Chapter 14 Flashcards

1
Q

What are ABCs of BLS? When is ABC used?

A

Airway (obstruction)

Breathing (respiratory arrest)

Circulation (cardiac arrest or severe bleeding)

-Used if patient is alive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are CAB of BLS? when is CAB used?

A

Circulation (cardiac arrest or severe bleeding)

Airway (obstruction)

Breathing (obstruction)

  • Used if patient is dead.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the compression to breath ratio for adults?

A

30 compressions
2 breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Permanent brain damage is possible if brain is without oxygen for how long?

A

4 to 6 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where do you check for a pulse on a baby?

A

Brachial artery between bicep and tricep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the CPR steps?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How often do you switch roles during CPR with your partner?

A

2 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the depth for chest compressions from 0-1 years old?

A

1-1.5 inch depth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the depth for chest compressions from 2 years old and above?

A

2 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do you do with any transdermal patch (besides bandaid) when showing up to a call?

A

Remove them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Never place any patient in which position?

A

Prone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Too much artificial ventilation may result in ____________.

A

Gastric Distention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the compression to breath ratio for pediatrics?

A

15 compressions
2 breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is “STOP” regarding when to finish CPR?

A

S - Patient STARTS breathing and has a pulse.

T - Patient TRANSFERRED to another provider of equal or higher-level training.

O - You are OUT of strength.

P - Physician directs to discontinue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The preferred method to dislodge a sever airwayy obstruction in adults and children.

A

Abdominal thrust maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position or beyond (decompression).

A

active compression-decompression CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This technique may increase the amount of blood that returns to the heart and, thus, the amount of blood ejected from the heart during the compression phase…

A

Active compression-decompression CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Advanced life-saving procedures, some of which are now being provided by the EMT

A

Advanced life support (ALS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Noninvasive emergency life-saving care that is used to treat medical conditions, including airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

A

Basic Life Support (BLS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The combination of chest compressions and rescue breathing used to establish adequate ventilation and circulation in a patient who is not breathing and has no pulse.

A

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The total percentage of time during a resuscitation attempt in which active chest compressions are being performed.

A

Chest Compression Fraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin; a definitive sign of death.

A

Dependent Lividity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A condition in which air fills the stomach, often as a result of high volume and pressure during artificial ventilation.

A

Gastric Distention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A combination of two movements to open the airway by tilting the forehead back and lifting the chin; not used for trauma patients.

A

Head tilt-chin life maneuver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Rapid or deep breathing that lowers the blood carbon dioxide level below normal; may lead to increased intrathoracic pressure, decreased venous return and hypotension when associated with bag-mask device use.

A

Hyperventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A valve device placed between the endotracheal tube and a bag-mask device that limits the amount of air entering the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions.

A

Impedance threshold device (ITD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; potentially reversible because permanent injury has not yet occurred.

A

Ischemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Technique to open the airway by placing the fingers behind the angle of the jaw and bringing the jaw forward; used for patients who may have a cervical spine injury.

A

Jaw-thrust maneuver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band and blackboard that is either electrically or pneumatically driven to compress the heart by putting inward pressure on the thorax.

A

Load-distributing band (LDB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which intervention or interventions would have the MOST positive impact on the cardiac arrest patient’s outcome?

A.) Advanced airway management
B.) Early CPR and defibrillation
C.) IV fluid Administration
D.) Cardiac medications

A

B.) Early CPR and Defibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The AED gives a “no shock” message to a patient who is in cardiac arrest. You should:

A. resume chest compressions.
B. check for a carotid pulse.
C. reanalyze the cardiac rhythm.
D. deliver two rescue breaths.

A

A.) resume chest compressions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the maximum amount of time that should be spent checking for spontaneous breathing in an unresponsive child?

A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds

A

B.) 10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When performing CPR on an adult, you should compress the chest to a depth of _________ at a rate of ___________ compressions per minute.

A.) 1 inch to 1.4 inches (2.5 cm to 3.5 cm); 80 to 100
B.) 2 inches to 2.4 inches (5 cm to 6 cm); 80 to 100
C.) 1 inch to 1.4 inches (2.5 cm to 3.5 cm); 100 to 120
D.) 2 inches to 2.4 inches (5 cm to 6 cm); 100 to 120

A

D.) 2 inches to 2.4 inches (5 cm to 6 cm); 100 to 120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the proper compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult two-rescuer CPR?

A. 15:2
B. 30:2
C. 50:2
D. 75:2

A

B.) 30:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When checking for a pulse in an infant, you should palpate which of the following arteries?

A. Carotid
B. Femoral
C. Brachial
D. Dorsalis pedis

A

C.) Brachial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When you are performing CPR on an adult or child, you should reassess the patient for return of respirations and/or circulation
approximately every ____ minutes.

