Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Additional CSO Cards > Chapter 9: Med onc > Flashcards

Chapter 9: Med onc Flashcards

1
Q

Vitamin B ___ can be provided @ ____ - ____ mg, 2-3x/day to reduce hand/foot syndrom

A

B6
50-100 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The American College of Surgeons ________ ___ _________ accredit oncology locations & specifies . They ensure patients have access to a full scope of care including RDN, either onsite or by referral.

A

Commission on Cancer (CoC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The American College of Surgeons Commission on Cancer recommends RDNs attend weekly __________ & represent at __________________ meetings

A

Tumor boards, cancer committee meetings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Antineoplastic therapies include (4):

A
  1. Chemotherapy
  2. Immunotherapy
  3. Targeted Therapy
  4. Hormone therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An oncologist prescribes cancer treatment according to _______________ OR _______ _____- guidelines

A

National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN), Clinical trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

3 branches of oncology include

A
  1. Medical Oncology
  2. Radiation Oncology
  3. Surgical Oncology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define tumor burden or tumor load

A

The size of tumor or amount of cancer in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F: Faster growing tumors respond better to therapy

A

True. As tumors increase in size the growth rate slows and reduces the effectiveness of cancer treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define tumor growth rate

A

The proportion of cancer cells within the tumor that are growing/dividing to form new cancer cells. Rapidly growing respond better to treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define Definitive Therapy

A

Use of radiation as the PRIMARY treatment, with or without chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define Palliation

A

Use of cancer treatment modalities when disease cure/control is not possible to relieve symptoms/side effects or improve QOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is zolendronic acid (aka Reclast)

A

A type of Bisphosphonate drug used to slow bone breakdown usually d/t bone mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Prevention versus Prophylactic therapy

A

Prevention uses medicine, other agents or surgery

Prophylactic uses radiation to relieve symptoms or prevent issues (i.e. prophylactic brain radiation w/ SCLC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chemotherapeutic agents interfere with _______________ to ultimately lead to cell death

A

Cell division, they work at different parts of the cell cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the 5 parts of the cell cycle

A

G0 - rest
G1 - postmitotic phase, synthesis RNA & protein
S - synthesis, make DNA
G2 - premitotic phase, prepare to divide
M - mitotic phase, stop growing and divides into 2 daughter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cell cycle non-specific agents damage drugs in all phases of the cell cycle. 4 classes are:

A
  1. Alkalyting agents
  2. Antitumor Antibiotics
  3. Hormone Therapies
  4. Nitrosureas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cell cycle-specific agents damage cells within specific parts of the cell cycle

A
  1. Camptothecins (s)
  2. Antimetabolites (s)
  3. Misc (misc)
  4. Plant alkaloids & taxanes (mitosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

3 factors used to determine a chemo prescription

A
  1. Frequency of cycles
  2. Length of cycles (minutes, hours, days)
  3. Number of cycles (per research)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define personalized or precision medicine

A

Uses a patients genetic information to prevent, diagnose, or treat cancer. Performed on a sample of the tumor to detect DNA mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define pharmacogenetics

A

The study of how a person’s genes affect the way the body responds to certain drugs

Looks at small variations within genes to determine of the drug activates or deactivates the gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Retuximab

What does it treat and what are the side effects?

A

Monoclonal antibody
C20
B-cell disease
Tumor lysis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome is electrolyte and renal abnormalities, what are the defining characteristics?

A

High phosh
High K+
Low Ca
High uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which monoclonal antibody causes decreased appetite & hypomagnesium?

A

Cetuximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pertuzumab, Trastuzumab, and Ado-trastuzumab target which gene?

A

ERBB2
(HER2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Monoclonal antibodies end in which 2 letters?

A

“ab”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are common side effects of monoclonal antibodies?

A

Skin reaction, infusion reaction, GI, pulmonary, cardiotoxicities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are common side effects of small molecule drugs?

A

Cardiotoxicities, skin reactions, GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Angioneogensis inhibitors fall under which drug category?

A

Targeted molecules, specifically small molecule drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

These are the 3 PD-1 targeted monoclonal antibodies

A

Pembrolizumab
Nivolumab
Impilimumab

29
Q

Denosumab (Xgeva)
What does it treat?
What class of drugs?
What are side effects?

A

Bone mets or osteoporosis
Monoclonal antibody
N/V/D
Hypocalcemia, Osteonecrosis of the jaw

30
Q

Pembrolizumab
What does it treat?
What class of drugs?
What are side effects?

A

PD-1 Monoclonal antibody
NSCLC, H&N, melanoma
Hyperglycemia, Hyponatremia, Hypoalbuminemia

31
Q

Nivolumab
What does it treat?
What class of drugs?
What are side effects?

A

PD-1 Monoclonal antibody
NSCLC, melanoma, renal cell
Colitis, constipation, N/V
Hyponatremia, Hypokalemia, Hymagnesimia

32
Q

Protein-targeted small molecule drugs end in which 2 letters?

