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Microbiology > Chapter 1-2 > Flashcards

Chapter 1-2 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Microbiology involves the study of microscopic organisms or agents, including:

A

Viruses, bacteria, fungi, helminths, and protozoa

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2
Q

Which type of microorganism lacks a membrane-bound nucleus and specialized internal structures to carry out their functions?

A

Prokaryotic

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3
Q

Which type of cell does not contain organelles, such as mitochondria or a nucleus?

A

Prokaryotic

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4
Q

The common cold and AIDS are caused by which type of microbe?

A

Viruses

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5
Q

Most bacterial cells are measured in ______, and most viruses are measured in ______.

A

Micrometers; nanometers

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6
Q

A specialized area of biology that deals with living things ordinarily too small to be seen without magnification is:

A

Microbiology

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7
Q

Prokaryotic organisms have been around for about how long?

A

3.5 billion years

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7
Q

Which two of the following groups of organisms arguably play the greatest role in biological decomposition?

A

Fungi and bacteria

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8
Q

In general, disease-causing organisms are referred to as which of the following?

A

Pathogens

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9
Q

Which cell type is generally larger in size?

A

Eukaryotic cells

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10
Q

A newly identified infectious disease that is becoming more prominent, such as SARS or viral encephalitis, is a(n)
________ disease.

A

Emerging (infectious)

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11
Q

Which of the following is not able to replicate on its own?

A

Viruses

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12
Q

Viral particles are usually (larger/smaller) than prokaryotic cells.

A

Smaller

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12
Q

Which of the following genera of microbes has been associated with gastric ulcers?

A

Helicobacter

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13
Q

Spontaneous generation claims that:

A

Living organisms can develop from nonliving matter.

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14
Q

The breakdown of dead matter and wastes into simple compounds that can be directed back into the natural cycle of living things is called:

A

Decomposition

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15
Q

The term used for any infectious agent that causes disease, such as parasites, bacteria, and viruses is a(n):

A

Pathogen

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16
Q

A tentative explanation of an observation is a(n):

A

Hypothesis

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17
Q

Chlamydia infections have been linked to which of the following conditions?

A

Female infertility

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18
Q

What are three true statements about Cotton Mather and his smallpox inoculation efforts?

A
  1. Mather was given the idea of inoculation from Onesimus, the man he enslaved.
  2. Mather urged fellow Bostonians to receive inoculations during an epidemic in the 1720s.
  3. Mather became interested in the practice of deliberately infecting people as a means of immunizing them.
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19
Q

What defines spontaneous generation?

A

Life arose from nonliving matter

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20
Q

The three primary concerns of modern taxonomy are ______.

A

Identification, nomenclature, and classification

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21
Q

List these levels in the hierarchy of classification from most general to most specific, starting with most general at the top. (family, class, kingdom, species, genus)

A

Kingdom, class, family, genus, species

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22
Q

What describes a good hypthesis?

A

It must be able to be supported or rejected by experimentation.

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23
Q

True or false: When writing a binomial name, the initial letter of the genus is capitalized, and the species is in lower case.

A

True

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24
Q

Charles Darwin proposed that the mechanism by which evolution occurs is natural
_______.

A

Selection

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25
Q

When Boston suffered from a smallpox epidemic in 1721–1722, Onesimus was responsible for introducing Cotton Mather to the process of ______.

A

Inoculation

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26
Q

Which microbial agents are not classified under the Woese system?

A

Viruses and prions

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27
Q

The primary concerns of modern taxonomy are naming, ______, and ______ organisms.

A

Identifying, classifying

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28
Q

True or false: If two microbes are in the same genus, they must be in the same class.

A

True

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29
Q

Organisms are assigned and identified by a two-word name representing the genus and species names in the
______ system of nomenclature.

A

Binomial

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30
Q

That living things change gradually over time through natural selection is stated by the theory of ______.

A

Evolution

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31
Q

In the Woese-Fox system of classification, which is the most general category in which an organism is assigned?

A

Domain

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32
Q

Which of the following is anything that has mass and occupies space?

A

Matter

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33
Q

Which of the following structures differ in hydrogen and oxygen atoms?

A

Number of subatomic particles

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34
Q

True or false: The mass number of an element is based on the total number of electrons and protons found in each atom.

A

False

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35
Q

The atomic number of an element represents the number of which subatomic particles in the nucleus?

A

Protons

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36
Q

Variant forms of the same element that differ in the number of neutrons and thus have different mass numbers are called ______.

A

Isotopes

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37
Q

The organization of ______ begins with individual building blocks called atoms.

A

Matter

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38
Q

The measurement of the gravitational pull on the mass of an atom is the atomic ______.

A

Mass

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38
Q

True or false: Protons found in a hydrogen atom are different in structure from protons found in an oxygen atom.

A

False

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39
Q

The mass number of an element is the sum of the number of which two of the following?

A

Protons and neutrons

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39
Q

Electrons can be found in pathways surrounding the center of the atom; these pathways are known as which of the following?

A

Orbitals

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40
Q

The average mass numbers of all isotopic forms of an element is the atomic ______.

