Chapter 1-2 Flashcards
1
Q
Microbiology involves the study of microscopic organisms or agents, including:
A
Viruses, bacteria, fungi, helminths, and protozoa
2
Q
Which type of microorganism lacks a membrane-bound nucleus and specialized internal structures to carry out their functions?
A
Prokaryotic
3
Q
Which type of cell does not contain organelles, such as mitochondria or a nucleus?
A
Prokaryotic
4
Q
The common cold and AIDS are caused by which type of microbe?
A
Viruses
5
Q
Most bacterial cells are measured in ______, and most viruses are measured in ______.
A
Micrometers; nanometers
6
Q
A specialized area of biology that deals with living things ordinarily too small to be seen without magnification is:
A
Microbiology
7
Q
Prokaryotic organisms have been around for about how long?
A
3.5 billion years
7
Q
Which two of the following groups of organisms arguably play the greatest role in biological decomposition?
A
Fungi and bacteria
8
Q
In general, disease-causing organisms are referred to as which of the following?
A
Pathogens
9
Q
Which cell type is generally larger in size?
A
Eukaryotic cells
10
Q
A newly identified infectious disease that is becoming more prominent, such as SARS or viral encephalitis, is a(n)
________ disease.
A
Emerging (infectious)
11
Q
Which of the following is not able to replicate on its own?
A
Viruses
12
Q
Viral particles are usually (larger/smaller) than prokaryotic cells.
A
Smaller
12
Q
Which of the following genera of microbes has been associated with gastric ulcers?
A
Helicobacter
13
Q
Spontaneous generation claims that:
A
Living organisms can develop from nonliving matter.
14
Q
The breakdown of dead matter and wastes into simple compounds that can be directed back into the natural cycle of living things is called:
A
Decomposition
15
Q
The term used for any infectious agent that causes disease, such as parasites, bacteria, and viruses is a(n):
A
Pathogen
16
Q
A tentative explanation of an observation is a(n):
A
Hypothesis
17
Q
Chlamydia infections have been linked to which of the following conditions?
A
Female infertility
18
Q
What are three true statements about Cotton Mather and his smallpox inoculation efforts?
A
- Mather was given the idea of inoculation from Onesimus, the man he enslaved.
- Mather urged fellow Bostonians to receive inoculations during an epidemic in the 1720s.
- Mather became interested in the practice of deliberately infecting people as a means of immunizing them.
19
Q
What defines spontaneous generation?
A
Life arose from nonliving matter
20
Q
The three primary concerns of modern taxonomy are ______.
A
Identification, nomenclature, and classification
21
Q
List these levels in the hierarchy of classification from most general to most specific, starting with most general at the top. (family, class, kingdom, species, genus)
A
Kingdom, class, family, genus, species
22
Q
What describes a good hypthesis?
A
It must be able to be supported or rejected by experimentation.
23
True or false: When writing a binomial name, the initial letter of the genus is capitalized, and the species is in lower case.
True
24
Charles Darwin proposed that the mechanism by which evolution occurs is natural
_______.
Selection
25
When Boston suffered from a smallpox epidemic in 1721–1722, Onesimus was responsible for introducing Cotton Mather to the process of ______.
Inoculation
26
Which microbial agents are not classified under the Woese system?
Viruses and prions
27
The primary concerns of modern taxonomy are naming, ______, and ______ organisms.
Identifying, classifying
28
True or false: If two microbes are in the same genus, they must be in the same class.
True
29
Organisms are assigned and identified by a two-word name representing the genus and species names in the
______ system of nomenclature.
Binomial
30
That living things change gradually over time through natural selection is stated by the theory of ______.
Evolution
31
In the Woese-Fox system of classification, which is the most general category in which an organism is assigned?
Domain
32
Which of the following is anything that has mass and occupies space?
Matter
33
Which of the following structures differ in hydrogen and oxygen atoms?
Number of subatomic particles
34
True or false: The mass number of an element is based on the total number of electrons and protons found in each atom.
False
35
The atomic number of an element represents the number of which subatomic particles in the nucleus?
Protons
36
Variant forms of the same element that differ in the number of neutrons and thus have different mass numbers are called ______.
Isotopes
37
The organization of ______ begins with individual building blocks called atoms.
Matter
38
The measurement of the gravitational pull on the mass of an atom is the atomic ______.
Mass
38
True or false: Protons found in a hydrogen atom are different in structure from protons found in an oxygen atom.
False
39
The mass number of an element is the sum of the number of which two of the following?
Protons and neutrons
39
Electrons can be found in pathways surrounding the center of the atom; these pathways are known as which of the following?
Orbitals
40
The average mass numbers of all isotopic forms of an element is the atomic ______.
Mass
40
Which of the following occurs in an energy shell?
Electrons are found in pairs
40
Which of the following does not change in an element?
The number of protons
41
Isotopes are variant forms of the same element that differ in the number of which of the following?
Neutrons
42
The number of protons in the nucleus of hydrogen is one, which is the number.
Atomic
43
The second shell of an atom contains ______ orbital(s) and a maximum of ______ electrons.
4, 8
43
The first shell contains ______ orbital(s).
1
44
A specific volume of 3-dimensional space in which an electron is likely to be found is a(n) ______.
Orbital, cloud, or electron cloud
44
An element's chemical properties and reactivity are based on which of the following?
The number of electrons in the outermost orbital
45
True or false: The mass number of an element is based on the total number of electrons and protons found in each atom.
False
45
Electrons occupy energy ______ which proceed from the lower-energy electrons nearest the nucleus to the higher-energy electrons further away from the nucleus.
Shells, or levels
46
A molecule that contains two or more different elements is a(n):
Compound
47
An element with seven electrons would have how many electrons in the first shell?
2
48
A bond that is the result of two atoms sharing electrons to complete their outer orbitals is a(n) ______ bond.
Covalent
49
The second shell of an atom can contain up to how many pairs of electrons?
4
50
The molecules that are utilized by organisms mainly have ______ and ______ covalent bonds.
Single, double
50
When two hydrogen atoms share a pair of electrons, which type of bond is formed between the hydrogens?
Covalent
51
An element's reactivity is based on the number of electrons in its outermost ______ as compared with the total number of electrons possible.
Shell
52
In a reaction that forms an ionic bond, one atom must have an unfilled outer shell that can accept electrons, while the other atom must have which of the following?
An unfilled outer shell that can donate electrons
52
A distinct chemical substance that results from the combination of two or more atoms is a(n):
Molecule
53
A covalent bond is a chemical attraction that involves the sharing of which of the following particles between two atoms?
Electrons
54
True or false: A hydrogen bond forms between 2 hydrogen molecules when they share their electrons and form H2.
False
55
The dissociation of a compound into separate charged particles called ions is called:
Ionization
56
A positively charged ion is called a(n):
Cation
57
If two positively charged sodium ions are present in solution, how will the ions interact?
They will repel each other
58
Most of the molecules associated with living things have ______ covalent bonds.
Single and double
59
Ionic bonds form when ______ are moved from one atom to another atom.
Electrons
60
The manipulation of energy by cells requires that they have which of the following?
A supply of atoms that can both gain and lose elections
61
Which of the following is the aqueous dissociation of an electrolyte into ions, or the breaking of ionic bonds between two atoms?
Ionization
62
C6H12O6 is the ______ formula for glucose.
Molecular
63
When NaCl dissolves in water, a positive sodium ion and a negative chlorine ion form. Because it has a positive charge, the sodium ion is known generally as a(n) ______, while the negative chlorine ion is generally known as a(n) ______.
Cation, anion
64
Information that is not provided by structural formulas includes which of the following?
Electron configurations of the atoms
65
Chemists can summarize what happens in a chemical reaction by writing it out as a chemical ______.
Equation
65
If positive and negatively charged ions are present in solution, how will the ions interact?
They will attract each other
66
In a chemical reaction, the ______ are used to start the reaction and will be changed by the reaction.
Reactants
67
Cells store and release energy through the transfer of ______ from one molecule to another.
Electrons
68
Which of the following is a substance that alters the rate of a reaction?
Catalyst
68
Molecular formulas do not show which of the following?
Relationships of the atoms
69
Structural formulas provide information about which of the following?
Types of bonds, relationships of the atoms, and number of bonds
70
In the chemical equation: 2Na + Cl2 → 2 NaCl, identify the reactants.
Sodium and chlorine
71
Substances that are generated as a result of a chemical reaction are called ______.
Products
72
Which is a mixture of one or more substances called solutes uniformly dispersed in a dissolving medium?
Solution
73
Identify the most common solvent in natural systems.
Water
74
A substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction is a(n) ______.
Catalyst
75
Which term identifies nonpolar molecules, such as benzene?
Hydrophobic
75
When NaCl crystals are added to water, the Na+ and Cl- are released into solution. Each ion becomes ______, which means that it is surrounded by a sphere of water molecules.
