Chemotherapeutic Agents Pt. 2 and 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The exact mechanism of action is unknown.

A

Pyrazinamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

May be bacteriostatic or bactericidal, depending on its concentration at the infection site and on the susceptibility
of the infecting organism

A

Pyrazinamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pyrazinamide
Contraindications and cautions

A

a. Contraindicated in clients with hypersensitivity
b. Used with caution in clients with diabetes mellitus, renal impairment, or gout, and in children
c. May decrease the effects of allopurinol, colchicine, and probenecid
d. Cross-sensitivity is possible with isoniazid, ethionamide, or nicotinic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pyrazinamide
Side and adverse effects

A

a. Increases liver function tests and uric acid levels
b. Arthralgia, myalgia
c. Photosensitivity
d. Hepatotoxicity
e. Thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Inhibits mycobacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and suppresses protein synthesis

A

Rifabutin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Used to prevent disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease in clients with advanced HIV infection

A

Rifabutin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Used to treat active MAC disease and tuberculosis in clients with HIV infection

A

Rifabutin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rifabutin
Cautions

A

a. Can affect blood levels of some medications, including oral contraceptives and some medications used to treat HIV infection
b. A nonhormonal method of birth control should be used instead of an oral contraceptive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Used only for pulmonary tuberculosis

A

Rifapentine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Can affect blood levels of some medications, including oral contraceptives and warfarin, and some medications used to treat HIV infection

A

Rifapentine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rifapentine
Side and adverse effects

A

a. Red-orange–colored body secretions
b. Hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a. Mechanism of action is unknown.
b. Used to treat MDR-TB when significant resistance to other medications is expected
c. Administered intramuscularly

A

Capreomycin sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Capreomycin sulfate
Contraindications and cautions

A

a. The risk of nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and neuromuscular blockade is increased with the use of aminoglycosides or loop diuretics.
b. Used with caution in clients with renal insuf ficiency, acoustic nerve impairment, hepatic disorder, myasthenia gravis, or parkinsonism
c. Not administered to clients receiving streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Capreomycin sulfate
Side and adverse effects

A

a. Nephrotoxicity
b. Ototoxicity
c. Neuromuscular blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

OTHER ANTIBIOTICS

A

Ketolide
- telithromycin
Lincosamides
- clindamycin
- lincomycin
Lipoglycopeptides
- televacin
Macrolides
- azithromycin
- clarithmycin
- arythromycin
Monobactam
- aztreonam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

binds to specific ribosome subunits, leading to cell death in susceptible bacteria, which includes several strains resistant to other antibiotics

A

Telithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

KETOLIDES
PHARMACOKINETICS

A
  • It is rapidly absorbed through the GI tract, reaching peak levels in 1 hour.
  • distributed, may cross the placenta, and does pass into breast milk.
  • metabolized in the liver with a half-life of 10 hours.
  • excreted in the urine and feces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

KETOLIDES
CONTRAINDICATION AND CAUTIONS:

A
  • known allergy to any component of the drug or to macrolide antibiotics
  • known congenital prolonged QT interval, bradycardia, or any proarrhythmic condition with myasthenia gravis, which is a black box warning with this drug
  • Use with caution in cases of renal or hepatic impairment
  • Use with caution with pregnant and lactating patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

KETOLIDES
ADVERSE EFFECTS:

A
  • GI tract: nausea, vomiting, taste alterations, and the potential for pseudomembranous colitis.
  • Superinfections
  • Serious hypersensitivity reactions, including anaphylaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

react at almost the same site in bacterial protein synthesis

A

LINCOSAMIDES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

These drugs are used in the treatment of severe infections when a less-toxic antibiotic cannot be used.

A

LINCOSAMIDES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

LINCOSAMIDES
PHARMACOKINETICS

A
  • are rapidly absorbed from the GI tract or from IM injections
  • metabolized in the liver and excreted in the urine and feces.
  • cross the placenta and enter breast milk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

LINCOSAMIDES
CONTRAINDICATIONS AND CAUTIONS

A
  • with caution in patients with hepatic or renal impairment,
  • Use during pregnancy and lactation only if the benefit clearly outweighs the risk to the fetus or neonate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

LINCOSAMIDES
ADVERSE EFFECTS:

A
  • with caution in patients with hepatic or renal impairment,
  • Use during pregnancy and lactation only if the benefit clearly outweighs the risk to the fetus or neonate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

are semisynthetic derivatives of vancomycin

A

LIPOGLYCOPEPTIDES (TELEVANCIN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by interfering with the polymerization and cross-linking of peptidoglycans

A

LIPOGLYCOPEPTIDES (TELEVANCIN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

They bind to the bacterial membrane and disrupt the membrane barrier function causing bacterial cell death

A

LIPOGLYCOPEPTIDES (TELEVANCIN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

It is only approved for use in treating complicated skin and skin-structure infections in adults

A

LIPOGLYCOPEPTIDES (TELEVANCIN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

LIPOGLYCOPEPTIDES (TELEVANCIN)
PHARMACOKINETICS

A
  • available as an IV drug only.
  • It is rapidly absorbed with peak levels occurring at the end of the infusion.
  • The drug is widely distributed, may cross the placenta, and may pass into breast milk.
  • Its site of metabolism is not known; It has a half-life of 8 to 9 hours.
  • It is excreted in the urine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

LIPOGLYCOPEPTIDES (TELEVANCIN)
CONTRAINDICATIONS AND CAUTIONS

A
  • contraindicated with known allergy to any component of the drug
  • Black Box Warning with pregnant and lactating patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

LIPOGLYCOPEPTIDES (TELEVANCIN)
ADVERSE EFFECTS:

A
  • nausea, vomiting, taste alterations, diarrhea, loss of appetite, and risk of C. difficile diarrhea.
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • There is a risk of prolonged QTc interval.
  • A transfusion reaction called red man syndrome with flushing, sweating, and hypotension can occur with rapid infusion.
  • Infusion site reactions with pain and redness.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

are antibiotics that interfere with protein synthesis.

A

MACROLIDES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Macrolides include

A

erythromycin (Ery-Tab, Eryc, and others), azithromycin (Zithromax), clarithromycin (Biaxin), and dirithromycin (Dynabac).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

may be bactericidal or bacteriostatic, exert their effect by binding to the bacterial cell membrane and changing protein

A

MACROLIDES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

MACROLIDES
PHARMACOKINETICS

A
  • are widely distributed throughout the body; they cross the placenta and enter the breast milk
  • absorbed in the GI tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Erythromycin
PHARMACOKINETICS

A

metabolized in the liver, with excre tion mainly in the bile to feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Azithromycin and clarithromycin
PHARMACOKINETICS

A

mainly excreted unchanged in the urine, making it necessary to monitor renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Dirithromycin
PHARMACOKINETICS

A

converted from the prodrug dirithromycin to erythromycylamine in the intestinal wall and excreted through the feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MACROLIDES
CONTRAINDICATIONS AND CAUTIONS:

A
  • contraindicated in patients with a known allergy to any macrolide
  • Ocular preparations are contraindicated for viral, fungal, or mycobacterial infections of the eye
  • Use with caution in patients with hepatic dysfunction,renal disease, pregnant and lactating women
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

MACROLIDES
ADVERSE EFFECTS:

A
  • abdominal cramping, anorexia, diarrhea, vomiting, and pseudomembranous colitis.
  • Other effects include neurological symptoms such as confusion, abnormal thinking, and uncontrollable emotions
  • hypersensitivity reactions ranging from rash to anaphylaxis
  • superinfections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

structure is unique, and little cross-resistance occurs

A

aztreonam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

It is effective against gram-negative enterobacteria and has no effect on grampositive or anaerobic bacteria.

A

MONOBACTAM (AZTREONAM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

disrupts bacterial cell wall synthesis, which promotes leakage of cellular contents and cell death in susceptible bacteria

A

MONOBACTAM (AZTREONAM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The drug is indicated for th treatment of urinary tract, skin, intra-abdominal, and gynecological infections, as well as septicemia.

A

MONOBACTAM (AZTREONAM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

MONOBACTAM (AZTREONAM)
PHARMACOKINETICS

A
  • Aztreonam is available for IV and IM use only
  • half-life is 1.5 to 2 hours.
  • The drug is excreted unchanged in the urine.
  • It crosses the placenta and enters breast milk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MONOBACTAM (AZTREONAM)
CONTRAINDICATIONS AND CAUTIONS

A
  • contraindicated with any known allergy to aztreonam.
  • Use with caution in patients with a history of acute allergic reaction to penicillins or cephalosporins
  • caution with renal or hepatic dysfunction and in pregnant and lactating women
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

MONOBACTAM (AZTREONAM)
ADVERSE EFFECTS

A
  • The adverse effects associated are relatively mild.
  • Local GI effects include nausea, GI upset, vomiting, and diarrhea.
  • Hepatic enzyme elevations
  • Other effects include inflammation, phlebitis, and discomfort at injection sites, as well as the potential for allergic response, including anaphylaxis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

An infection caused by a fungus is called a

A

mycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Fungi differ from bacteria in that the fungus has a _______________________ that is made up of _______________________________________ and a _________________that contains ___________________.

