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Anatomy 1 > Chapter 6/7 > Flashcards

Chapter 6/7 Flashcards

1
Q

____ joint occurs when a projection from one bone fits into ring or curved surface. Only can rotate.

A

Pivot Joint (head side to side)

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2
Q

____ joint occurs when a bone with a concave surface meets the convex surface of another. restricted to one plane

A

Hinge Joint (like door hinge, elbow)

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3
Q

_____joint where two bones with flat or slightly curved ends meet. Bones slide over each other and have limited mobility.

A

Plane (gliding) joint (wrist/ankle bones)

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4
Q

_____ joint are bones with a convex shape that meets another bone with the same shape. These joints move in two directions

A

Condyloid joint (base of fingers, knuckles)

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5
Q

_____ joint is a bone with a globular end meeting a cup-shaped cavity in another bone. These joints can rotate in all planes and have the widest range of motion.

A

Ball and socket joint (hip and shoulder)

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6
Q

_______ joint is a bone with concave and convex surfaces that meets a bone with a similar shape and the two fit together complementarily.

A

Saddle joint (thumb has wider motion than all other fingers)

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7
Q

the shaft of a long bone

A

diaphysis

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8
Q

Dense bone with no apparent spaces.

A

compact bone

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9
Q

The head of the bone separated from the rest of the bone by the epiphyseal plate.

A

epiphysis

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10
Q

Semi-clear cartilage with flexible connective tissue and fine matrix.

A

hyaline cartilage

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11
Q

Bone that contains irregular spaces.

A

spongy bone

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12
Q

The site of bone length growth located between the diaphysis and epiphysis.

A

epiphyseal plate

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13
Q

Joints containing fibrous connective tissue that have no movement.

A

fibrous joint

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14
Q

A fibrous connective tissue with very little space for matrix and high concentration of fibers.

A

dense connective tissue

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15
Q

Bones connected by cartilage.

A

cartilaginous joint

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16
Q

The most dense and strong type of cartilage that helps protect areas of high stress in the body.

A

fibrocartilage

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17
Q

Bones connected by an enclosed space filled with synovial fluid.

A

synovial fluid

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18
Q

The thin layer of hyaline cartilage that aids in bone length growth.

A

articular cartilage

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19
Q

Woven bone

Select one:
a. has its collagen fibers randomly oriented.
b. has a porous appearance.
c. is organized into thin sheets of tissue.
d. is very light in weight.
e. is not easily restructured.

A

a. has its collagen fibers randomly oriented.

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20
Q

A

A

articular cartilage

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21
Q

B

A

epiphysis

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22
Q

C

A

epiphyseal lines

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23
Q

D

A

cancellous bone

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24
Q

E

A

diaphysis

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25
Q

An X-ray determines that Peter fractured the shaft of his humerus. The break is in the _____________ of the bone.

Select one:
a. epiphysis
b. epiphyseal line
c. diaphysis
d. growth plate
e. articular surface

A

c. diaphysis

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26
Q

When blood calcium levels are low

Select one:
a. osteoclast activity increases.
b. calcitonin secretion increases.
c. calcium absorption is reduced.
d. bones produce more bone tissue.
e. osteoblast activity increases.

A

a. osteoclast activity increases.

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27
Q

Which of the following statements regarding calcium homeostasis is true?

Select one:
a. Parathyroid hormone inhibits osteoclast activity.
b. When blood calcium levels are too low, osteoclast activity increases.
c. Increased osteoblast activity increases blood calcium levels.
d. Parathyroid hormone increases calcium loss from the kidney.
e. Calcitonin elevates blood calcium levels.

A

b. When blood calcium levels are too low, osteoclast activity increases.

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28
Q

Proteoglycan molecules in the matrix of cartilage

Select one:
a. replace collagen fibers in the matrix.
b. give cartilage its resilient nature.
c. fill the lacunae.
d. make the perichondrium very stretchable.
e. make cartilage hard and compact.

A

b. give cartilage its resilient nature.

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29
Q

Chondroblasts produce

Select one:
a. ligaments.
b. cartilage matrix.
c. bone tissue.
d. blood cells.
e. synovial fluid.

A

b. cartilage matrix.

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30
Q

If an X-ray shows a black area in the region of the epiphyseal plate,

Select one:
a. the bone is fractured.
b. growth of the bone is complete.
c. marrow is forming in the cancellous bone.
d. the epiphyseal plate has not completely ossified.
e. the cartilage is absent.

A

d. the epiphyseal plate has not completely ossified.

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31
Q

Which of the following statements about bone remodeling and repair is correct?

Select one:
a. Bone remodeling involves removal of old bone by osteoblasts.
b. As a long bone increases in diameter, the size of the marrow cavity decreases.
c. The rate of bone remodeling increases in the elderly.
d. Exposure of a bone to increased mechanical stress can lead to bone remodeling.
e. Bone remodeling does not involve the activity of the osteoclasts and the osteoblasts.

A

d. Exposure of a bone to increased mechanical stress can lead to bone remodeling.

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32
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

Select one:
a. increased Ca2+ uptake by the small intestine
b. increased vitamin D formation in the kidneys
c. increased Ca2+ reabsorption by the kidneys
d. decreased Ca2+ loss by the kidneys
e. All of these are effects of PTH.

A

e. All of these are effects of PTH.

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33
Q

The auditory ossicles are part of the

Select one:
a. axial skeleton.
b. appendicular skeleton.

A

a. axial skeleton.

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34
Q

Which cranial bone forms the bony eyebrow ridges and roofs of the orbits?

Select one:
a. maxilla
b. zygomatic
c. frontal
d. sphenoid
e. temporal

A

c. frontal

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35
Q

Which of the following is a function of the vertebral column?

Select one:
a. It supports the weight of the body.
b. It allows spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord.
c. It serves as a passageway for the cranial nerves.
d. It contains numerous foramens for the passageway of blood vessels.
e. It protects the brain.

A

b. It allows spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord.

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36
Q

Which of the following facial bones is correctly matched with its function?

Select one:
a. maxilla - possesses sockets for teeth
b. vomer - forms the hard palate
c. inferior nasal conchae - contain nasolacrimal canals
d. zygomatic - provides attachment point for temporalis muscle
e. temporal - is part of the orbit.

A

a. maxilla - possesses sockets for teeth

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37
Q

In a herniated (“ruptured” or “slipped”) disc, the ring of fibrocartilage called the ___________ cracks and the _____________ oozes out.

Select one:
a. nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus
b. lamina; nucleus pulposus
c. anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus
d. anulus fibrosus; body
e. nucleus pulposus; lamina

A

c. anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus

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38
Q

What results from damage to annulus fibrosus and release of nucleus pulposus?

Select one:
a. lordosis
b. kyphosis
c. scoliosis
d. spina bifida
e. herniated disk

A

e. herniated disk

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39
Q

The humerus articulates with the ulna at the

Select one:
a. medial epicondyle.
b. lateral epicondyle.
c. capitulum.
d. radial fossa.
e. trochlea.

A

e. trochlea.

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40
Q

The junction of two pubic bones is the

Select one:
a. anterior superior iliac spine.
b. sacroiliac joint.
c. symphysis pubis.
d. iliac fossa.
e. ischial tuberosity.

A

c. symphysis pubis.

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41
Q

Which of the following situations could interfere with normal child birth?

Select one:
a. small ischial spines
b. a small pelvic outlet
c. an enlarged iliac crest
d. a wide, circular pelvic inlet
e. widely spaced ischial spines

A

b. a small pelvic outlet

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42
Q

Failure of the palatine processes of the maxilla to fuse properly during development results in a

Select one:
a. cleft lip.
b. cleft chin.
c. cleft palate.
d. deviated septum.
e. clogged sinus.

A

c. cleft palate.

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43
Q

Spongy bone tissue

Select one:
a. is very dense.
b. contains concentric lamellae.
c. contains interconnecting plates called trabeculae.
d. has many spaces and lacks osteocytes.
e. is the primary component of compact bone.

A

c. contains interconnecting plates called trabeculae.

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44
Q

The type of lamellae found between osteons (Haversian systems) is

Select one:
a. circumferential.
b. concentric.
c. interstitial.
d. appositional.
e. oppositional.

A

c. interstitial.

45
Q

Thin sheets of bone matrix are

Select one:
a. lamellae.
b. lacunae.
c. canaliculi.
d. periosteum.
e. trabeculae.

A

a. lamellae.

46
Q

Some marrow of long bones is termed “yellow” marrow under normal conditions. The function of yellow marrow is to

Select one:
a. manufacture blood cells.
b. manufacture tissue cells for the skin.
c. store adipose tissue.
d. store bone-forming cells.
e. make vitamin D.

A

c. store adipose tissue.

47
Q

The proportion of collagen to hydroxyapatite in bone determines the

Select one:
a. thickness of the bone.
b. length of the bone.
c. strength of the bone.
d. ability of the bone to heal.
e. growth rate of bone.

A

c. strength of the bone.

48
Q

Which of the following matrix molecules in cartilage tends to trap large quantities of water?

Select one:
a. collagen
b. proteoglycan
c. hyaluronic acid
d. elastin
e. chondrocytes

A

b. proteoglycan

49
Q

The connective tissue sheath of cartilage is called the

Select one:
a. matrix.
b. chondrocyte.
c. ligamentous cord.
d. lacuna.
e. perichondrium.

A

e. perichondrium.

50
Q

The flat bones of the skull develop from

Select one:
a. hyaline cartilage.
b. areolar tissue.
c. compact bone.
d. fibrous connective tissue.
e. fibrocartilage.

A

d. fibrous connective tissue.

51
Q

How does the digestive system contribute to osteoporosis?

Select one:
a. inadequate amounts of calcium and vitamin D in the diet
b. lack of exercise reduces muscle stress on bone
c. pain following injury helps prevent further injury
d. blood clotting starts repair process
e. calcitonin is used to treat osteoporosis

A

a. inadequate amounts of calcium and vitamin D in the diet

52
Q

What are the maintenance cells in bone tissue?

Select one:
a. osteocytes
b. osteoblasts
c. osteoclasts
d. chondrocytes
e. osteochondral progenitor cells

A

a. osteocytes

53
Q

The common name for the phalanges is the

Select one:
a. zygomatic bone.
b. finger bones.
c. kneecap.
d. breastbone.
e. shinbone.

A

b. finger bones.

54
Q

The frontal bone is known as the

Select one:
a. collar bone.
b. elbow.
c. tail bone.
d. hip bone.
e. forehead.

A

e. forehead.

55
Q

Which of the following facial bones is correctly matched with its function?

Select one:
a. maxilla - possesses sockets for teeth
b. vomer - forms the hard palate
c. inferior nasal conchae - contain nasolacrimal canals
d. zygomatic - provides attachment point for temporalis muscle
e. temporal - is part of the orbit.

A

a. maxilla - possesses sockets for teeth

56
Q

Which of the following is a function of the vertebral column?

Select one:
a. It supports the weight of the body.
b. It allows spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord.
c. It serves as a passageway for the cranial nerves.
d. It contains numerous foramens for the passageway of blood vessels.
e. It protects the brain.

A

b. It allows spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord.

57
Q

The ligamentum nuchae

Select one:
a. protects the brain.
b. is a part of the nose.
c. moves the eye.
d. supports the jaw.
e. helps keep the head erect.

A

e. helps keep the head erect.

58
Q

What results from damage to annulus fibrosus and release of nucleus pulposus?

Select one:
a. lordosis
b. kyphosis
c. scoliosis
d. spina bifida
e. herniated disk

A

e. herniated disk

59
Q

Maya is experiencing pain and discomfort in her posterior coxal region. Which specific joint may be the problem?

Select one:
a. proximal radio-ulnar joint
b. sacroiliac joint
c. symphysis pubis
d. knee joint
e. glenohumeral joint

A

b. sacroiliac joint

60
Q

The acromion process

Select one:
a. is part of the clavicle.
b. articulates with the coracoid process.
c. forms the most inferior part of the glenoid fossa.
d. has no function.
e. has an articulation with the clavicle.

A

e. has an articulation with the clavicle.

61
Q

The loss of height that occurs with aging is due to compression of the

Select one:
a. pelvic girdle.
b. vertebral arches.
c. vertebral bodies.
d. vertebral foramen.
e. intervertebral discs.

A

e. intervertebral discs.

62
Q

A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the _______

Select one:
a. palatine bones.
b. lacrimal bones.
c. mandible.
d. vomer bone.
e. frontal bone.

A

a. palatine bones

63
Q

Which of these is not a function of bone?

internal support and protection
attachment for the muscles
calcium and phosphate storage
blood cell production
vitamin D storage

A

vitamin D storage

64
Q

Chondrocytes are mature cartilage cells within the ____ , and they are derived from _____.

perichondrium, fibroblasts
perichondrium, chondroblasts
lacunae, fibroblasts
lacunae, chondroblasts

A

lacunae, chondroblasts

65
Q

Which of these statements concerning cartilage is correct?

Cartilage often occurs in thin plates or sheets.
Chondrocytes receive nutrients and oxygen from blood vessels in the matrix.
Articular cartilage has a thick perichondrium layer.
The perichondrium contains both chondrocytes and osteocytes.
Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes within the tissue add more matrix from the inside.

A

Cartilage often occurs in thin plates or sheets.

66
Q

Which of these substances makes up the major portion of bone?

collagen
hydroxyapatite
proteoglycan aggregates
osteocytes
osteoblasts

A

hydroxyapatite

67
Q

The flexible strength of bone occurs because of

osteoclasts.
ligaments.
hydroxyapatite.
collagen fibers.
periosteum.

A

collagen fibers.

68
Q

The primary function of osteoclasts is to

prevent osteoblasts from forming.
become osteocytes.
break down bone.
secrete calcium salts and collagen fibers.
form the periosteum.

A

break down bone.

69
Q

Central canals

connect perforating canals to canaliculi.
connect spongy bone to compact bone.
are where blood cells are produced.
are found only in spongy bone.
are lined with periosteum.

A

connect perforating canals to canaliculi.

70
Q

The lamellae found in osteons are _____ lamellae.

circumferential
concentric
interstitial

A

concentric

71
Q

Spongy bone consists of interconnecting rods or plates of bone called

osteons.
canaliculi.
circumferential lamellae.
a haversian system.
trabeculae.

A

trabeculae.

72
Q

A fracture in the shaft of a bone is a break in the

epiphysis.
perichondrium.
diaphysis.
articular cartilage.

A

diaphysis.

73
Q

Yellow marrow is

found mostly in children’s bones.
found in the epiphyseal plate.
important for blood cell production.
mostly adipose tissue.

A

mostly adipose tissue.

74
Q

The periosteum

is an epithelial tissue membrane.
covers the outer and internal surfaces of bone.
contains only osteoblasts.
becomes continuous with collagen fibers of tendons or ligaments.
has a single fibrous layer.

A

becomes continuous with collagen fibers of tendons or ligaments.

75
Q

Given these events:
(1) Osteochondral progenitor cells become osteoblasts.
(2) Connective tissue membrane is formed.
(3) Osteoblasts produce woven bone.

Which sequence best describes intramembranous bone formation?
1,2,3
1,3,2
2,1,3
2,3,1
3,2,1

A

2,1,3

76
Q

Given these processes:
(1) Chondrocytes die.
(2) Cartilage matrix calcifies.
(3) Chondrocytes hypertrophy.
(4) Osteoblasts deposit bone.
(5) Blood vessels grow into lacunae.

Which sequence best represents the order in which these processes occur during endochondral bone formation?
3,2,1,4,5
3,2,1,5,4
5,2,3,4,1
3,2,5,1,4
3,5,2,4,1

A

3,2,1,5,4

77
Q

Intramembranous bone formation

occurs at the epiphyseal plate.
is responsible for growth in diameter of a bone.
gives rise to the flat bones of the skull.
occurs within a hyaline cartilage model.
produces articular cartilage in the long bones.

A

gives rise to the flat bones of the skull.

78
Q

The ossification regions formed during early fetal development

are secondary ossification centers.
become articular cartilage.
become medullary cavities.
become the epiphyses.
are primary ossification centers.

A

are primary ossification centers.

79
Q

Growth in the length of a long bone occurs

at the primary ossification center.
beneath the periosteum.
at the center of the diaphysis.
at the epiphyseal plate.
at the epiphyseal line.

A

at the epiphyseal plate.

80
Q

During growth in length of a long bone, cartilage forms and then ossifies. The location of the ossification is the zone of

calcification.
hypertrophy.
proliferation.
resting cartilage.

A

calcification.

81
Q

Given these processes:
(1) An osteon is produced.
(2) Osteoblasts from the periosteum form a series of ridges.
(3) The periosteum becomes the endosteum.
(4) Osteoblasts lay down bone to produce a concentric lamella.
(5) Grooves are changed into tunnels.

Which sequence best represents the order in which these processes occur during growth in the width of a long bone?
1,4,2,3,5
2,5,3,4,1
3,4,2,1,5
4,2,1,5,3
5,4,2,1,3

A

2,5,3,4,1

82
Q

Chronic vitamin D deficiency results in which of these consequences?

Bones become brittle.
The percentage of bone composed of hydroxyapatite increases.
Bones become soft and pliable.
Scurvy occurs.
Both a and b are correct.

A

Bones become soft and pliable.

83
Q

Estrogen

stimulates a burst of growth at puberty.
causes a later closure of the epiphyseal plate than testosterone does.
causes a longer growth period in females than testosterone causes in males.
tends to prolong the growth phase of the epiphyseal plates.
All of these are correct.

A

stimulates a burst of growth at puberty.

84
Q

Bone remodeling can occur

when woven bone is converted into lamellar bone.
as bones are subjected to varying patterns of stress.
as a long bone increases in diameter.
when new osteons form in compact bone.
All of these are correct.

A

All of these are correct.

85
Q

Given these processes:
(1) cartilage ossification
(2) external callus formation
(3) hematoma formation
(4) internal callus formation
(5) remodeling of woven bone into compact bone

Which sequence best represents the order in which the processes occur during repair of a fracture?
1,2,3,4,5
2,4,3,1,5
3,4,2,1,5
4,1,5,2,3
5,3,4,2,1

A

3,4,2,1,5

86
Q

Which of these processes during bone repair requires the longest period of time?

cartilage ossification
external callus formation
hematoma formation
internal callus formation
remodeling of woven bone into compact bone

A

remodeling of woven bone into compact bone

87
Q

If the secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases, osteoclast activity _______ and blood Ca2+ levels ______ .
decreases, decrease
decreases, increase
increases, decrease
increases, increase

A

increases, increase

88
Q

Which of these is part of the appendicular skeleton?

cranium
ribs
clavicle
sternum
vertebra

A

clavicle

89
Q

A knoblike lump on a bone is called a

spine.
facet.
tuberosity.
sulcus.
ramus.

A

tuberosity.

90
Q

The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the _____ form the nasal septum.

palatine process of the maxilla
horizontal plate of the palatine
vomer
nasal bone
lacrimal bone

A

vomer

91
Q

Which of these bones does not contain a paranasal sinus?

ethmoid
sphenoid
frontal
temporal
maxilla

A

temporal

92
Q

The mandible articulates with the skull at the ____

styloid process.
occipital condyle.
mandibular fossa.
zygomatic arch.
medial pterygoid.

A

mandibular fossa.

93
Q

The nerves for the sense of smell pass through the

cribriform plate.
nasolacrimal canal.
internal auditory canal.
optic canal.
orbital fissure.

A

cribriform plate.

94
Q

The major blood supply to the brain enters through the

foramen magnum.
carotid canals.
jugular foramina.
Both a and b are correct.
All of these are correct.

A

Both a and b are correct.

95
Q

The site of the sella turcica is the

sphenoid bone.
maxillae.
frontal bone.
ethmoid bone.
temporal bone.

A

sphenoid bone.

96
Q

Which of these bones is not in contact with the sphenoid bone?

maxilla
inferior nasal concha
ethmoid
parietal
vomer

A

inferior nasal concha

97
Q

A herniated disk occurs when

the annulus fibrosus ruptures.
the intervertebral disk slips out of place.
the spinal cord ruptures.
too much fluid builds up in the nucleus pulposus.
All of these are correct.

A

the annulus fibrosus ruptures.

98
Q

The weight-bearing portion of a vertebra is the

vertebral arch.
articular process.
body.
transverse process.
spinous process.

A

body.

99
Q

Transverse foramina are found only in

cervical vertebrae.
thoracic vertebrae.
lumbar vertebrae.
the sacrum.
the coccyx.

A

cervical vertebrae.

100
Q

Which of these statements concerning ribs is correct?

The true ribs attach directly to the sternum with costal cartilage.
There are five pairs of floating ribs.
The head of the rib attaches to the transverse process of the vertebra.
Vertebrochondral ribs are classified as true ribs.
Floating ribs do not attach to vertebrae.

A

The true ribs attach directly to the sternum with costal cartilage.

101
Q

The point where the scapula and clavicle connect is the

coracoid process.
styloid process.
glenoid cavity.
acromion process.
capitulum.

A

acromion process.

102
Q

The distal medial process of the humerus to which the ulna joins is the

epicondyle.
deltoid tuberosity.
malleolus.
capitulum.
trochlea.

A

trochlea.

103
Q

Which of these is not a point of muscle attachment on the pectoral girdle or upper limb?

epicondyles
mastoid process
radial tuberosity
spine of scapula
greater tubercle

A

mastoid process

104
Q

The bone(s) of the foot on which the tibia rests is (are) the

talus.
calcaneus.
metatarsal bones.
navicular.
phalanges.

A

talus.

105
Q

The projection on the hipbone of the pelvic girdle that is used as a landmark for finding an injection site is the

ischial tuberosity.
iliac crest.
anterior superior iliac spine.
posterior inferior iliac spine.
ischial spine.

A

anterior superior iliac spine.

106
Q

When comparing the pectoral girdle with the pelvic girdle, which of these statements is correct?

The pectoral girdle has greater mass than the pelvic girdle.
The pelvic girdle is more firmly attached to the body than the pectoral girdle.
The pectoral girdle has the limbs more securely attached than the pelvic girdle.
The pelvic girdle allows greater mobility than the pectoral girdle.

A

The pelvic girdle is more firmly attached to the body than the pectoral girdle.

107
Q

When comparing a male pelvis with a female pelvis, which of these statements is correct?

The pelvic inlet in males is larger and more circular.
The subpubic angle in females is less than 90 degrees.
The ischial spines in males are closer together.
The sacrum in males is broader and less curved.

A

The ischial spines in males are closer together.

108
Q

A site of muscle attachment on the proximal end of the femur is the

greater trochanter.
epicondyle.
greater tubercle.
intercondylar eminence.
condyle.

A

greater trochanter.

Anatomy 1 (17 decks)

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