Chapter 16 Flashcards

1
Q

Immunopathology is a disease state ______ of the immune response.

A

Due to either overactivity or underactivity

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2
Q

An exaggerated immune response that is manifested by inflammation is a(n) ______.

A

Allergy (hypersensitivity)

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3
Q

Although about 30% of the human population are prone to allergies, the symptoms of the majority of type I allergies are relatively ______.

A

Mild

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3
Q

______ is defined as a chronic allergy, such as hay fever or eczema, with localized and non-life-threatening effects.

A

Atopy

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4
Q

The type of macromolecule that is more allergenic than the others is ______.

A

Protein

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5
Q

Histamine is a potent stimulator of:

A

Eosinophils.

Smooth muscle.

Glands.

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6
Q

The majority of patients with type I allergies ______.

A

Have mild symptoms

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6
Q

The initial exposure to an allergen provides a(n) ______ dose that primes the immune system for a subsequent encounter with that allergen.

A

Sensitizing

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7
Q

The general term for a localized type I allergic reaction is ______.

A

Atopy

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8
Q

Which of the following is a chemical mediator that inhibits central nervous system activity and stimulates smooth muscle contraction?

A

Serotonin

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9
Q

______, known as the “slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis” for its role in inducing gradual smooth muscle contraction, is a chemical that is responsible for prolonged bronchospasm, capillary permeability, and mucus secretion in asthmatics.

A

Leukotriene

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10
Q

The most profuse and fastest-acting allergic mediator is ______, which has profound effects on smooth muscle and glands.

A

Histamine

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11
Q

Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with type I allergic reactions?

A

Lupus erythematosus

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12
Q

A form of atopic allergy marked by seasonal acute inflammation of the conjunctiva and mucous membranes of the respiratory passages is called
______ ______.

A

Hay fever

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13
Q

Severe bronchoconstriction causes the symptoms of ______.

A

Allergic asthma

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14
Q

A neurotransmitter that is also believed to complement the effects of histamine is ______.

A

Serotonin

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15
Q

______ is defined as an acute or chronic allergy of the skin associated with itching and burning sensations. Typically, red vesicular lesions erupt, leaving the skin dry and scaly.

A

Eczema

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16
Q

A chemical mediator involved in allergic reactions, also known as the “slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis” due to its property of inducing gradual contraction of smooth muscle, is ______.

A

Leukotriene

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17
Q

Which are the three most common gastrointestinal symptoms of food allergy?

A

Abdominal pain

Diarrhea

Vomiting

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18
Q

Which of the following commonly involve type I allergies?

A

Asthma

Hay fever

Drug allergy

Food allergy

Anaphylaxis

Eczema

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19
Q

A seasonal reaction to inhaled plant pollen or molds, or a chronic year-round reaction to a wide spectrum of airborne allergens or inhalants, is known as ______.

A

Allergic rhinitis

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20
Q

A study involving babies at risk for one of the common food allergies, to______, showed that eating a small amount of this food early in life greatly reduced the incidence of developing sensitivity to the food.

A

Peanuts

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21
Q

One of the most common side effects of medical treatment is a(n) ______ to a drug.

A

Allergy

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a possible sign or symptom of anaphylaxis?

A

Fever

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23
Tests to diagnose allergies can be conducted by both in ______ and in ______ methods.
Vitro; vivo
24
Which of the following methods are commonly used to prevent type I allergic reactions?
Drug therapy Avoiding the allergen Desensitization therapy
25
Type II hypersensitivities involve ______.
Complement-assisted cell lysis by antibodies
26
True or False: Allergy to drugs is one of the most common side effects of medical treatment.
True
27
Human blood types fall into four distinct groups called the ______ blood groups.
ABO
28
Which of the following are potential mild and severe symptoms of anaphylaxis?
Convulsions Prostration Difficulties breathing Sneezing Itching
29
For the ABO blood groups, ______ reactive to another blood type may exist in serum even though contact with other blood types has never occurred.
Antibodies
30
An antigen on red blood cells that can trigger hemolytic disease in newborns due to incompatibility between maternal and infant blood components is the ______ ______
Rh factor
31
Complement-assisted cell lysis, by antibodies directed at cell surface antigens, characterizes type ______ hypersensitivities.
II
32
A person's Rh type results from the combination of two possible alleles, a ______ one that codes for the Rh factor, and a ______ one that does not.
Dominant; recessive
33
Which of the following are means that lead to the development of Rh antibodies?
Blood transfusion Placental sensitization
34
With respect to hemolytic disease of the newborn, the potential for placental sensitization occurs through which combination of mother and unborn child?
Mother is Rh negative. Unborn child is Rh positive.
34
Blood serum ______ contain preformed antibodies to A and B antigens without prior exposure to the antigens.
May
35
When fetal red blood cells leak into maternal circulation during childbirth, the mother's immune system responds to them by producing antibodies and memory B cells. This process is called ______ sensitization.
Placental
35
Which of the following can trigger hemolytic disease in newborns due to incompatibility between maternal and infant blood components?
Rh factor
36
Incompatabilities related to ABO blood type are less likely during pregnancy because Ig______ antibodies are produced that are too large to cross the placenta in large numbers.
M
36
A person inheriting at least one dominant Rh allele will be Rh ______, whereas a person inheriting two recessive alleles will be Rh ______.
Positive; negative
37
Placental sensitization can occur when the mother is Rh ______, whereas the fetus is Rh ______.
Negative; positive
38
Which of the following are involved in immune complex diseases?
Antibody-antigen complexes
39
To prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn, Rh- mothers with possible Rh+ fetuses receive what treatment?
Passive antibody preparation
40
In type III hypersensitivity, damage to tissues occurs when ______ release lysosomal granules that digest tissues and cause destructive inflammatory reactions at the sites where Ab-Ag complexes have been deposited in basement membranes.
Neutrophils
40
Maternal-fetal incompatibilities are possible in the ABO blood group, but adverse reactions occur less frequently than with Rh sensitization because ______.
Antibodies to ABO antigens do not cross the placenta
40
An immune complex phenomenon that develops after a second injection at the site of the first injection, causing the area to become red, swollen, and painful is called ______.
Arthus reaction
41
When fetal erythrocytes leak into maternal circulation during childbirth, ______ sensitization occurs.
Placental
42
Type IV hypersensitivities involve ______-lymphocytes.
T
43
Rh- mothers with possible Rh+ fetuses receive passive immunotherapy treatment with a(n) ______ preparation to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Antibody
44
Which of the following cell types is primarily responsible for graft rejection?
Cytotoxic T cells
45
Immune complex diseases are triggered by the formation of free-floating ______-______ complexes that can deposit in tissues.
Ab; Ag
46
The immune system of an organ transplant recipient mounts a campaign to destroy the donated tissue in the condition known as ______ ______.
Graft rejection
47
Tissue destruction occurs in type III reactions when immune complexes deposit in the ______ ______ of epithelial tissues.
Basement membrane
48
The most favorable sites to obtain bone marrow cells from a donor are on the ______.
Ilium bone of the pelvis
49
A pathological condition arising from the production of antibodies against self antigens is a(n) ______ disease.
Autoimmune
50
The T-cell branch of the immune system is primarily involved in ______ hypersensitivity.
Type IV
51
Which genes have been shown to correlate with certain autoimmune diseases?
MHC Class II MHC Class I
52
One theory of autoimmunity is that during embryonic development, some antigens in some tissues are kept behind anatomical barriers and cannot be scanned by the immune system. This is called the ______ theory.
Sequestered antigen
53
Bone marrow is transplanted into the recipient by ______.
Intravenous drip into recipient circulation
54
In graft rejection, ______.
The immune system of an organ transplant recipient mounts an attack against the donor tissue
55
Which of the following is characterized as a chronic autoimmunity disorder where immune complexes are deposited into the basement membranes of various organs resulting in dysfunction/tissue damage.
Lupus erythematosus
56
The pathological condition arising from the production of antibodies against autoantigens is called a(n) ______.
Autoimmune disease
57
A systemic autoimmune disease that results in progressive, debilitating damage to the joints is ______ ______.
Rheumatoid arthritis
58
In Graves' disease, the ______ is the target of autoimmunity.
Thyroid gland
59
Recurrent, overwhelming infections, often with opportunistic microbes, are consequences of a group of immune system dysfunctions called ______.
Immunodeficiencies
59
The theory that autoimmunity develops due to exposure of an antigen previously hidden behind an anatomical barrier is the ______ antigen theory.
Sequestered
60
The immune system of an organ transplant recipient mounts a campaign to destroy the donated tissue in the condition known as ______ ______.
Graft rejection
61
A significant number of B-cell deficiencies are ______ and therefore appear at a higher rate in ______ children.
X-linked; male
62
A dysfunctional ______ cell line is usually more devastating than a defective ______ cell line.
T; B
63
The absence of immunoglobulins (antibodies) in serum is called ______.
Agammaglobulinemia
64
A severe reduction or complete absence of cell-mediated immunity, due to a missing or underdeveloped thymus gland is characteristic of ______.
DiGeorge syndrome
65
Predominant consequences of immunodeficiencies include:
Recurrent infections. Opportunistic infections.
66
Which type of immunodeficiency involves serious dysfunction in both T and B lymphocyte systems?
Severe combined immunodeficiency
67
Select the two most common forms of SCID seen today.
Swiss-type agammaglobulinemia Thymic alymphoplasia
68
A T-cell deficiency is more devastating than a B-cell deficiency because ______ cells are required to assist in most specific immune reactions.
T helper
69
Secondary immune deficiency is acquired through ______, organic disease, ______, or ______.
Infection; chemotherapy; radiation
70
Which of the following terms is another word used to describe the disease known as cancer?
Neoplasm
71
Cancer involves ______.
Cells growing and spreading in an uncontrolled manner
72
True or false: Oncology is the field of medicine devoted to the diagnosis and treatment of autoimmune diseases.
False
73
In both Swiss-type agammaglobulinemia and thymic alymphoplasia, ______ extremely low.
The numbers of all types of lymphocytes are
74
Severe neurological symptoms are caused by autoantibodies that attack the brain in ______.
Autoimmune encephalitis
75
The field of medicine that specializes in cancer is called ______.
Oncology
76