A

rigid cell wall; chitin and various polysaccharides; cell membrane; ergosterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

resistant to antibiotics

A

ANTI-FUNGAL AGENTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

a large group of antifungals used to treat systemic and topical fungal infections

A

AZOLE ANTIFUNGALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

AZOLE ANTIFUNGALS include

A

fluconazole (Diflucan), itraconazole (Sporanox), ketoconazole (Nizoral), posaconazole (Noxafi l), terbinafi ne (Lamisil), and voriconazole (Vfend)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

bind to sterols and can cause cell death (a fungicidal effect) or interfere with cell replication (a fungistatic effect)

A

AZOLE ANTIFUNGALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ketoconazole
PHARMACOKINETICS

A

absorbed rapidly from the GI tract, and metabolized in the liver and excreted through the feces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Fluconazole
PHARMACOKINETICS

A

reaches peak levels within 1 to 2 hours after administration, excreted unchanged in the urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Itraconazole
PHARMACOKINETICS

A

slowly absorbed from the GI tract and is metabolized in the liver, excreted in the urine and feces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Posaconazole
PHARMACOKINETICS

A

given orally, has a rapid onset of action, metabolized in the liver and excreted in the feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Terbinafine
PHARMACOKINETICS

A

rapidly absorbed from the GI tract, extensively metabolized in the liver, and excreted in the urine with a half-life of 36 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Voriconazole
PHARMACOKINETICS

A

reaches peak levels in 1 to 2 hours if given orally, and metabolized in the liver with a half-life of 24 hours and is excreted in the urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

AZOLE ANTIFUNGALS
CONTRAINDICATIONS AND CAUTIONS

A
  • Contraindicated with patients with hepatic failure
  • Use in caution for liver and renal impairment
  • Should not be used in pregnancy and lactating mothers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

AZOLE ANTIFUNGALS
ADVERSE EFFECTS:

A
  • Many of the azoles are associated with liver toxicity
  • can cause severe effects on a fetus or a nursing baby.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

ECHINOCANDIN ANTIFUNGALS include

A

anidulafungin, caspofungin, and micafungin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

work by inhibiting glucan synthesis.

A

ECHINOCANDIN ANTIFUNGALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

is an enzyme that is present in the fungal cell wall but not in human cell walls

A

Glucan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

PHARMACOKINETICS
Anidulafungin

A
  • is given as a daily IV infusion for at least 14 days.
  • metabolized by degradation and excreted in the feces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Caspofungin
PHARMACOKINETICS

A
  • is available for IV use.
  • slowly metabolized in the liver and bound to protein and widely distributed throughout the body excreted through the urine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

PHARMACOKINETICS
Micafungin

A
  • is an IV drug
  • It has a rapid onset
  • excreted in the urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

CONTRAINDICATIONS AND CAUTIONS:
Anidulafungin

A
  • may cross the placenta and enter breast milk
  • should not be used by pregnant or lactating women.
  • Caution must be used in the presence of hepatic impairment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Caspofungin
CONTRAINDICATIONS AND CAUTIONS:

A
  • can be toxic to the liver;
  • embryotoxic in animal studies, great caution during pregnancy and lactation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Micafungin
CONTRAINDICATIONS AND CAUTIONS:

A

should be used during pregnancy and lactation only if the benefits clearly outweigh the risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

ECHINOCANDIN ANTIFUNGALS
ADVERSE EFFECTS:

A
  • hepatic toxicity
  • Potentially serious hypersensitivity reactions
  • bone marrow suppression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

OTHER ANTIFUNGALS

A

amphotericin B (Abelcet, AmBisome, Amphotec), fl ucytosine (Ancobon), griseofulvin (generic), and nystatin (Mycostatin, Nilstat).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

TOPICAL ANTIFUNGALS Examples:

A

ketoconazole ( Nizoral,), sertaconazole nitrate (Ertaczo),
sulconazole (Exelderm), terbinafine (Lamisil),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Fungi that cause mycoses

A

DERMATOPHYTES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

mycoses include tinea infections such as

A
  • athlete’s foot (tinea pedis),
  • jock itch (tinea cruris),
  • yeast infections of the mouth and vagina often caused by
    Candida
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

work to alter the cell permeability of the fungus, causing prevention of replica and fungal death

A

TOPICAL ANTIFUNGALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

TOPICAL ANTIFUNGALS
PHARMACOKINETIC

A

These drugs are not absorbed systemically and do not undergo metabolism or excretion in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

TOPICAL ANTIFUNGALS
CONTRAINDICATIONS AND CAUTIONS

A

contraindications are limited to a known allergy to any of these drugs and open lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

TOPICAL ANTIFUNGALS
ADVERSE EFFECTS

A

local effects include irritation, burning, rash, and swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

single-celled organisms that pass through several stages in their life cycles

A

Protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

thrive in tropical climates, but may also survive and reproduce in any area where people live in very crowded and unsanitary conditions.

A

Protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

protozoal infections that can be caused by insect bites:

A

malaria
trypanosomiasis
leishmaniasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

protozoal infections that result from ingestion

A

amebiasis
giardiasis
trichomoniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

is a parasitic disease through the bite of a female Anopheles mosquito, an insect that harbors the protozoal parasite

A

MALARIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

FOUR PROTOZOAL PARASITES:

A
  • Plasmodium falciparum
  • Plasmodium vivax
  • Plasmodium malariae
  • Plasmodium ovale
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

is considered to be the most dangerous type of protozoan.

