Chapter 38 Flashcards
A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
A) I
Type I ambulances feature a conventional truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis.
Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, except:
A) emergency care provided at the scene.
B) transport of the patient to the hospital.
C) checking equipment on the ambulance.
D) transferring the patient to the ambulance.
A) emergency care provided at the scene.
Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the most readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance?
A) Emergency childbirth kit
B) Stethoscope and penlight
C) Long bone splinting device
D) Bleeding control supplies
D) Bleeding control supplies
Bleeding control supplies are critical and should be the most readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance.
Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped.
A) 100
B) 200
C) 300
D) 400
C) 300
Portable and mounted suction units must generate a vacuum of at least 300 mm Hg.
Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must:
A) undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis.
B) hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen.
C) be easily identifiable by their bright green color.
D) be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.
D) be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min
Oxygen cylinders must be capable of delivering oxygen within this range.
Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, except:
A) face shields.
B) hazardous materials gear.
C) safety goggles.
D) turnout gear.
B) hazardous materials gear
Hazardous materials gear is not standard safety equipment on every ambulance.
Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes:
A) at least one EMT.
B) at least two EMTs.
C) an EMT and a paramedic.
D) an EMT and an AEMT.
A) at least one EMT.
During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is most important to:
A) reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates.
B) reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes.
C) converse with the patient and provide reassurance.
D) complete the run form before arrival at the hospital.
C) converse with the patient and provide reassurance.
The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called:
A) cleaning.
B) disinfection.
C) sterilization.
D) high-level disinfection.
A) cleaning
Removing visible contaminants is called cleaning.
When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should:
A) pass other drivers on the right side.
B) remain in the extreme left-hand lane.
C) remain in the extreme right-hand lane.
D) drive in the center lane of the highway.
B) remain in the extreme left-hand lane
On a multilane highway, the left-hand lane is typically the safest for emergency vehicles.
Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would most likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30
D) 30
Hydroplaning is most likely to occur at speeds greater than 30 mph.
While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should:
A) pass the bus only after all the children have exited.
B) back up and take an alternate route to the scene.
C) slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side.
D) stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.
D) stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing
You must stop for a school bus with flashing red lights, even in an emergency.
Typically, medevac helicopters fly at speeds between:
A) 100 and 120 mph.
B) 120 and 140 mph.
C) 130 and 150 mph.
D) 150 and 200 mph.
C) 130 and 150 mph
Medevac helicopters typically fly at speeds between 130 and 150 mph.
The most common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at:
A) stop signs.
B) stop lights.
C) intersections.
D) railroad crossings.
C) intersections
The most common and serious ambulance crashes occur at intersections.
When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should:
A) park downhill from the scene.
B) ask the driver to exit the vehicle.
C) position the ambulance upwind.
D) quickly gain access to the patient.
C) position the ambulance upwind.
The purpose of a jump kit is to:
A) facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact.
B) manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance.
C) carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director.
D) contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.
C) carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director.
When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should:
A) slow down and allow the driver to pass you.
B) increase your speed to create more distance.
C) slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater.
D) stop the ambulance and confront the driver.
A) slow down and allow the driver to pass you.
Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include:
A) the ability to operate an ambulance at a high rate of speed.
B) a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers.
C) realizing that lights and siren will be effective traffic tools.
D) an offensive attitude about driving during an emergency call.
B) a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers
Safe ambulance operators must remain calm and tolerant of other drivers.
Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, except:
A) completing a detailed written report.
B) informing the dispatcher of your arrival.
C) restocking any disposable items you used.
D) giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.
D) giving a verbal report to the triage clerk
Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is correct?
A) If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand.
B) If the patient is stable, you may use the warning lights without the siren.
C) Warning lights and siren should be avoided, even if the patient is unstable.
D) It is generally acceptable to increase your speed if lights and siren are in use.
A) If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand
Informing the patient about the siren can help reduce anxiety.
How often do you check the condition of a stable and unstable patient while en route?
15 minutes for stable patient.
5 minutes for unstable patient.
List the nine phases of an ambulance call
- Preparation for the call.
- Dispatch
- En route
- Arrival at scene
- transfer of patient to ambulance
- En route to facility
- At facility
- en route to station
- Postrun
