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Microbiology > Chapter 9 > Flashcards

Chapter 9 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

The science of heredity is also known as ______.

A

Genetics

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2
Q

Which term represents all of the genetic information within a cell?

A

Genome

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3
Q

Eukaryotic chromosomes are composed of ______.

A

DNA

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4
Q

The DNA of a chromosome is ______-stranded.

A

Double

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5
Q

Which of the following are parts of a nucleotide in DNA?

A

Deoxyribose sugar

Phosphate

Nitrogenous base

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6
Q

The study of the inheritance in living things is ______.

A

Genetics

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7
Q

Which component of DNA determines the 3’ and 5’ ends of the strands?

A

Carbons in the deoxyribose sugar

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7
Q

The building blocks of DNA structure are ______.

A

Nucleotides

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8
Q

The complete set of chromosomes and genes in an organism is referred to as the ______.

A

Genome

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9
Q

A discrete cellular structure composed of a neatly packaged DNA molecule is a(n) ______.

A

Chromosome

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10
Q

In DNA, a purine always combines with ______.

A

A pyrimidine

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11
Q

A DNA nucleotide is composed of a(n) ______, a(n) ______ sugar, and a(n) ______ base.

A

Phosphate; deoxyribose; nitrogenous

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12
Q

The basic unit of DNA structure is a(n):

A

Nucleotide

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13
Q

The purine nitrogenous bases found in DNA are guanine and ______.

A

Adenine

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14
Q

What is a true statement about the replication of cells and viruses?

A

The general process of replication is similar in cells and viruses.

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14
Q

A nucleotide is oriented 5’ or 3’ depending on the location of the ______ on the strand of DNA.

A

Deoxyribose carbons

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15
Q

Adenine pairs with ______ in DNA, whereas cytosine pairs with ______.

A

Thymine; guanine

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16
Q

DNA polymerase ______ is the main enzyme involved in the building of the new DNA chain, whereas DNA polymerase ______ is involved mostly with removing the primers and repairing damaged DNA.

A

III; I

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17
Q

The newly made double helices are composed of one parent template and one newly synthesized strand as a result of ______ replication.

A

Semiconservative

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18
Q

The place where DNA replication is initiated is called the ______.

A

Origin of replication

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19
Q

DNA polymerase ______ is the main enzyme responsible for building the DNA strand during DNA replication.

A

III

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20
Q

True or false: The process of replication is fundamentally different in prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells, and viruses.

A

False

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21
Q

The enzyme involved in replicating a new DNA strand is DNA polymerase ______, while DNA polymerase ______ is involved in removing the RNA primer, closing gaps, and repairing mismatched bases.

A

III; I

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22
Q

All new DNA strands are synthesized from:

A

5’ to 3’

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23
Q

Which is true regarding semiconservative DNA replication?

A

Each new DNA helix contains one parent strand and one newly synthesized strand.

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24
Q

The point on a replicating DNA molecule where the DNA polymerase synthesizes new strands of DNA is the replication ______.

A

Fork

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25
Q

DNA polymerase III is responsible for:

A

Building the DNA chain.

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26
Q

Which strand is replicated continuously, without segments, during DNA replication?

A

Leading

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27
Q

Which strand is replicated discontinuously in segments during DNA replication?

A

The lagging strand only

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28
Q

Nucleotides can only be added to a growing DNA chain in the ______ direction.

A

5’ to 3’

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29
Q

Fragments that are formed during DNA replication of the lagging strand are called ______ fragments.

A

Okazaki

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30
Q

The newly made double helices are composed of one parent template and one newly synthesized strand as a result of ______ replication.

A

Semiconservative

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31
Q

In E. coli, DNA polymerase I removes the ______ primers and replaces them with ______.

A

RNA; DNA

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32
Q

How many replication forks are formed when opening a section of a circular DNA molecule during replication of the bacterial chromosome?

A

2

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33
Q

Which best describes the flow of genetic information in a cell?

A

DNA encodes RNA which encodes protein

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34
Q

The term ______, or codon, is a sequence of 3 nucleotides in DNA that encodes an amino acid.

A

Triplet

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35
Q

How does RNA differ from DNA?

A

In RNA, uracil replaces thymine.

RNA is single-stranded.

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36
Q

The three types of RNA that are directly involved in making protein are ______ RNA, ______ RNA, and ______ RNA.

A

Messenger; transfer; ribosomal

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37
Q

DNA polymerase I works to ______ RNA primers from newly-synthesized DNA.

A

Remove

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38
Q

The flow of genetic information in a cell is a process starting with ______ which encodes ______ which encodes protein.

A

DNA; RNA (m)

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39
Q

In RNA, which nitrogenous base pairs with adenine?

A

Uracil

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40
Q

Which pentose sugar is found in DNA?

A

Deoxyribose

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41
Q

Unlike DNA, RNA contains the nitrogenous base ______.

A

Uracil

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42
Q

Which of the following types of RNA is the transcribed version of a structural gene in DNA, that is later read for translation into protein?

A

mRNA

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42
Q

Which pentose sugar is found in RNA?

A

Ribose

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43
Q

Which type of RNA comprises ribosomal subunits?

A

rRNA

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44
Q

Which of the following types of RNA delivers the amino acids to the growing peptide chain in translation?

A

tRNA

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45
Q

Which of the following are functions of RNA polymerase?

A

Unwinds the DNA so that transcription can take place

Synthesizes an RNA molecule from DNA template

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46
Q

The RNA form that contains the transcribed code for a protein from the original DNA strand is ______ RNA.

A

Messenger

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47
Q

To initiate transcription, RNA polymerase binds to the ______ region of DNA.

A

Promoter

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48
Q

Which is the correct order of events in transcription?

A

Initiation, elongation, termination

49
Q

The RNA type that transfers amino acids to the growing peptide chain in translation is ______ RNA.

A

Transfer

50
Q

RNA polymerase is guided to the correct position on the promotor by the ______ factor.

A

Sigma

51
Q

Two subunits of the ______ come together to perform protein synthesis.

A

Ribosome

52
Q

The main enzyme responsible for transcription is:

A

RNA polymerase

52
Q

The subunit of the ribosome that holds tRNAs and catalyzes peptide bond formation by means of a ribozyme is the ______ subunit.

A

Large

53
Q

In translation, mRNA is guided by the ______ and ______ sites on the large ribosomal subunit.

A

P; A

54
Q

RNA polymerase binds to which region of DNA to begin transcription?

A

Promoter

54
Q

The ______ of a tRNA is complementary to a(n) ______ of mRNA.

A

Anticodon; codon

55
Q

The sigma factor of bacterial RNA polymerase enables the enzyme to ______.

A

Recognize the promoter

56
Q

True or false: Several codons can code for the same amino acid, which is called the redundancy of the code.

A

True

57
Q

The mRNA sequence AUG, specifying the first amino acid in protein sequences, is called the ______ codon.

A

Start

58
Q

During translation initiation, the ______ ribosomal subunit binds to a specific site on the mRNA to start translation.

A

Small

59
Q

Events of translation

A
  1. The mRNA attaches to the ribosome.
  2. Two tRNA molecules bring amino acids to the ribosome
  3. A peptide bond forms between the amino acids
  4. The first tRNA exits at the E site
  5. The second tRNA shifts to the P site while the third tRNA enters the A site
  6. The process repeats with additional tRNA molecules
  7. A stop codon is encountered
60
Q

tRNA, that has released the amino acid it carried, leaves the ribosome through the ______ site.

A

E

61
Q

Some amino acids can be encoded by several different codons. For that reason, we say that the genetic code is ______.

A

Redundant/degenerate

62
Q

DNA sequences found within a gene that do not encode the protein corresponding to the gene are ______.

A

Intron

62
Q

If a codon of mRNA reads 5’-UUG-3’, the tRNA that delivers the amino acid to this location during translation will have an anticodon of 3’-______-5’.

A

AAC

63
Q

Which occur during posttranslational modification?

A

Proteins join with other proteins to form quaternary structures.

Cofactors are added to proteins destined to become enzymes.

Formyl-methionine is removed from the start of the polypeptide chain.

64
Q

The AUG codon of mRNA is associated with the amino acid methionine, but is also an indication to ______ translation.

A

Start

65
Q

Translation termination occurs when ______.

A

One of three stop codons is reached by the ribosome

66
Q

Which are components of an operon in a sequence of DNA?

A

Regulatory region

Structural genes

66
Q

Alterations to a protein made after translation, such as removal of f-met, addition of cofactors, and joining with other proteins for quaternary structure, are referred to as ______ modifications.

A

Posttranslational

67
Q

Which DNA sequences are found within a gene but do not encode the protein specified by that gene?

A

Introns

68
Q

Two components of an operon include the ______ region and the ______ gene sequences.

A

Regulatory; structural

69
Q

The feature of the lac operon that is capable of stopping the activity of the operon is a(n) ______.

A

Regulator/repressor

69
Q

Which kind of lac operon gene encodes an enzyme that is needed to catabolize lactose?

A

Structural

70
Q

What binds to an inactive repressor to make an active repressor?

A

Corepressor

71
Q

What is a riboswitch?

A

A region within an mRNA that regulates the translation of the mRNA of which they are a part

72
Q

An alteration in the DNA sequence of a cell is a(n) ______.

A

Mutation

73
Q

Mutations in DNA that are caused by random mistakes in replication, and are not known to be the result of any mutagenic agent, are ______ mutations.

A

Spontaneous

74
Q

The genes of an operon that code for proteins are ______ genes.

A

Structural

74
Q

The protein which is capable of stopping the output of product encoded by the lac operon is called a(n) ______.

A

Repressor

75
Q

One DNA repair mechanism that removes incorrect bases, and replaces them with correct ones, is the ______ repair mechanism.

A

Excision

75
Q

An inactive repressor binds to a(n) ______ to make an active repressor.

A

Corepressor

76
Q

The addition, deletion, or substitution of no more than a few bases as the result of a mutation is referred to as a(n) ______ mutation.

A

Point

77
Q

In what way can a riboswitch directly regulate translation?

A

By changing the shape of the mRNA

78
Q

True or false: A mutation is an alteration in the DNA sequence or content of a cell that is passed on when the cell divides.

A

True

79
Q

What is the purpose of the Ames test?

A

To determine the carcinogenic potential of a chemical

80
Q

Which type of mutation is due to random mistakes in replication?

A

Spontaneous mutation

81
Q

True or false: Mutations are always harmful to cells.

A

False

82
Q

Mutations that involve the addition, deletion, or substitution of one or a few bases are referred to as ______ mutations.

A

Point

83
Q

Which process uses visible light to repair DNA that has been damaged by ultraviolet radiation?

A

Photoactivation

84
Q

When one bacterium donates DNA to other bacterium, it is known as ______.

A

Recombination

85
Q

What is a small circular segment of DNA found in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes that is capable of independent replication and usually contains nonessential genes?

A

Plasmid

86
Q

The carcinogenic potential of a chemical can be determined by the ______ test.

A

Ames

87
Q

Which form of genetic recombination involves DNA transfer that is mediated through the action of bacterial viruses?

A

Transduction

88
Q

What is the name of the specialized plasmid that directs conjugation in gram-negative cells?

A

F factor

89
Q

A sex pilus functions in most transfers of genes between bacteria that are known ______ transfers.

A

Conjugation

89
Q

A small number of ______ are considered beneficial in that they provide the cell with a useful change in structure or physiology.

A

Mutations

90
Q

A donor cell with a F (fertility) ______ is considered F+
in bacterial conjugation.

A

Factor/plasmid

90
Q

Which term refers to the transfer of genes from donor to recipient microorganisms?

A

Recombination

90
Q

In bacterial conjugation, which term refers to a recipient cell that does not have a fertility plasmid?

A

F-

91
Q

Donor and recipient bacterial cells are connected by the sex ______ during conjugation.

A

Pilus

91
Q

When the F factor is transferred by E. coli, ______.

A

No additional donor genes are transferred

91
Q

A recipient cell having no F (fertility) ______ DNA is considered F- in bacterial conjugation.

A

Factor/plasmid

91
Q

During which method of gene transfer are bacterial cells in direct contact?

A

Conjugation

92
Q

In bacterial conjugation, which term refers to a donor cell with a fertility plasmid?

A

F+

93
Q

Which type of donor has the fertility factor integrated into the chromosome in bacterial conjugation?

A

Hfr

94
Q

True or false: A donor cell typically copies the F factor before transferring it to another cell.

A

True

95
Q

True or false: R-factors or “resistance factors” can be shared between bacteria through conjugation to help them survive the effects of antibiotics.

A

True

96
Q

Which gene transfer method involves the uptake of free DNA by competent bacterial cells?

A

Transformation

97
Q

During the process of ______ a competent bacterial cell may accept soluble DNA from the surrounding environment.

A

Transformation

97
Q

A sex pilus functions in most transfers of genes between bacteria that are known as ______ transfers.

A

Conjugation

98
Q

Which recombination method involves transfer of DNA via bacteriophages?

A

Transduction

99
Q

True or false: In bacterial conjugation, all F+ donor cells are high frequency recombinant (Hfr) cells.

A

False

100
Q

Which type of plasmids confer the ability of an organism to survive treatment by antibiotics?

A

R factors

101
Q

Random portions of host DNA are transferred by bacteriophage during ______ transduction.

A

Generalized

102
Q

A bacterial cell described as ______ can accept soluble DNA from the surrounding environment.

A

Competent

103
Q

Genes that are able to shift from one part of the genome to another are ______.

A

Transposons

104
Q

Which of the following is the genetic pattern of viral genomes?

A

Single or double stranded DNA or RNA

105
Q

Due to the separation of prophage DNA from the bacterial chromosome, a specific, adjacent part of the host genome is transferred during ______ transduction.

A

Specialized

106
Q

Viral initiators of cancer are termed ______.

A

Oncogenic

107
Q

RNA viruses with a ______-strand genome must be converted to a ______-strand genome before translation.

A

Negative; positive

108
Q

“Jumping genes” are known as ______.

A

Transposons

109
Q

True or false: Viral genomes are always composed of either single or double stranded DNA.

A

False

110
Q
A

Microbiology (8 decks)

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