A

Mass

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40
Q

Which of the following occurs in an energy shell?

A

Electrons are found in pairs

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40
Q

Which of the following does not change in an element?

A

The number of protons

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41
Q

Isotopes are variant forms of the same element that differ in the number of which of the following?

A

Neutrons

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42
Q

The number of protons in the nucleus of hydrogen is one, which is the number.

A

Atomic

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43
Q

The second shell of an atom contains ______ orbital(s) and a maximum of ______ electrons.

A

4, 8

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43
Q

The first shell contains ______ orbital(s).

A

1

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44
Q

A specific volume of 3-dimensional space in which an electron is likely to be found is a(n) ______.

A

Orbital, cloud, or electron cloud

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44
Q

An element’s chemical properties and reactivity are based on which of the following?

A

The number of electrons in the outermost orbital

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45
Q

True or false: The mass number of an element is based on the total number of electrons and protons found in each atom.

A

False

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45
Q

Electrons occupy energy ______ which proceed from the lower-energy electrons nearest the nucleus to the higher-energy electrons further away from the nucleus.

A

Shells, or levels

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46
Q

A molecule that contains two or more different elements is a(n):

A

Compound

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47
Q

An element with seven electrons would have how many electrons in the first shell?

A

2

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48
Q

A bond that is the result of two atoms sharing electrons to complete their outer orbitals is a(n) ______ bond.

A

Covalent

49
Q

The second shell of an atom can contain up to how many pairs of electrons?

A

4

50
Q

The molecules that are utilized by organisms mainly have ______ and ______ covalent bonds.

A

Single, double

50
Q

When two hydrogen atoms share a pair of electrons, which type of bond is formed between the hydrogens?

A

Covalent

51
Q

An element’s reactivity is based on the number of electrons in its outermost ______ as compared with the total number of electrons possible.

A

Shell

52
Q

In a reaction that forms an ionic bond, one atom must have an unfilled outer shell that can accept electrons, while the other atom must have which of the following?

A

An unfilled outer shell that can donate electrons

52
Q

A distinct chemical substance that results from the combination of two or more atoms is a(n):

A

Molecule

53
Q

A covalent bond is a chemical attraction that involves the sharing of which of the following particles between two atoms?

A

Electrons

54
Q

True or false: A hydrogen bond forms between 2 hydrogen molecules when they share their electrons and form H2.

A

False

55
Q

The dissociation of a compound into separate charged particles called ions is called:

A

Ionization

56
Q

A positively charged ion is called a(n):

A

Cation

57
Q

If two positively charged sodium ions are present in solution, how will the ions interact?

A

They will repel each other

58
Q

Most of the molecules associated with living things have ______ covalent bonds.

A

Single and double

59
Q

Ionic bonds form when ______ are moved from one atom to another atom.

A

Electrons

60
Q

The manipulation of energy by cells requires that they have which of the following?

A

A supply of atoms that can both gain and lose elections

61
Q

Which of the following is the aqueous dissociation of an electrolyte into ions, or the breaking of ionic bonds between two atoms?

A

Ionization

62
Q

C6H12O6 is the ______ formula for glucose.

A

Molecular

63
Q

When NaCl dissolves in water, a positive sodium ion and a negative chlorine ion form. Because it has a positive charge, the sodium ion is known generally as a(n) ______, while the negative chlorine ion is generally known as a(n) ______.

A

Cation, anion

64
Q

Information that is not provided by structural formulas includes which of the following?

A

Electron configurations of the atoms

65
Q

Chemists can summarize what happens in a chemical reaction by writing it out as a chemical ______.

A

Equation

65
Q

If positive and negatively charged ions are present in solution, how will the ions interact?

A

They will attract each other

66
Q

In a chemical reaction, the ______ are used to start the reaction and will be changed by the reaction.

A

Reactants

67
Q

Cells store and release energy through the transfer of ______ from one molecule to another.

A

Electrons

68
Q

Which of the following is a substance that alters the rate of a reaction?

A

Catalyst

68
Q

Molecular formulas do not show which of the following?

A

Relationships of the atoms

69
Q

Structural formulas provide information about which of the following?

A

Types of bonds, relationships of the atoms, and number of bonds

70
Q

In the chemical equation: 2Na + Cl2 → 2 NaCl, identify the reactants.

A

Sodium and chlorine

71
Q

Substances that are generated as a result of a chemical reaction are called ______.

A

Products

72
Q

Which is a mixture of one or more substances called solutes uniformly dispersed in a dissolving medium?

A

Solution

73
Q

Identify the most common solvent in natural systems.

A

Water

74
Q

A substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction is a(n) ______.

A

Catalyst

75
Q

Which term identifies nonpolar molecules, such as benzene?

A

Hydrophobic

75
Q

When NaCl crystals are added to water, the Na+ and Cl- are released into solution. Each ion becomes ______, which means that it is surrounded by a sphere of water molecules.

A

Hydrated

76
Q

Water can dissociate into positively charged ______ ions and negatively charged ______ ions.

A

Hydrogen, hydroxide

77
Q

A solution is a mixture of one or more substances called ______ uniformly dissolved in a ______.

A

Solutes, solvent

78
Q

A solution is basic when one of its components releases excess ______ ions.

A

Hydroxide

79
Q

The solvent for the contents of the cell, which makes up 70-80% of the internal gelatinous solution, is ______.

A

Water

80
Q

What is the term for molecules, such as salt or sugar, that attract water to their surface?

A

Hydrophilic

81
Q

A scale that is used to measure the acid and base concentrations of solutions is the ______ scale.

A

pH

82
Q

Molecules that repel water are considered to be ______.

A

Hydrophobic

83
Q

Which pH is considered neutral?

A

7

84
Q

When pure water has equal amounts of H+ and OH- what type of solution is formed?

A

Neutral

85
Q

Which of the following groups are accessory molecules that help define the chemical class of organic molecules?

A

Functional

85
Q

A synonym for a basic solution is a(n) ______.

A

Alkaline

85
Q

Neutralization is a chemical reaction between ______.

A

An acid and a base that forms a salt and water

86
Q

Chemicals that do not contain both carbon and hydrogen are classified as ______ chemicals.

A

Inorganic

87
Q

How are macromolecules made?

A

By assembling smaller molecules into larger structures

88
Q

Acid and base concentrations of solutions are measured using with of the following?

A

The pH scale

89
Q

The pH scale ranges from ______.

A

0 to 14

90
Q

Which macromolecules consist primarily of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio?

A

Carbohydrates

91
Q

Which is a neutralization reaction?

A

A reaction in which an acid and a base in an aqueous solution react to produce a salt and water

92
Q

Which of the following are examples of inorganic compounds?

A

Mg3(PO4)2

H2O2

KCl

CO2

93
Q

Which is the most important hexose?

A

Glucose

94
Q

Functional groups can play a role in which of the following types of reactions?

A

Decomposition, synthesis, and transfer

95
Q

Identify the disaccharides.

A

Lactose, sucrose, maltose

96
Q

Which of the following macromolecules is not formed by polymerization?

A

Lipids

97
Q

Which class of biochemicals resembles combinations of carbon and water?

A

Carbohydrates

98
Q

The subunits of carbohydrate polymers are held together by which type of bond?

A

Glycosidic bond

99
Q

Which describes the relatively long or complex hydrocarbon chains in lipids?

A

Nonpolar and hydrophobic

99
Q

Another name for glucose is ______.

A

Dextrose

99
Q

Gram-negative bacteria contain ______, a cell wall component made of lipids and polysaccharide, that is responsible for symptoms such as fever and shock.

A

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

100
Q

Triglycerides and phospholipids both contain which of the following?

A

Fatty acid chains and glycerol

101
Q

Cholesterol is a steroid that has which additional functional group?

A

OH

101
Q

Glycosidic bonds would be present in which of the following sugars?

A

Maltose, sucrose, and lactose

102
Q

The cell wall of gram negative bacteria contains which of the following?

A

Lipopolysaccharide

103
Q

Identify two liquids that lipids will dissolve in.

A

Chloroform and benzene

104
Q

The building blocks of proteins are:

A

Amino acids

105
Q

Which of the following structural components is not found in both triglycerides and phospholipids?

A

Phosphate groups

106
Q

The molecule that carries the special code for an organism’s heredity is ______.

A

DNA

106
Q

Which of the following are complex ringed compounds commonly found in cell membranes and animal hormones?

A

Steroids

107
Q

The specific sequence of amino acids that makes up the polypeptide chain constitutes a protein’s ______ structure.

A

Primary

108
Q

The number of different naturally occurring amino acids from which proteins are constructed is:

A

20

109
Q

Which type of bond holds the two strands of the DNA double helix together?

A

Hydrogen

109
Q

The disaccharide ______ is common table sugar.

A

Sucrose

110
Q

Which of the following genetic codes can be found in viruses?

A

RNA alone and DNA alone

111
Q

Which structure in a polypeptide gives rise to the unlimited diversity in protein form and function?

A

Primary

112
Q

DNA and RNA both have adenine, guanine, and cytosine, but DNA has thymine, while RNA has the base:

A

Uracil

113
Q

True or false: RNA contains a special coded genetic program responsible for each organism’s heredity.

A

False

114
Q

Energy is released when the bond breaks between two ______ groups in ATP.

A

Phosphate

115
Q

In double stranded DNA, adenine would be hydrogen bonded to ______.

A

Thymine

116
Q

The genetic code in all cells and many viruses is in the form of which of the following?

A

DNA

117
Q

Which of the following are components of a phospholipid?

A

Fatty acids, glycerol, and phosphate group

118
Q

DNA is a ______-stranded molecule, while RNA is a ______-stranded

A

Double, single

119
Q

In most circumstances when providing energy for cellular work, ATP and GTP give off energy when the bond is broken between which of the following?

A

The second and third phosphate groups

120
Q

Energy is released when the bond breaks between two ______ groups in ATP groups in ATP.

A

Phosphate

Microbiology (8 decks)

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