Hydrated
76
Water can dissociate into positively charged ______ ions and negatively charged ______ ions.
Hydrogen, hydroxide
77
A solution is a mixture of one or more substances called ______ uniformly dissolved in a ______.
Solutes, solvent
78
A solution is basic when one of its components releases excess ______ ions.
Hydroxide
79
The solvent for the contents of the cell, which makes up 70-80% of the internal gelatinous solution, is ______.
Water
80
What is the term for molecules, such as salt or sugar, that attract water to their surface?
Hydrophilic
81
A scale that is used to measure the acid and base concentrations of solutions is the ______ scale.
pH
82
Molecules that repel water are considered to be ______.
Hydrophobic
83
Which pH is considered neutral?
7
84
When pure water has equal amounts of H+ and OH- what type of solution is formed?
Neutral
85
Which of the following groups are accessory molecules that help define the chemical class of organic molecules?
Functional
85
A synonym for a basic solution is a(n) ______.
Alkaline
85
Neutralization is a chemical reaction between ______.
An acid and a base that forms a salt and water
86
Chemicals that do not contain both carbon and hydrogen are classified as ______ chemicals.
Inorganic
87
How are macromolecules made?
By assembling smaller molecules into larger structures
88
Acid and base concentrations of solutions are measured using with of the following?
The pH scale
89
The pH scale ranges from ______.
0 to 14
90
Which macromolecules consist primarily of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio?
Carbohydrates
91
Which is a neutralization reaction?
A reaction in which an acid and a base in an aqueous solution react to produce a salt and water
92
Which of the following are examples of inorganic compounds?
Mg3(PO4)2
H2O2
KCl
CO2
93
Which is the most important hexose?
Glucose
94
Functional groups can play a role in which of the following types of reactions?
Decomposition, synthesis, and transfer
95
Identify the disaccharides.
Lactose, sucrose, maltose
96
Which of the following macromolecules is not formed by polymerization?
Lipids
97
Which class of biochemicals resembles combinations of carbon and water?
Carbohydrates
98
The subunits of carbohydrate polymers are held together by which type of bond?
Glycosidic bond
99
Which describes the relatively long or complex hydrocarbon chains in lipids?
Nonpolar and hydrophobic
99
Another name for glucose is ______.
Dextrose
99
Gram-negative bacteria contain ______, a cell wall component made of lipids and polysaccharide, that is responsible for symptoms such as fever and shock.
Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
100
Triglycerides and phospholipids both contain which of the following?
Fatty acid chains and glycerol
101
Cholesterol is a steroid that has which additional functional group?
OH
101
Glycosidic bonds would be present in which of the following sugars?
Maltose, sucrose, and lactose
102
The cell wall of gram negative bacteria contains which of the following?
Lipopolysaccharide
103
Identify two liquids that lipids will dissolve in.
Chloroform and benzene
104
The building blocks of proteins are:
Amino acids
105
Which of the following structural components is not found in both triglycerides and phospholipids?
Phosphate groups
106
The molecule that carries the special code for an organism's heredity is ______.
DNA
106
Which of the following are complex ringed compounds commonly found in cell membranes and animal hormones?
Steroids
107
The specific sequence of amino acids that makes up the polypeptide chain constitutes a protein's ______ structure.
Primary
108
The number of different naturally occurring amino acids from which proteins are constructed is:
20
109
Which type of bond holds the two strands of the DNA double helix together?
Hydrogen
109
The disaccharide ______ is common table sugar.
Sucrose
110
Which of the following genetic codes can be found in viruses?
RNA alone and DNA alone
111
Which structure in a polypeptide gives rise to the unlimited diversity in protein form and function?
Primary
112
DNA and RNA both have adenine, guanine, and cytosine, but DNA has thymine, while RNA has the base:
Uracil
113
True or false: RNA contains a special coded genetic program responsible for each organism's heredity.
False
114
Energy is released when the bond breaks between two ______ groups in ATP.
Phosphate
115
In double stranded DNA, adenine would be hydrogen bonded to ______.
Thymine
116
The genetic code in all cells and many viruses is in the form of which of the following?
DNA
117
Which of the following are components of a phospholipid?
Fatty acids, glycerol, and phosphate group
118
DNA is a ______-stranded molecule, while RNA is a ______-stranded
Double, single
119
In most circumstances when providing energy for cellular work, ATP and GTP give off energy when the bond is broken between which of the following?
The second and third phosphate groups
120
Energy is released when the bond breaks between two ______ groups in ATP groups in ATP.
Phosphate