33
Q

What are the 3 small molecule angiogenesis inhibitors?

A

Bevacizumab
Lenailidomide
Thalidomide

34
Q

Which chemo drugs requires avoidance of tyramine-rich food/drink?

A

Procarbazine

35
Q

Which chemo drug requires avoidance of dairy?

A

Mercaptopurine

36
Q

Which small molecule drug must you take with a low fat meal?

A

Regorafenib

37
Q

Which supplements should you take with Zoledronic Acid?

A

calcium & vitamin DC

38
Q

Can you crush Temozolomide?

39
Q

What should you avoid within 2 hours of taking Tamoxifen?

40
Q

What nutritional considerations should you take with Sipleucel-T? (2)

A

Drink extra water 2-3 days prior
Avoid caffeine

41
Q

Which 3 chemo drugs tend to cause hand/foot syndome?

A

Carboplatin
Fluorouracil
Oxaliplatin

42
Q

Mensa is given with these 2 chemo drugs d/t bladder toxicities

A

Cyclophosphamide
Ifosfamide

43
Q

You should avoid grapefruit juice and excess vitamin A with this chemo drug

A

Bexarotene

44
Q

Avoid alcohol with these 2 chemo drugs

A

Vincristine
Lomustine

45
Q

Cryotherapy during infusion can help prevent mucositis with boluses of these 2 chemo drugs

A

Fluorouracil & Melphelan

46
Q

What are potential side effects of angiogenesis inhibitors?

A

Hypertension, MI, stroke, nosebleeds, GI perforation

47
Q

2 specific side effects of Bevacizumab

A

Proteinuria (1/3 of pts)
Hypothyroidism

48
Q

Imatinib
What does it treat?
What class of drugs?
What are side effects?

A

CML
Small molecule tyrosine kinase inhibitor
Fluid retention/edema

49
Q

Temsirolimus & Everolimus are ___________ agents that treat _____________

A

Protein-targeted therapy
Renal cancer (and others)

50
Q

These 2 agents contain lactose, may require lactase enzyme

A

Deferasiox
Nilotinib

51
Q

These are the 5 categories of immunotherapy (not including monoclonal antibodies)

A
  1. Non-specific
  2. CAR-T cell
  3. Cancer vaccines
  4. Oncolytic viral therapies
  5. Cadiopharmaceuticals
52
Q

What are the 2 non-specific immunotherapies

A

Interferon & interlukin

Create a broad-based immune response rather than targeting certain genes

53
Q

T-VEC can be used to treat melanoma and is a ________ kind of therapy

A

Oncolytic viral therapy - genetically modified herpes simplex

54
Q

What kind of immunotherapy is sipuleucel-T?

A

Cancer vaccine used in hormone-refractory metastatic prostate cancer

55
Q

T-cell therapy has been used for treatment of (2)

A

B-cell lymphoma in adults & ALL in children

56
Q

How do SERMs work? What are the 3 agents?

A

Compete with estrogen for binding to receptors

Tamoxifen, Ruloxifen, Toremifene

57
Q

What are 5 side effects of SERMS?

A
  1. Blood clots
  2. Menstural symptoms
  3. Fluid retention
  4. Weight gain
  5. Increased risk for endometrial cancer
58
Q

How do aromatase inhibitors work? What are the 3 agents?

A

Block the conversion of androgen hormones to estogen. Anstrazole, Lestrozole, Exemestane

59
Q

Which aramotase inhibitor causes high cholesterol?

A

Lestrozole

60
Q

How do progresterones work and what is the primary one?

A

They reduce stability of estrogens, thus limiting their availability

Megestrol acetate -

61
Q

What are the 5 classes of hormone therapies?

A
  1. Serms
  2. Aromatase inhibitors
  3. Progesterones
  4. Anti-androgens
  5. Luteinizing hormone releasing hormone agonists
62
Q

How to anti-androgens work? What are the 2 main ones?

A

Bind to androgen receptors to prevent the effects of testosterone in androgen-sensitive prostate cancer cells

Bicalutamide
Flutamide

63
Q

Which 2 cancers are leutinizing hormone releasing hormone agaonists used to treat?

A

Prostate and ovarian

64
Q

How to lutenizing hormone releasing hormone agonists work?

A

Stops the pituitary gland to stop producing LH, which results in suppression of testosterone and estrogen

65
Q

What are the 2 LHRH agonist drugs?

A

Leuprolide
Goserelin

66
Q

These 2_______ supplements interfere with Tamoxifen while _________ supplement may improve its use

A

Sillymarin (Milk Thistle) & Black cohosh
Melatonin

67
Q

What’s the concern with Quercitin?

A

May bind with iron and increase risk for deficiency

68
Q

What makes ibritumomab unique?

A

Radiopharmaceutical used to treat lymphomas

(Combo of y90 + rituximab)

69
Q

Most oral chemo drugs should be taken on an empty stomach with the exception of these 3 that should be taken with food

A

Bexarotene
Imatinib
Capecitabine

Additional CSO Cards (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions