme option that’s just as effective as enzymatic cleaners

A

Hydrogen peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are some special considerations for using enzymatic cleaning solutions?

A

-they are not disinfectants and may be inactivated by germicides
- they must be rinsed from equipment or adverse reactions could result
- used in accordance with manufacturers instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the best solution option for a cleaning solution for delicate medical instruments, especially flexible endoscopes?

A

Neutral pH detergent solutions that contain enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the concern with alkaline based cleaning agents?

A

They are corrosive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Process for keeping away disease-producing microorganisms

A

Asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Use of sterile technique to prevent the transfer of any organisms from one person to another or from one body site to antoher

A

Surgical asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Practice interventions that reduce the number of microorganisms

A

Medical asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Practices aimed at reducing the microbial flora on the hands

A

Hand hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Antimicrobial substance applied to the skin to reduce microbial flora

A

Antiseptic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Practices designed to render and maintain objects maximally free from microoganisms

A

aseptic technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When should aseptic technique always be used?

A

When placing invasive devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What types of barriers are used in aseptic technique?

A

sterile gloves
Sterile gowns
Masks
Sterile drapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Practices designed to reduce the number of microorganisms

A

Clean technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When is clean technique used?

A

Wound care
Placement of IV devices (such as peripheral venous catheters)
Respiratory suctioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What type of gloves may be used for clean technique?

A

Clean gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What type of glove should always be worn for sterile dressing applications

A

sterile gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the best technique to dress a wound?

A

No touch dressing technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Glove type for wound cleaning

A

Clean glove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Supplies/ Instrumentation for wound cleaning

A

-Normal saline or prepared sterile wound cleaner
-Irrigation sterile device with clean technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Glove type for dressing change without debridement

A

Clean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Supplies/ instrumentation for wound cleaning without debridement

A

-Sterile supplies with clean technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Glove type for dressing change with debridement

A

Clean gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Supplies/ instrumentation for dressing change with debridement

A

sterile supplies with clean technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Type of glove for dressing change with sharp, conservative bedside debridement

A

Sterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Supplies/ instrumentation for dressing change with sharp, conservative bedside debridement

A

-sterile supplies and sterile technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Glove type for central line dressing change

A

Sterile for removing and new sterile for placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Supplies and instrumentation for central line dressing change

A

sterile dressing change kit
Sterile technique
Surgeon mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Glove type for trachestomy care or suctioning within a closed sheath

A

Clean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Supplies/ instrumentation for tracheostomy care or suctioning within a closed sheath

A

sterile supplies with clean technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

glove type for tracheal suctioning not within a closed sheath

A

Sterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Supplies/ instrumentation for tracheal suctioning not within a closed sheath

A

Sterile suction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Environmental control strategies for surgical asepsis outside of the OR: Room specicic

A
  • Use special treatment or operating room
  • keep doors closed
  • use ventilation
  • use barriers
90
Q

Environmental control strategies for surgical asepsis outside of the OR: related to activity around the setting

A
  • manage activity to reduce airborne transmission of bedside procedures
  • Divert traffic in open units
  • Exclude visitors and unnecessary personnel
  • avoid cleaning activities in the area
91
Q

Area surrounding site of the incision or perforation into tissue, or the site of introduction of an instrument into a body orifice that has been prepared for an invasive procedure

A

Sterile field

92
Q

Methods to maintain sterile field in the OR- sterile items

A

-sterile drapes and drape accessories to cover items in the field
- sterile gloves
- sterile gowns
- sterile attire for staff

93
Q

Maintaining sterile field in the Or: related to ventilation

A
  • Higher air exchanges
  • positive pressure room
  • air duct filters with routine changes
  • temp + humidity control
94
Q

OR Attire

A
  • freshly laundered scrubs
  • head and facial hair covering
  • Clean shoes
  • Masks
  • impervious or fluid-resistant barriers
  • may also need face and eye protection
95
Q

When is hand hygiene performed in ORs?

A
  • before donning sterile gloves
96
Q

What should be used for HH in ORs?

A

Antiseptic or antiseptic soap

97
Q

Goal of this is to remove soil and microorganisms living on the patient’s skin before surgery

A

Surgical skin antisepsis

98
Q

How to use antiseptic agents

A

Follow the manufactuers directions for use

99
Q

What are examples of skin antiseptics?

A

Chlorhexidine gluconate
povidone iodine in alcoholic or acqeous solutions

100
Q

Sterile packages should always:

A
  • maintain sterile packaging/ container integrity
  • inspect before use and inspect for signs of contamination
101
Q

How to transfer sterile equipment into sterile field

A

aseptically

102
Q

Areas responsible for reprocessing instrumentation and other resuable medical devices

A

sterile processing

103
Q

Includes handling, collecting, transporting, sorting, dissassembling, cleaning, disinfecting, inspecting, packaging, sterilization, sorting, and distributing equipment and supplies

A

Sterile processing

104
Q

Goal of this is to provide safe, functional and sterile instruments and medical devices to reduce the risk for HAIs

A

Sterile processing

105
Q

Organizations involved with regulations, guidelines, and standards of sterile processing

A
  • OSHA
    -EPA
    -FDA
    -HICPAC
    -TIR (Tech Info Reports)
    -AORN (perioperative nurses)
    -Society of gastroenterology nurses and ass
  • facilities guideline institutes
106
Q

Where does reprocessing begin?

A

Point of use

107
Q

What is the point of use end user responsible to do for sterile processing?

A

Remove gross soil and debris and discard of soaking liquids using PPE

108
Q

Container needed for transport of soiled equipment to sterile processing

A

puncture resistant
leakproof
sealable
Labeled biohazard

109
Q

What agency regulates transport of contaminated material to an off-site sterile processing center?

A

US Department of Transportation
+ state regs

110
Q

Physical environment of sterile processing: floors, walls, ceiling

A

nonparticulate or nonfibrous shedding material

111
Q

Physical environment of sterile processing: ceilings

A

Flush surface with enclosed fixtures

112
Q

Physical environment of sterile processing: work surfaces

A

Covered with nonporous material

113
Q

Physical environment of sterile processing: Eyewash/ shower equipment

A

available with 10 seconds travel time

114
Q

Physical environment of sterile processing: Physical barrier

A

between the decontamination area and work area where clean or sterilization procedures are carried out

115
Q

Safety requirements for Sterile Processing staff- what to wear and not to wear

A
  • wear surgical attire (scrubs) and dedicated shoes
  • cover head and facial hair
  • no jewelry on hands or wrists
  • no nail polish or artificial nails
  • Proper use of PPE
116
Q

What does effectiveness of cleaning used items depend on?

A
  • appropriate detergent or enzymatic cleaner
  • acceptable washing method
  • proper rinsing and drying
  • correct use of mechanical cleaning equipment
  • operator performance
117
Q

What should personnel follow when completing the cleaning process for sterile processing?

A

Always follow manufactuerer’s written IFUs

118
Q

the sterile processing physical environment should be as clean as the ___

A

OR

119
Q

What do AAMI and AORN recommend about the location/ locations of sterile processing?

A

centralize to one location

120
Q

Things to consider for the size of the central processing area

A
  • volume
  • processes
  • types of services provided
  • amount of equip needed
121
Q

What does the decontamination area need to have in sterile processing?

A

decontamination area
? Mistake

122
Q

What are the sink requirements for sterile processing?

A

36 inches from the floor
8-10 inches deep

123
Q

What are the air requirements for central processing?

A

Move from clean side to the decontamination side

124
Q

What are the temperature and humidity requirements for sterile processing?

A

Follow ANSI/ ASHRAE/ ASHE Standard 170

125
Q

when is manual cleaning recommended?

A
  • delicate medical devices
126
Q

What do you need to do the instruments before manual cleaning

A

open and disassemble all instruments

127
Q

Details about brushes for manual cleaning methods

A

use brushes of the appropriate type, size, and bristle material

128
Q

What does selection of the proper cleaning solution depend on:

A
  • type of debris or soil left on items
  • length of time between use and cleaning
  • compatibility of cleaning product with the item being cleaned
  • point at which the product makes items safe for handling
129
Q

Manual cleaning solution specifics: measure

A

use a measuring device to ensure appropriate dilution calculated for the volume of the sink

130
Q

Manual cleaning solution specifics: temp

A

Record the temperature of the soaking solution and the time instruments are soaked

131
Q

Manual cleaning solution specifics: when to change cleaning solution

A

After every use

132
Q

Manual cleaning solution specifics: rinse

A

Rinse with tap water to remove residue

133
Q

Manual cleaning solution specifics: final rinse

A

Final rinse for semi-critical and critical items is with critical water

134
Q

Who makes the specs for critical water?

A

AAMI TIR34

135
Q

What is more consistent and reliable: mechanical or manual cleaning?

A

Mechanical

136
Q

Where should equipment for automated or semi-automated cleaning and rinsing processes be located?

A

Decontamination area

137
Q

When using mechanical cleaning methods, it’s important to follow the IFUs for both…

A

cleaning equipment and cleaning for each specific device

138
Q

___________ equipment is essential and should be thoroughly documented

A

Monitoring

139
Q

These cleaners use sound waves to remove particles

A

Ultrasonic cleaners

140
Q

What are ultrasonic cleaners meant for?

A

Fine cleaning

141
Q

How often do ultrasonic cleaners need to be emptied, cleaned, disinfected, rinsed and dried?

A

At least daily

142
Q

How often should the cleaning solution be changed for ultrasonic cleaners?

A

After each use

143
Q

How often are cavitation and soil tests to assess the equipments performance carried out?

A

Daily

144
Q

These cleaners make automated processes that combine all the steps of cleaning and disinfection into one

A

Washer-disinfectors and washer-decontaminators

145
Q

These automated cleaners destroy microorganisms so that instruments are decontaminated and safe to handle OR for patient care

A

Washer disinfectors/ washer decontaminators

146
Q

When can equipment from washer disinfectors/ washer decontamintors be used?

A

Immediately depending on intended use and the manufacturer’s IFU

147
Q

How often should equipment performance be tested for washer-disinfectors/ washer-decontaminators?

A

each day it’s used and all results should be recorded

148
Q

These automated cleaners are designed to clean and provide low-to-intermediate level thermal disinfection

A

Cart washer-disinfectors

149
Q

What does the cart-washer disinfector cycle consist of?

A

Wash
thermal rinse
Drying phase

150
Q

These two items on a cart-washer-disinfector should be checked at this interval

A

Sprayers and drain screens
daily

151
Q

disinfection process using contact with hot water for at least 30 minutes

A

Pasteurization

152
Q

What is an alternative disinfection method for respiratory therapy and anesthesia equipment

A

Washer-pasteurizer

153
Q

What should be monitored in the washer-pasteurizer?

A

Temperature of final rinse

154
Q

Designed to clean and/or disinfect endoscopes and components

A

Automatic endoscope reprocessors (AER)

155
Q

What kind of solution do automatic endoscope reprocessors use?

A

liquid chemical sterilant or high-level disinfection solution

156
Q

Liquid chemical sterilant in automatic endoscope reprocessors (AER) provides…

A

Microbial kill

157
Q

These reduce the risk that users will be exposed to toxic substances through endoscope

A

Automatic Endoscope Reprocessors

158
Q

Automatic endoscope reprocessors allow for more ____ and _____ disinfection

A

Automatic endoscope reprocessors
MISTaKE card

159
Q

How often should testing devices be used on automatic endoscope reprocessors

A

At least weekly

160
Q

How often should the minimum recommended or minimum effective concentration of disinfectant for AERs be tested?

A

Before each use

161
Q

How often should the AER cycle parameters be checked?

A

Beginning and end of each cycle

162
Q

What is the final step in the manual or mechanical cleaning process?

A

cleaning verification

163
Q

What is a resource for cleaning verification and soil markers?

A

ANSI/ AAMI ST7 D.3

164
Q

What needs to be established for cleaning verification?

A
  1. cleaning benchmarks
  2. Cleaning policies
  3. procedures for verification of cleaning efficacy
165
Q

Where should inspection of equipment occur for cleaning verification?

A

Decontamination area or in packaging and assembly area

166
Q

What to look for during inspection of equipment

A

Proper function
Defects
All soil removed

167
Q

Issues to resolve for release: cutting surfaces

A

Sharpness

168
Q
A
169
Q

Issues to resolve for release: powered equipment

A

Functionality

170
Q

Issues to resolve for release: gaskets, latching mechanisms, mechanical valve function, sealed rivets, and screws in sterilization containers

A

integrity

171
Q

Issues to resolve for release: woven and nonwoven wraps and peel pouches

A

Defects and debris

172
Q

HLD in SP: Documentation: lot number

A

document assigned lot number of the soaking container or processor

173
Q

HLD in SP: Documentation: contents

A

Document contents of lot (quantity, department, and description of items)

174
Q

HLD in SP: Documentation: patient info

A

Patient’s name and record # if available

175
Q

HLD in SP: Documentation: HCP info

A

Procedure
Physician
Serial # or item identifyer

176
Q

HLD in SP: Documentation: Solution

A

HLD solution specifics

177
Q

HLD in SP: Documentation: exposure phase

A

Date/ time cycle
Exposure time and temp
chemical concentration

178
Q

HLD in SP: Documentation: operator

A

Initials

179
Q

HLD in SP: Documentation: test strip

A

results of solution test strip

Any inconclusive or nonresponsive solution test strip testing

180
Q

How often do AAMI and AORN recommend the appropriate solution test strip or other FDA- cleared device be used to test the concentration of the HLD solution?

A

Before each use

181
Q

When to discard solution

A

If test strip indicated inadequate concentration of active ingredient

if inspection shows precipitates

182
Q

How to monitor manual cleaning processes?

A

Thermometer and timer

183
Q

After decontamination, this happens and should be physically separated from decontamination area

A

preparation and packaging

184
Q

What type of airflow should be used in preparation and packaging?

A

Down-draft airflow

185
Q

How to reduce lint accumulation in preparation and packaging area

A

-enclosed,separate space
-Air flows downward
- enough air exchanges per hour

186
Q

when are peel pouches recommended?

A

When visibility of the packaged item is important

187
Q

Types of packaging material

A

Sterilization wraps (woven or nonwoven)

188
Q

When packaging materials the correct ___ and ______ of folds and the ____ of wraps are critical

A

order* and direction* of folds
number of wraps

189
Q

What may be used on wrapped packs or trays for impervious protection?

A

Sterility maintenance covers

190
Q

When selecting a peel pouch, the product should be specific for the type of _____ used

A

Sterilant

191
Q

These contain a known number of microorganisms, of known resistance to the mode of sterilization

A

Biological indicator (BI) process challenge device (PCD)

192
Q

This is used routinely to monitor sterilizer efficacy and perform qualification testing of sterilizers

A

process challenge device

193
Q

What should each sterile package label contain?

A
  • sterilizer ID number
    -cycle and lot numbers
  • date of processing
    -Expiration date
194
Q

ANSI and AAMI standards dictate this about sterile product traceability

A

Able to trace the implant or reprocessed device to specific patients based on load records

195
Q

Guidelines for sterilization area design

A

ANSI/ AAMI ST79

196
Q

This organization regulates control of occupational exposure to ethylene oxide, formaldehyde, and other contaminants in sterile processing

A

OSHA

197
Q

What determines the selection of the sterilization method?

A
  • turnaround needs
  • volume
  • Equipment compatibility with sterilization method
  • space
198
Q

When can immediate use steam sterilization be used?

A

urgent clinical situation and only if recommended on manufacturer’s IFU

199
Q

What are the different ways to monitor the sterilization process?

A
  • Physical monitors
  • chemical indicators
  • biological indicators
  • process challenge devices
  • documentation of results
200
Q

Why monitor every load for sterilization?

A
  • detect operator errors
  • ensure each cycle type and implant loads are monitored
  • simplify staff training
  • provide universal standard for pt care
201
Q

These are the first step in verification of the sterilization process and are used to monitor and document each load’s parameters

A

Physical monitors

202
Q

The indicators are used to detect potential sterilization process failures and there are 6 types

A

Chemical indicators

203
Q

What is the type 1 chemical indicator?

A

process indicator

204
Q

What is the type 2 chemical indicator?

A

Bowie Dick

205
Q

What is the type 3 chemical indicator?

A

Single critical process

206
Q

What is the type 4 chemical indicator?

A

Multicritical process

207
Q

What is the type 5 chemical indicator?

A

Integrating indicators

208
Q

What is the type 6 chemical indicator?

A

Emulating indicators

209
Q

This chemical indicator ensures that all air is removed from the sterilizer and there are no air leaks in the system

A

Bowie-Dick-Testing

210
Q

These chemical indicators check whether a package has been processed or exposed to the sterilization process

A

external chemical indicators

211
Q

This chemical indicator is used for pack control to determine that the sterilant penetrated

A

Internal chemical indicator

212
Q

These indicators directly monitor the lethality of a given sterilization process

A

Biological indicator

213
Q

How do biological indicators work?

A

Each day that a test BI is incubated, a positive control BI from same lot number as the test BI should be used in each incubator or autoreader

214
Q

Product recall process if the processing failure is confined to one load or one item in the load

A

Correct the cause of the failure
Reprocess the load or the item

215
Q

Product recall if the error is not immediately identifiable

A
  • Recall all items since the last negative BI
216
Q

Guidelines for action to take with BIs, CIs, or Physical monitors indicate failure

A

ANSI/ AAMI ST79 13.7.5

217
Q

Where should sterile equipment storage area be located?

A

Adjacent to sterilization area

218
Q

What are the specs for storing sterile items?

A
  • 18 inches below ceiling/ sprinkler head
  • 8-10 inches above floor
  • at least 2 inches from outside walls
  • only on designated shelving, counters, or carts
  • on closed or covered shelving to minimize dust
    -restricted
219
Q

How long are items considered sterile?

A

sterile unless integrity of the packaging is compromised

220
Q

What conditions can alter the integrity of the sterile packaging?

A
  • Env sources of contamination
  • barrier properties of packaging materials
  • storage and distribution processes
  • stacking sterile items
    -inventory control
  • freq of handling
221
Q

what should sterile devices be transported on?

A

Completely enclosed storage compartment, separated from contaminated items

222
Q
A
223
Q
A