A. 5
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

A

C.) 2

37
Q

What is the preferred method of removing a foreign body in an unresponsive child?

A. Back blows
B. Abdominal thrusts
C. Chest compressions
D. Manual removal

A

C.) Chest compressions

38
Q

After you have started CPR in the field, under what circumstances can you stop?

A

After you have initiated CPR in the field, you are committed to continuing resuscitation efforts until one of the following
events occur: the patient regains spontaneous breathing and circulation; you transfer care to another BLS, ALS, or other
emergency care provider; you are physically too tired to continue; or you receive medical direction to stop.

39
Q

Explain why the presence of gastric distention is dangerous to the patient.

A

Gastric distention can be lethal, especially in an unresponsive patient who requires artificial ventilation. The additional air
displaced into the stomach by performing ventilations too fast or with too much force may cause the patient to vomit during CPR
or make it more difficult for you to deliver breaths because the stomach is pressing up on the diaphragm.

40
Q

A device that depresses the sternum via a compressed gas-powered or electric-powered plunger mounted on a backboard.

A

Mechanical piston device

41
Q

A side-lying position used to maintain a clear airway in unresponsive patients who are breathing adequately and do not have suspected injuries to the spine, hips, or pelvis.

A

Recovery position

42
Q

The return of a pulse and effective blood flow to the body in a patient who previously was in cardiac arrest.

A

Return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)

43
Q

Stiffening of the body muscles; a definitive sign of death.

A

Rigor mortis

44
Q

A hard, high-pitched respiratory sound, generally heard during inspiration, that is caused by partial blockage or narrowing of the upper air-way; may be audible without a stethoscope.

A

Stridor

45
Q

The exchange of air between the lungs and the environment, spontaneously by the patient or with assistance from another person, such as an EMT.

A

Ventilation

46
Q

What are the six chain links of survival?

A

Recognition/activation of EMS
Immediate high-quality CPR
Rapid Defibrillation
Basic/Advanced EMS
ALS and Postarrest care (hospital)
Recovery

47
Q

The automated external defibrillator (AED) is not indicated for use in infants younger than ______ year(s) of age.

A

1

48
Q

If a patient is breathing on his or her own and has no signs of trauma, you should place him or her in the ___________ position.

A

Recovery

49
Q

What is the “recovery” position?

A

first aid technique where an unconscious but breathing person is placed on their side with their head tilted back to keep their airway open, allowing any vomit or fluids to drain out of their mouth and preventing choking

50
Q

When is the best time to switch positions when performing two-person CPR?

A

Every 2 minutes (5 cycles)

51
Q

A(n) _________ is a valve device placed between the endotracheal tube and a bag-mask device; it is designed to limit the air entering the lungs during the refill phase between chest compressions.

A

Impedance Threshold Device (ITD)

52
Q

What are the four steps in pediatric basic life support?

A

Check Responsiveness
Open Airway
Chest Compressions
Rescue Breaths

53
Q

Under what situations would you not begin CPR?

A

Obvious death (rigor mortis, liver mortis) etc.
Patient has a DNR.
Non-Survivable Injury.

54
Q

Patients with ________________ are able to exchange adequate amounts of air but still exhibit signs of respiratory distress.

A

mild airway obstruction

55
Q

The __________________ is the preferred way to dislodge a severe airway obstruction in conscious adults and children older than 1 year of age.

A

Abdominal Thrust Maneuver (Heimlich Maneuver)

56
Q

____________ are the preferred method of removing a foreign body airway obstruction in women in advanced stages of pregnancy and in very obese patients.

A

Chest Thrusts

57
Q

Noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

A

Basic Life Support (BLS)

58
Q

_______ results in an absence of forward blood flow.

A

Ventricular fibrillation (VF)

59
Q

What is Ventricular Fibrillation (VF) ?

A

A life threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic electrical activity in the ventricles, causing them to quiver ineffectively and resulting in the absence of pulse and blood flow.

60
Q

A life threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic electrical activity in the ventricles, causing them to quiver ineffectively and resulting in the absence of pulse and blood flow.

A

Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)

61
Q

You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60-year-old woman who collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, spneic, and pulseless. You should:

A. Begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as available.
B. immediately apple the AED as soon as it is available.
C. begin CPR at a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2
D. Apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR.

A

A. Begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as available.

62
Q

You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patent in cardiac arrest by:

A. compressing quickly and releasing slowly.
B. comprising the sternum between the nipples.
C. placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid.
D. Depressing the sternum more than 2.5 inches in depth.

A

B. comprising the sternum between the nipples.

63
Q

After an advanced airway device has been inserted during two-rescuer CPR, you should:

A. pause compressions to deliver ventilations.
B. deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds.
C. decrease the compression rate to about 80 per minute.
D. increase the rescue breathing to a rate of 14 breaths/min

A

B. deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds.

64
Q

The proper depth of chest compression on a 9-month old infant is:

A. one third the diameter of the chest, or about 1.5 inches.
B. one half to two thirds the diameter of the chest.
C. one half the diameter of the chest, or about 1.5 inches.
D. two thirds the diameter of the chest, or about 2 inches.

A

A. one third the diameter of the chest, or about 1.5 inches.

65
Q

CPR should be initiated when:

A. rigor mortis is obvious.
B. a valid living will is unavailable.
C. the carotid pulse is very weak.
D. signs of putrefaction are present.

A

B. a valid living will is unavailable.

66
Q

Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed:

A. until he or she loses consciousness.
B. in sets of five followed by reassessment.
C. about 1 inch below the xiphoid process.
D. until he or she experiences cardiac arrest.

A

A. until he or she loses consciousness.

67
Q

Your initial attempt to ventilate an unresponsive, apnea 30-year-old man is met with resistance and you do not see the chest rise. Your second ventilation attempt is also unsuccessful. You should:

A. suction the oropharynx.
B. Perform a blind finger sweep.
C. perform 30 chest compressions.
D. Ventilate again with greater force.

A

C. perform 30 chest compressions.

68
Q

CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. which of the following would MOST likely explain this?

A. increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse.
B. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.
C. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart.
D. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which resorted her pulse.

A

B. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.

69
Q

Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention?

A. Abdominal thrusts.
B. Chest compressions.
C. Cardiac monitoring.
D. Automated defibrillation.

A

C. Cardiac monitoring.

70
Q

Most prehospital cardiac arrests in adults occur as the result of:

A. severe blunt trauma.
B. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
C. an acute ischemic stroke.
D. obstruction of the airway.

A

B. a cardiac dysrhythmia.

71
Q

Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient’s airway when a spinal injury is suspected?

A. jaw-thrust
B. tongue-jaw lift
C. Head tilt-neck lift
D. Head tilt-chin lift.

A

A. jaw-thrust

72
Q

A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she:

A. is semiconscious, injured, and breathing adequately.
B. has experienced trauma but is breathing effectively.
C. is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately.
D. has a pulse but is unresponsive and breathing shallowly.

A

C. is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately.

73
Q

If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should:

A. reposition the patient’s airway
B. suction the patient’s oropharynx
C. insert an oropharyngeal airway
D. increase the rate of ventilation

A

A. reposition the patient’s airway

74
Q

To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient’s chest at a rate of:

A. 80 to 100 compressions per minute.
B. at least 120 compressions per minute.
C. 100 to 120 compressions per minute.
D. no greater than 100 compressions per minute.

A

C. 100 to 120 compressions per minute.

75
Q

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:

A. a drug overdose.
B. respiratory arrest.
C. severe chest trauma.
D. a cardiac dysrhythmia.

A

B. respiratory arrest.

76
Q

What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer infant CPR?

A. 3:1
B. 5:1
C. 30:2
D. 15:2

A

D. 15:2

77
Q

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:

A. until a radial pulse is felt.
B. with one or two hands.
C. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.
D. 80 to 100 times per minute.

A

B. with one or two hands.

78
Q

Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese?

A. Back slaps
B. Finger sweeps
C. Chest thrusts
D. Abdominal thrusts

A

C. Chest thrusts

79
Q

CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:

A. is self-paced and brief.
B. occurs every 24 months.
C. is delivered by computer.
D. involves hands-on practice.

A

D. involves hands-on practice.

80
Q

When performing chest compressions on an adult, the EMT should compress:

A. at least 1 inch
B. at least 2 inches
C. Between 1 inch and 2 inches
D. greater than 2.4 inches.

A

B. at least 2 inches

81
Q

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:

A. Prone
B. supine.
C. horizontal
D. on a firm surface.

A

A. Prone

82
Q

In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of:

A

30:2

83
Q

What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be deliver per minute to a 4-month old infant?

A

100

84
Q

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the __________ artery.

A

Brachial

85
Q

Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves:

A. back slaps.
B. bag-mask ventilation
C. abdominal thrusts.
D. blind finger sweets.

A

A. back slaps.

86
Q

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:

A. in patients who are intubated.
B. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
C. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
D. when the airway is completely obstructed.

A

B. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.

87
Q

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. rib fractures
B. liver laceration
C. gastric distention
D. a fractured sternum

A

C. gastric distention

88
Q

A 60 year old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:

A. start CPR and transport immediately
B. withheld CPR until he is defibrillated
C. determine if he has a valid living will
D. begin CPR until an AED is available.

A

D. begin CPR until an AED is available.