A

Plasmodium falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

causes a milder form of the disease, which seldom results in
death.

A

Plasmodium vivax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

is endemic in many tropical countries and causes very mild signs and symptoms in the local population

A

Plasmodium malariae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

which is rarely seen, seems to be in the process of being eradicated

A

Plasmodium ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

are usually given in com bination form to attack the Plasmodium.

A

ANTI-MALARIALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

ANTI-MALARIALS drugs can be:

A
  • schizonticidal
  • gametocytocidal
  • sporontocidal
  • schizonts as prophylactic or antirelapse agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

-acting against the red-blood-cell phase of the life cycle

A

schizonticidal

93
Q

acting against the gametocytes

A

gametocytocidal

94
Q

acting against the parasites that are developing in the mosquito

A

sporontocidal

95
Q

work against tissue

A

schizonts as prophylactic or antirelapse agents

96
Q

is currently the mainstay of antimalarial therapy

A

Chloroquine

97
Q

directly toxic to parasites that absorb it; it is acidic, and it decreases the ability of the parasite to synthesize DNA, leading to a blockage of reproduction.

A

Chloroquine

98
Q

increases the acidity of plasmodial food vacuoles, causing cell rupture and death.

A

Primaquine

99
Q

is used in combination to suppress malaria; it acts by blocking the use of folic acid in protein synthesis by the Plasmodium

A

Pyrimethamine

100
Q

inhibits nucleic acid synthesis, protein synthesis, and glycolysis in P. falciparum.

A

Quinine

101
Q

ANTI-MALARIALS
PHARMACOKINETIC

A

Generally metabolized in the liver
Excreted in the urine

102
Q

ANTI-MALARIALS
CONTRAINDICATIONS AND CAUTIONS:

A
  • allergy to any of these drugs;
  • liver disease
  • alcoholism
  • lactation
  • avoided during pregnancy
  • Use caution in patients with retinal disease
103
Q

ANTI-MALARIALS
ADVERSE EFFECTS

A
  • Central nervous system (CNS) effects include headache and dizziness.
  • Immune reaction effects related to the release of merozoites fever, shaking, chills, and malaise
  • Nausea, vomiting,
  • dyspepsia
  • anorexia
  • Hepatic dysfunction
  • Dermatological effects include rash, pruritus, and loss of hair
  • Cinchonism (nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and vertigo) may occur with high levels of quinine or
    primaquine.
104
Q

an intestinal infection caused by Entamoeba histolytica, is often known as amebic dysentery

A

Amebiasis

105
Q

Early signs of amebiasis include

A

mild to fulminate diarrhea

106
Q

Two stages of Amebiasis:

A
  • Cystic, dormant stage
  • Trophozoite stage
107
Q

the protozoan can live for long periods outside the body or in the human intestine

A

Cystic, dormant stage

108
Q

in the ideal environment—the human large intestine

A

Trophozoite stage

109
Q

is a disease caused by a protozoan that is passed from sand fl ies to humans

A

Leishmaniasis

110
Q

fly injects an asexual form of this flagellated protozoan and digested by human macrophages.

A

promastigote

111
Q

formed inside the macrophages as the promastigote divides

A

promastigote

112
Q

can cause serious lesions in the skin, the viscera, or the mucous membranes of the host.

A

amastigotes

113
Q

is caused by infection with Trypanosoma

A

Trypanosomiasis

114
Q

caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense, (transmitted by the tsetse fly)

A

African sleeping sickness

115
Q

invades the CNS, leading to an acute inflammation that results in lethargy, prolonged sleep, and even death.

A

African sleeping sickness

116
Q

which is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi

A

Chagas’ disease

117
Q

This protozoan results in a severe cardiomyopathy that accounts for numerous deaths and disabilities in South American regions.

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

118
Q

is a common cause of vaginitis

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

119
Q

caused by Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Trichomoniasis

120
Q

This infection is usually spread during sexual intercourse

A

Trichomoniasis

121
Q

In women, causes reddened, inflamed vaginal mucosa, itching, burning, and a yellowish-green discharge

A

Trichomoniasis

122
Q

caused by Giardia lamblia, which survive outside the body and allow transmission through contaminated water or food, and trophozoites

A

Giardiasis

123
Q

Diarrhea, rotten egg–smelling stool, and pale and mucus-filled stool are commonly seen.

A

Giardiasis

124
Q

is an endemic protozoan that does not usually cause illness in humans.

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci i

125
Q

immune system becomes suppressed because of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) or AIDS-related complex

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia

126
Q

Other antiprotozoals include

A
  • atovaquone (Mepron)
  • metronidazole (Flagyl, MetroGel, Noritate)
  • nitazoxanide (Alinia)
  • pentamidine (Pentam 300, NebuPent)
  • tinidazole (Tindamax)
127
Q

act to inhibit DNA synthesis in susceptible protozoa, interfering with the cell’s ability to reproduce, subsequently leading to cell death.

A

OTHER PROTOZOAL AGENTS

128
Q

infections in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract or other tissues due to worm infestation

A

HELMINTHIC INFECTIONS

129
Q

two types of HELMINTHIC INFECTIONS due to worm
infestation:

A

the nematodes (or roundworms)
the platyhelminths (or flatworms)

130
Q

remain in intestine (Helminth Infections)

A

Pinworms

131
Q

attach to wall of colon (Helminth Infections)

A

Whipworms

132
Q

burrow into intestine; can enter lungs, liver, and other tissue

A

Threadworms

133
Q

burrow into intestine; enter the blood and infect lungs

A

Ascaris

134
Q

attach to the wall of the intestine

A

hookworms

135
Q

live in the intestine, ingesting nutrients from the host

A

cestodes

136
Q

TISSUE-INVADING WORM INFECTIONS

A
  • Trichinosis
  • Filariasis
  • Schistosomiasis
137
Q

is the disease caused by ingestion of the encysted larvae of the roundworm, Trichinella spiralis, in undercooked pork.

A

Trichinosis

138
Q

They can penetrate skeletal muscle and can cause an inflammatory reaction in cardiac muscle and in the brain

A

Trichinosis

139
Q

refers to infection of the blood and tissues of healthy individuals by worm embryos, which enter the body via insect bites.

A

Filariasis

140
Q

This may lead to severe swelling of the hands, feet, legs, arms, scrotum, or breast—a condition called elephantiasis

A

Filariasis

141
Q

is a platyhelminthic infection by a fluke that is carried by a snail

A

Schistosomiasis

142
Q

severe infestation may lead to abdominal pain and diarrhea, as well as blockage of blood fl ow to areas of the liver, lungs, and CNS.

A

Schistosomiasis

143
Q

act on metabolic pathways that are present in the invading worm but are absent or significantly different in the human host.

A

ANTI-HELMINTHIC DRUGS

144
Q

ANTI-HELMINTHIC DRUGS

A
  • albendazole (Albenza)
  • ivermectin (Stromectol)
  • mebendazole (Vermox)
  • praziquantel (Biltricide)
  • pyrantel (Antiminth, Pin-Rid, Pin-X, Reese’s Pinworm)
145
Q

PHARMACOKINETIC
Mebendazole

A

is not metabolized in the body, and most of it is excreted unchanged in the
feces. A small amount may be excreted in the urine

146
Q

Albendazole
PHARMACOKINETIC

A

is poorly absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized in the liver and primarily excreted in urine

147
Q

Ivermectin
PHARMACOKINETIC

A

readily absorbed from the GI tract. metabolized in the liver and excretion is through the feces

148
Q

Praziquantel
PHARMACOKINETIC

A

rapidly absorbed from the GI tract,metabolized in the liver and excretion through the urine

149
Q

Pyrantel
PHARMACOKINETIC

A

poorly absorbed, and most of the drug is excreted unchanged in the feces and some found in the urine

150
Q

ANTI-HELMINTHIC DRUGS
CONTRAINDICATIONS AND CAUTIONS

A
  • known allergy to any of these drugs
  • Pregnancy and lactation-Women of childbearing age should be advised to use barrier contraceptives while taking these drugs.
  • Pyrantel has not been established as safe for use in children younger than 2 years
  • Use caution in the presence of renal or hepatic disease
151
Q

ANTI-HELMINTIC DRUGS
ADVERSE EFFECTS

A
  • abdominal discomfort, diarrhea, or pain
  • headache and dizziness; fever, shaking, chills, and malaise
  • Renal failure and severe bone marrow depression are associated with albendazole
152
Q
  • particle is composed of a piece of DNA or RNA inside a protein.
  • replicates in the host cell.
A

Virus

153
Q

act to prevent the replication of that particular virus.

A

Interferons

154
Q

invade the respiratory tract and cause the signs and symptoms of respiratory “flu.

A

Influenza A, B and RSV

155
Q

Agents for Influenza A and Respiratory Viruses

A
  • amantadine
  • oseltamivir
  • ribavirin
  • rimantadine
  • zanamivir
156
Q

is the only antiviral agent that is effective in treating H1N1 and avian flu.

A

Oseltamivir

157
Q

AGENTS FOR INFLUENZA A AND RESPIRATORY VIRUSES
Pharmacokinetics

A

Generally absorbed in the GI and excreted through urine.

158
Q

AGENTS FOR INFLUENZA A AND RESPIRATORY VIRUSES
Contraindications and Cautions:

A
  • with caution in patients who have any renal impairment
  • Embryotoxic - should be used during pregnancy and lactation only if the benefi ts clearly outweigh the risks to the fetus or neonate.
159
Q

AGENTS FOR INFLUENZA A AND RESPIRATORY VIRUSES
Adverse Effects:

A
  • light-headedness
  • dizziness, and insomnia
  • nausea
  • orthostatic hypotension
  • urinary retention
160
Q

account for a broad range of conditions: cold sores, encephalitis,shingles,genital infections

A

Herpes viruses

161
Q

Herpes viruses account for a broad range of conditions:

A

cold sores, encephalitis,shingles,genital infections

162
Q

different since it can affect the eye, respiratory tract, and liver and reacts to many of the same drug.

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

163
Q

AGENTS FOR HERPES AND CYTOMEGALOVIRUS examples

A

acyclovir (Zovirax), cidofovir (Vistide), famciclovir (Famvir), foscarnet (Foscavir), ganciclovir (Cytovene), valacyclovir (Valtrex), and valganciclovir (Valcyte)

164
Q

AGENTS FOR HERPES AND CYTOMEGALOVIRUS
Pharmacokinetics

A
  • Most of the agents are readily absorbed and excreted through the kidney and remained unchained in the urine
  • It crosses into breast milk
165
Q

AGENTS FOR HERPES AND CYTOMEGALOVIRUS
Adverse Effects

A
  • nausea and vomiting
  • headache,
  • depression
  • paresthesias,
  • neuropathy,
  • rash
  • hair loss
  • Renal dysfunction and renal failure
166
Q

attacks the helper T cells (CD4 cells) within the immune system.

A

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

167
Q

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attacks the __________________________________________ within the immune system.

A

helper T cells (CD4 cells)

168
Q

causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and AIDSrelated complex (ARC), diseases that are characterized by the emergence of a variety of opportunistic infections and cancers.

A

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

169
Q

AGENTS FOR HIV AND AIDS
NONNUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS Includes:

A

delavirdine (Rescriptor), efavirenz (Sustiva), etravirine (Intelence), and nevirapine (Viramune) and rilpivirine (Edurant)

170
Q

They prevent the transfer of information that would allow the virus to carry on the formation of viral DNA. As a result, the virus is unable to take over the cell and reproduce

A

NONNUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS

171
Q

NONNUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS
Pharmacokinetics

A
  • generally absorbed directly in the GI tract
  • metabolized in the liver
  • Excreted through feces and urine
172
Q

NONNUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS
Contraindications and Cautions

A
  • There are no adequate studies of nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors in pregnancy,
    -use should be limited to situations in which the benefi ts clearly outweigh any risks.
173
Q

NONNUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS
Contraindications and Cautions

A
  • There are no adequate studies of nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors in pregnancy,
    -use should be limited to situations in which the benefi ts clearly outweigh any risks.
174
Q

NONNUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS
Adverse Effects

A
  • GI related—dry mouth, constipation or diarrhea, nausea, abdominal pain, and dyspepsia.
  • Dizziness, blurred vision, and headache
  • A flu-like syndrome of fever, muscle aches and pains, fatigue, and loss of appetite
175
Q

NUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS include the following agents:

A

abacavir (Ziagen), didanosine (Videx), emtricitabine (Emtriva), lamivudine (Epivir), stavudine (Zerit XR), tenofovir (Viread), and zidovudine (Retrovir).

176
Q

compete with the naturally occurring nucleosides within the cell that the virus would use to build the DNA chain. chain cannot lengthen and cannot insert and cannot reproduce.

A

NUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS

177
Q

NUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS
Pharmacokinetics

A
  • Generally absorbed in the GI tract
  • Metabolized in the liver
  • Excreted in the urine and feces
178
Q

is the only agent that has been proven to be safe when used during pregnancy and caution if with bone marrow supression

A

zidovudine

179
Q

used with caution in the presence of hepatic dysfunction or severe renal impairment

A

Tenofovir, zidovudine, and emtricitabine

180
Q

NUCLEOSIDE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE INHIBITORS
Adverse Effects

A
  • Serious-to-fatal hypersensitivity reactions (fever, chills, rash, fatigue, GI upset, flu-like symptoms)
  • Serious pancreatitis, hepatomegaly, and neurological problem
  • Severe hepatomegaly with steatosis
  • Severe bone marrow suppression
181
Q

PROTEASE INHIBITORS include:

A

atazanavir (Reyataz), darunavir (Prezista). fosamprenavir (Lexiva), indinavir (Crixivan), lopinavir (Kaletra), nelfi navir (Viracept), ritonavir (Norvir), saquinavir (Fortovase), and tipranavir (Aptivus).

182
Q

block protease activity within the HIV virus

A

PROTEASE INHIBITORS

183
Q

is essential for the maturation of an infectious virus; without it, an HIV is immature and noninfective.

A

Protease

184
Q

PROTEASE INHIBITORS
Pharmacokinetics

A
  • Generally absorbed in the GI tract
  • Metabolized in the liver
  • Excreted in the urine and feces
185
Q

PROTEASE INHIBITORS
ontraindications and Cautions

A
  • use during pregnancy should be limited
  • limited to situations in which the benefi ts clearly outweigh any risks
  • Use in caution with Hepatic Dysfunction
186
Q

PROTEASE INHIBITORS
Adverse Effects

A
  • GI effects, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, and changes in liver function
  • Elevated cholesterol and triglyceride levels
  • Rashes, pruritus, and the potentially fatal Steven–Johnson syndrome
187
Q
  • intended to target the abnormal cells that compose the neoplasm or cancer
  • unfortunately, normal cells also are affected
A

ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENTS

188
Q

start with a single cell that is genetically different from the other cells in the surrounding tissue. eventually producing a tumor or neoplasm .

A

Cancer

189
Q

2 TYPES OF CANCER:

A

SARCOMA
CARCINOMA

190
Q

originated from mesenchyme and are made up of embryonic connective tissue cells

A

SARCOMA

191
Q

originated from epithelial cells

A

CARCINOMA

192
Q

ALKYLATING AGENTS include:

A

altretamine (Hexalen), bendamustine (Treanda), busulfan (Busulfex, Myleran), carboplatin (Paraplatin), carmustine (BiCNU, Gliadel), chlorambucil (Leukeran), cisplatin (Platinol-AQ), cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan, Neosar)

193
Q

produce their cytotoxic effects by reacting chemically with portions of the RNA, DNA, or other cellular proteins, most potent when they bind with cellular DNA

A

ALKYLATING AGENTS

194
Q

These drugs are most useful in the treatment of slow-growing cancers such as various lymphomas, leukemias, myelomas, some ovarian, testicular, and breast Cancer

A

ALKYLATING AGENTS

195
Q

ALKYLATING AGENTS
Pharmacokinetics

A
  • They are metabolized and sometimes activated in the liver.
  • Excreted in the urine.
196
Q

ALKYLATING AGENTS
Contraindications and Cautions

A
  • contraindicated during pregnancy and lactation
    Caution to any individual with:
  • known allergy to any of them;
  • with bone marrow suppression
  • with suppressed renal or hepatic function
197
Q

ALKYLATING AGENTS
Adverse Effects

A
  • Hematological effects include bone marrow suppression, with leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia, and pancytopenia.
  • GI effects include nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea, and mucous membrane deterioration
  • Hepatic toxicity and renal toxicity
  • Alopecia, or hair loss
198
Q

ANTIMETABOLITES include

A

capecitabine (Xeloda), cladribine (Leustatin), clofarabine (Clolar), cytarabine (DepoCyt, Tarabine PFS), fl oxuridine (FUDR), fl udara bine (Fludara), fluorouracil (Adrucil, Carac, Efudex, Fluoroplex), gemcitabine (Gemzar), mercaptopurine (Purinethol), methotrexate (Rheumatrex, Trexall)

199
Q

inhibit DNA production in cells that depend on certain natural metabolites toproduce their DNA

A

ANTIMETABOLITES

200
Q

most effective in rapidly dividing cells, preventing cell replication, and leadingto cell death

A

ANTIMETABOLITES

201
Q

ANTIMETABOLITES
Pharmacokinetics

A
  • Generally absorbed in the GI tract
  • Metabolized in the liver
  • Excreted in the urine and feces
202
Q

ANTIMETABOLITES
Contraindications and Cautions

A
  • contraindicated during pregnancy and lactation
    Caution is necessary to any individual with:
  • known allergy
  • bone marrow suppression
  • with renal or hepatic dysfunction
  • with known GI ulcerations or ulcerative diseases
203
Q

ANTIMETABOLITES
Adverse Effects

A
  • Hematological effects include bone marrow suppres sion, with leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia, and pancytopenia,
  • Toxic GI effects include nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea, and mucous membrane deterioration
  • CNS effects include headache, drowsiness, aphasia, fatigue, malaise, and dizziness.
  • possible hepatic or renal toxicity,
  • Alopecia
204
Q

ANTINEOPLASTIC ANTIBIOTICS include:

A

bleomycin (Blenoxane), dactinomycin (Cosmegen), dau norubicin (DaunoXome), doxorubicin (Adriamycin, Doxil), epirubicin (Ellence), idarubicin (Idamycin), mitomycin (Mutamycin), mitoxantrone (Novantrone), and valrubicin (Valstar)

205
Q

break up DNA links, and others prevent DNA synthesis

A

ANTINEOPLASTIC ANTIBIOTICS

206
Q

are cytotoxic and interfere with cellular DNA synthesis by insert ing themselves between base pairs in the DNA chain

A

ANTINEOPLASTIC ANTIBIOTICS

207
Q

ANTINEOPLASTIC ANTIBIOTICS
Pharmacokinetics

A
  • Generally absorbed in the GI tract
  • Metabolized in the liver
  • Excreted in the urine and feces
208
Q

ANTINEOPLASTIC ANTIBIOTICS
Adverse Effects

A
  • bone marrow suppression
  • leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia, and pancytopenia
  • Toxic GI effects include nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea, and mucous membrane deterioration
  • renal or hepatic toxicity
  • Alopecia
209
Q

MITOTIC INHIBITORS include

A

cabazitaxel (Jevtana), docetaxel (Taxotere), etoposide (Toposar, VePesid), ixabepilone (Ixempra), paclitaxel (Abraxane, Onxol, Taxol), teniposide (Vumon), vinblastine (Velban), vincristine (Oncovin, Vincasar), and vinorelbine (Navelbine)

210
Q

interfere with the ability of a cell to divide; they block or alter DNA synthesis, thus causing cell death

A

MITOTIC INHIBITORS

211
Q

are used for the treatment of a variety of tumors and leukemias

A

MITOTIC INHIBITORS

212
Q

MITOTIC INHIBITORS
Pharmacokinetics

A
  • Generally, these drugs are given intravenously because they are not well absorbed from the GI tract
  • metabolized in the liver
  • excreted primarily in the feces
  • safer for use in patients with renal impairment
213
Q

MITOTIC INHIBITORS
Pharmacokinetics

A
  • Generally, given intravenously because they are not well absorbed from the GI tract
  • metabolized in the liver
  • excreted primarily in the feces
  • safer for use in patients with renal impairment
214
Q

MITOTIC INHIBITORS
Contraindications and Cautions

A
  • should not be used during pregnancy or lactation
    Use caution when giving to anyone with:
  • known allergy to the drug or related drugs
  • bone marrow suppression
  • renal or hepatic dysfunction
  • known GI ulcerations or ulcerative diseases
215
Q

MITOTIC INHIBITORS
Adverse Effect

A
  • bone marrow suppression
  • leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia, and pancytopenia
  • GI effects include nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea, and mucous membrane deterioration
  • Alopecia
  • necrosis and cellulitis if extravasation occurs
216
Q

HORMONES AND HORMONE MODULATORS include

A

anastrazole (Arimidex), bicalutamide (Casodex), degarelix (Degarelix for Injection), estramustine (Emcyt), exemestane (Aromasin), fl utamide (generic), fulvestrant (Faslodex), goserelin (Zoladex), histrelin (Vantas), letrozole (Femara), megestrol (Megace)

217
Q

are receptor-site specific or hormone specific to block the stimulation of growing cancer cells that are sensitive to the presence of that hormone

A

HORMONES AND HORMONE MODULATORS

218
Q

indicated for the treatment of breast cancer in postmenopausal women or in other women without ovarian function and some for prostatic cancers.

A

HORMONES AND HORMONE MODULATORS

219
Q

HORMONES AND HORMONE MODULATORS
Pharmacokinetics

A
  • readily absorbed from the GI tract
  • metabolized in the liver
  • excreted in the urine.
220
Q

HORMONES AND HORMONE MODULATORS
Contraindications and Cautions

A
  • contraindicated during pregnancy and lactation
  • Hypercalcemia is a contraindication to the use of toremifene
    Use caution when giving to an individual with:
  • known allergy to any of these drugs
  • bone marrow suppression
  • with renal or hepatic dysfunction
221
Q

HORMONES AND HORMONE MODULATORS
Adverse Effects

A
  • Menopause-associated effects include hot fl ashes, vaginal spotting, vaginal dry ness, moodiness, and depression.
  • bone marrow suppression
  • GI toxicity, including hepatic dysfunction.
  • Hypercalcemia d/t blockage of estrogen needed for calcium deposition
  • increase the risk for cardiovascular disease
221
Q

3 GROUPS OF DRUGS AVAILABLE )ANCER CELL–SPECIFIC AGENTS)

A
  1. protein tyrosine kinase inhibitors
  2. an epidermal growth factor inhibitor
  3. a proteasome inhibitor
222
Q

no devastating effects on healthy cells in the body and would be more effective against particular cancer cells.

A

CANCER CELL–SPECIFIC AGENTS

223
Q

act on specific enzymes that are needed for protein building by specific tumor cells and blocking of these enzymes inhibits tumor cell growth and division

A

PROTEIN TYROSINE KINASE INHIBITORS

224
Q

PROTEIN TYROSINE KINASE INHIBITORS include

A

include everolimus (Afinitor), gefitinib (Iressa), imatinib (Gleevec), lapatinib (Tykerb), nilotinib (Tasigna), pazopanib (Vorient), sorafenib (Nexavar), sunitinib (Sutent), and temsirolimus (Torisel).

225
Q

for chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML).

A

PROTEIN TYROSINE KINASE INHIBITORS

226
Q

PROTEIN TYROSINE KINASE INHIBITORS
Pharmacokinetics

A
  • Slowly absorbed by the GI
  • Metabolized by the liver
  • excreted through the feces
227
Q

PROTEIN TYROSINE KINASE INHIBITORS
Contraindications and Cautions

A
  • All of these drugs are in pregnancy category D.
  • Women of childbearing age should be advised to use barrier contraceptives while taking this drug.
  • only if the benefits to the mother clearly outweigh the risks to the baby
  • contraindicated with patients who have or who are at risk for prolonged QT intervals (hypokalemia, hypomagnesia,)