Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MOD > Chapter 3 Part 4 > Flashcards

Chapter 3 Part 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the mediators of vasodilation?

A

histamine and prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the mediators of increased vascular permiability?

A

histamine, serotonin, C3a and C5a, leukotrienes (C, D, and E)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the mediators of chemotaxis?

A

TNF, IL-1, chemokines, C3a, C5a, leukotriene B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the mediators of a fever?

A

IL-1, TNF, prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the mediators of pain?

A

prostaglandins and bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the mediators of tissue damage?

A

lysosomal enzymes of leukocytes and ROS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Definition of repair

A

restoration of tissue architecture and function after an injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What two reactions must occur to repair damaged tissues?

A

regeneration/proliferation by residual cells and maturation of tissue stem cells; formation of a connective tissue scar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is tissue regeneration dependent on?

A

The ability of tissues to intrinsically proliferate, a process driven by growth factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What cell types proliferate during tissue repair?

A

remnants of injured tissue, vascular endothelial cells, fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define labile cells

A

Cells that continuously divide, are lost and replaced by maturation of stem cells; examples include surface epithelia, hematopoietic cells, cuboidal epithelia of exocrine glands, columnar epithelium of GI,etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define stable tissues

A

Quiescent cells in G0 that have minimally proliferative activity; examples include liver, kidney, pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define permanent tissues

A

cells that are terminally differentiated and nonproliferative; examples include neurons and cardiac muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the mechanism of tissue regeneration in labile tissues?

A

Injured cells are rapidly replaced by proliferation of residual cells and differentiation of stem cells on an intact basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two cell types responsible for liver regeneration?

A

proliferation of hepatocytes and repopulation from progenitor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the first stage of hepatocyte proliferation in liver regeneration?

A

Priming; Kupffer cells release IL-6 to make hepatocytes competent to respond to growth factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the second stage of hepatocyte proliferation in liver regeneration?

A

Growth factor; HGF and TGF-alpha stimulate hepatocyte metabolism, triggering the differentiation of almost all parenchymal and nonparenchymal hepatocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the third stage of hepatocyte proliferation in liver regeneration?

A

Termination; hepatocytes return to quiescence, mechanism unknown (possibly TGF-B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where do liver progenitor cells reside?

A

Canals of Hering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the steps of scar formation?

A

Angiogenesis, formation of granulation tissue, remodeling of connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What role do macrophages play in scar formation?

A

Clear dead tissue and offending agent, provide growth factors for cell proliferation, secrete cytokines that stimulate fibroblast proliferation and connective tissue synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Definition of angiogenesis

A

Process of new blood vessel development from existing blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the first step of angiogenesis?

A

Vasodilation in response to nitric oxide and increased permeability by VEGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the second step of angiogenesis?

A

Separation of pericytes from albuminal surface and breakdown of basement membrane to allow for vessel sprouting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the third step of angiogenesis?

A

Migration of endothelial cells toward area of tissue injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the fourth step of angiogenesis?

A

Proliferation of endothelial cells just behind the tip of migrating cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the fifth step of angiogenesis?

A

Remodeling capillary tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the sixth step of angiogenesis?

A

Recruitment of pericytes to form mature vessel

29
Q

What is the seventh step of angiogenesis?

A

Suppression of endothelial proliferation and migration and deposition of basement membrane

30
Q

What are the prominent growth factors involved in angiogenesis?

A

VEGF-A, FGF-2, Angiopoietins 1 and 2, PDGF, TGF-B

31
Q

What is the function of VEGF in angiogenesis?

A

Stimulates endothelial cell proliferation and migration, promotes vasodilation and formation of vascular lumen

32
Q

What is the function of FGF-2 in angiogenesis?

A

stimulates proliferation of endothelial cells and promotes migration of macrophages and fibroblasts

33
Q

What is the function of angiopoietins in angiogenesis?

A

Structural maturation of blood vessels by the recruitment of pericytes and smooth muscle

34
Q

What is the function of PDGF in angiogenesis?

A

recruitment of smooth muscle cells

35
Q

What is the function of TGF-B inangiogenesis?

A

suppresses endothelial proliferation and migration

36
Q

What is the notch signaling pathway?

A

regulates the sprouting and branching of new vessels

37
Q

What role do ECM proteins play in angiogenesis?

A

Form interactions with integrin receptors on endothelial cells and provide a scaffold for vessel growth

38
Q

What is the role of metalloproteinases in angiogenesis?

A

ECM degradation to permit remodeling and extension of vascular tube

39
Q

What two steps are involved in the deposition of connective tissue during scar formation?

A

migration and proliferation of fibroblasts to injury, deposition of ECM proteins produced by cells

40
Q

What are the main cell types involved in deposition of connective tissue?

A

M2 macrophages, mast cells, lymphocytes

41
Q

What is the most important cytokine for deposition of connective tissue in scar formation?

42
Q

What is the role of TGF-B in tissue deposition?

A

stimulates fibroblast migration and proliferation, increases synthesis of collagen and fibronectin, and decreases degradation of ECM by inhibiting metalloproteinases

43
Q

What are the levels of TGF-B regulated by?

A

Activation of latent TGF-B, rate of secretion of active molecule and ECM factors that enhance or diminish activity of TGF

44
Q

What components does scar tissue consist of?

A

fibroblasts, dense collagen, fragments of elastic tisue and other ECM components

45
Q

What cells contribute to scar contraction?

A

myofibroblasts

46
Q

What enzymes are primarily responsible for the remodeling of connective tissue?

A

matrix metalloproteinases

47
Q

What are the functions of matrix metalloproteinases?

A

cleavage of fibrillar collagen, amorphous collagen and fibronectin, degradation of proteoglycans and laminin

48
Q

What factors regulate matrix metalloproteinase functions?

A

Proteases activate, TIMPs inhibit

49
Q

What are key factors that can alter tissue repair?

A

infection, diabetes, nutritional status, glucocorticoids, mechanical factors, poor perfusion, foreign bodies, type and extent of injury, location of injury

50
Q

What defines healing by first intention?

A

injury involves only epithelial layer and requires epithelial regeneration

51
Q

What are the three steps of healing by first intention?

A

inflammation, proliferation, and maturation

52
Q

What initially happens when a wound occurs?

A

rapid activation of coagulation pathways and formation of a blood clot on the surface, acts as a scaffold for migrating cells

53
Q

What happens within the first 24 hours of a wound during healing by first intention?

A

Neutrophils migrate towards the fibrin clot and clear debris, basal cells at the edge of the debris begin to undergo mitosis and deposit components of basement membrane

54
Q

What should occur by day three during healing by first intention?

A

Neutrophils are replaced by macrophages and granulation tissue begins to invade the wound, collagen fibers begin to form

55
Q

What should occur by day five of healing by first intention?

A

Neovascularization and migration of fibroblasts (driven by TNF, TGF-B and FGF from macrophages)

56
Q

What occurs during the second week of healing by first intention>

A

Continued collagen accumulation and fibroblast proliferation, regression of vascular channels

57
Q

What defines healing by second intention?

A

extensive tissue loss involving a combination of regeneration and scarring

58
Q

What are some key differences between primary and secondary healing?

A

Secondary healing involves larger clot layers, exudate, and necrotic debris and larger amounts of granulation tissue, involves wound contraction

59
Q

What is the initial provisional matrix formed from in healing by second intention?

A

fibrin, plasma, fibronectin, type III collagen

60
Q

What is the second provisional matrix formed from in healing by second intention?

A

Type I collagen

61
Q

What is primarily responsible for the recovery of tensile strength after a wound?

A

excess collagen synthesis

62
Q

Define fibrosis

A

excessive deposition of collagen and other ECM components, often refers to abnormal development of collagen in damaged organs

63
Q

What are two complications of inadequate formation of granulation tissue?

A

wound dehiscence (wound rupture) and ulceration

64
Q

What causes keloid and hypertrophic scar formation?

A

Excessive formation of components of the repair process

65
Q

What is the difference between a keloid and a hypertrophic scar?

A

Hypertrophic scars occur due to excessive amounts of collagen within the boundary of the wound, Keloid formation occurs when the scar tissue grows beyond boundaries of the wound

66
Q

What is exuberant granulation?

A

Formation of excessive amounts of granulation tissue

67
Q

What is a desmoid or aggressive fibromatoses?

A

neoplasms that occur due to exuberant fibroblast proliferation and other connective tissue elements

68
Q

What is the result of abnormal wound contraction?

A

Contracture leading to wound deformities, commonly seen after serious burns and most commonly occur on palms, soles and anterior thorax

MOD (34 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions