Chapter 3 - Inflammation and Repair Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of typical inflammatory reaction?

A. Recognition - Removal - Regulation - Recruitment - Repair
B. Recruitment - Recognition - Removal - Regulation - Repair
C. Recognition - Recruitment - Removal - Regulation - Repair
D. Recruitment - Recognition - Removal - Repair- Regulation

A

C. Recognition - Recruitment - Removal - Regulation - Repair

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2
Q

All of the following are true about acute inflammation EXCEPT:

A. Self-limited
B. Short duration (several hours to days)
C. Emigration of predominant macrophages
D. Characterized by edema

A

C. Emigration of predominant macrophages

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3
Q

Which of the cardinal signs of inflammation is mostly associated with pain?

A. Rubor
B. Tumor
C. Calor
D. Dolor
E. Functio laesa
A

D. Dolor

Rubor = Redness
Tumor = Swelling
Calor = Heat
Dolor = Pain
Functio laesa = loss of function
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4
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of inflammation?

A. Tissue necrosis
B. Infections
C. Foreign bodies
D. Hypersensitivity reactions
D. Immune reactions
A

B. Infections

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5
Q

Which of the following is the best-defined cellular receptor, which activate production of molecules involved in inflammation?

A. Plasma membrane receptors
B. Endosomes
C. Cytosol receptors
D. Toll-like receptors

A

D. Toll-like receptors

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6
Q

Which of the following induces IL-1 production?

A. Phagosome
B. Lysosome
C. Inflammasome
D. Endosome
E. Phagolysosome
A

C. Inflammasome

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7
Q

All of the following correctly describes an exudate EXCEPT:

A. Intravascular fluid
B. High protein concentration
C. Result of increased small vessel permeability
D. An example is pus (rich in leukocytes, debris, microbes)

A

A. Intravascular fluid

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8
Q

All of the following correctly describes an transudate EXCEPT:

A. Low protein
B. No/little cellular material
C. High specific gravity
D. Ultrafiltrate of blood plasma
E. Result of increased hydrostatic pressure
A

C. High specific gravity

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9
Q

All of the following are true about contraction/retraction of endothelial cells EXCEPT:

A. Induced by histamine
B. Long-lived (hours to days)
C. Results in opening of inter-endothelial gaps
D. Most common mechanism of vascular leakage

A

B. Long-lived (hours to days)

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10
Q

All of the following are true about endothelial injury EXCEPT:

A. Caused by thermal burns, some microbial toxins
B. Results in endothelial cell atrophy and attachment
C. Neutrophil adheres to endothelium
D. Leakage starts immediately after injury

A

B. Results in endothelial cell atrophy and attachment

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11
Q

All of the following are involved in responses of lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes EXCEPT:

A. Lymph flow is increased; increased permeability
B. Proliferation of lymphatic vessels
C. Inflammation of vessels (lymphadenitis) and nodes (lymphangitis)
D. Red streaks near skin wound indicates sign of bacterial infection

A

C. Inflammation of vessels (lymphadenitis) and nodes (lymphangitis)

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12
Q

These are major family of proteins involved in WBC adhesion and migration

A. Selectin and integrin
B. Selectin and opsin
C. Secretin and relaxin
D. Secretin and integrin

A

A. Selectin and integrin

Selectin - mediates initial rolling mechanism
L-selectin (leukocytes)
E-selectin (endothelium)
P-selectin (platelets)

Integrin - mediates firm adhesion

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13
Q

This is the most potent bactericidal system of neutrophils

A. Phagocyte oxidase
B. H2O2-MPO-halide
C. Hydroxyl radical
D. Superoxide dismutase

A

B. H2O2-MPO-halide

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14
Q

Which of the following reduces oxygen to superoxide?

A. Phagocyte oxidase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. Catalase
D. Glutathione peroxidase

A

A. Phagocyte oxidase or NADPH oxidase

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15
Q

Which of the following types of nitric oxide is involved in microbial killing?

A. eNOS
B. nNOS
C. iNOS
D. pNOS

A

C. iNOS

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16
Q

Which of the following are considered as major phagocytes?

A. Monocytes and neutrophils
B. Neutrophils and macrophages
C. Macrophages and eosinophils
D. Mast cells and eosinophils

A

B. Neutrophils and macrophages

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17
Q

Leukocyte migration (diapedesis) occurs mainly in which of the following?

A. Arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Veins
D. Postcapillary venules

A

D. Postcapillary venules

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18
Q

Leukotrienes are produced from which of the following cells?

A. Mast cells
B. Basophils
C. Platelets
D. Endothelial cells
E. Plasma
A

A. Mast cells

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19
Q

The richest source of histamines are _________

A. Eosinophils
B. Basophils
C. Mast cells
D. Endothelial cells
E. Dendritic cells
A

C. Mast cells

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20
Q

TNF belong to which of the following groups?

A. Vasoactive amines
B. AA metabolites
C. Cytokines 
D. Kinins
E. Neuropeptides
A

C. Cytokines

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21
Q

All of the following cytokines are involved in acute inflammation EXCEPT:

A. TNF
B. IL1
C. IL12
D. IL17

A

C. IL12

Acute: TNF, IL-1, IL-6, IL-17

Chronic: IL-12, IFN-y. IL17

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22
Q

This is a collection of plasma proteins that function mainly in host defense against microbes and in pathologic inflammatory reactions.

A. Cytokines
B. Chemokines
C. Complement system
D. Prostaglandins
E. Vasoactive amines
A

C. Complement system

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23
Q

This pathway involves cleavage of C3 w/c is triggered by binding of C1 to antibody (IgM or IgG).

A. Alternative pathway
B. Classical pathway
C. Lectin pathway
D. All of the above

A

B. Classical pathway

Alternative = microbe
Classical = antibody
Lectin = Mannose
24
Q

Which of the following effector functions is incorrectly paired?

A. C5a, C3a: Inflammation
B. C3b: Phagocytosis
C. MAC: Lysis of microbe
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

25
Q

Which of the following enzymes splits C3 into C3a and C3b?

A. Splitase
B. Protease
C. Convertase
D. Lyase
E. Hydrolase
A

C. Convertase

26
Q

Which of the following is alternative pathway inhibitor?

A. Complement Factor B
B. Complement Factor D
C. Complement Factor F
D. Complement Factor H

A

D. Complement Factor H

27
Q

Which of the following cytokines is involved in acute phase responses?

A. TNF
B. IL-1
C. IL-6
D. IL-17

A

C. IL-6

28
Q

All of the following are TRUE about serous inflammation EXCEPT:

A. Marked by exudation of cell-poor fluid into spaces created by cell injury or into body cavities
B. Contains microbes or large numbers of leukocytes
C. Accumulation of fluid in cavities is called an effusion
D. Example is skin blister

A

B. Contains microbes or large numbers of leukocytes

29
Q

All of the following are TRUE about fibrinous inflammation EXCEPT:

A. Develops when vascular leaks are large or there is a procoagulant stimulus
B. Seen in meninges, pericardium, pleura
C. Appears basophilic meshwork of threads under microscopy
D. May be dissolved by fibrinolysis and cleared by macrophages

A

C. Appears basophilic meshwork of threads under microscopy

30
Q

All of the following are TRUE about purulent (suppurative) inflammation EXCEPT:

A. Characterized by pus production
B. Consists of macrophage, debris of necrotic cells, and edema fluid
C. Most common cause is bacterial infection
D. Example is acute appendicitis

A

B. Consists of macrophage, debris of necrotic cells, and edema fluid

31
Q

Acute inflammation results in all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Replacement of injured cells
B. Loss of function
C. Scarring
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

32
Q

All of the following are involved in chronic inflammation EXCEPT:

A. Viral infections
B. Persistent injury
C. Trauma
D. Autoimmune diseases

A

C. Trauma

33
Q

All of the following cells are seen in chronic inflammation EXCEPT:

A. Macrophages
B. Lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Plasma cells

A

C. Neutrophils

34
Q

Macrophages located in lymph nodes are called what?

A. Kupffer cells
B. Alveolar macrophages
C. Sinus histiocytes
D. Microglial cells

A

C. Sinus histiocytes

35
Q

What is the half-life of blood monocytes?

A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 3 days
D. 4 days

A

A. 1 day

36
Q

Classical macrophage activation is induced by which of the following cytokines?

A. IL-4
B. IL-13
C. IFN-y
D. All of the above

A

C. IFN-y

Classical: destroy microbes; promote inflammation
Alternative: terminate inflammation and promote repair

Alternative: IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13

37
Q

All of the following subsets of CD4+ T cells are correctly paired EXCEPT:

A. Th1 - IFN-y
B. Th2 - IL-4, IL-5, IL-13
C. Th17 - IL-17
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

38
Q

Which of the following are important in defense against helminthic parasites and in allergic inflammation?

A. Th1
B. Th2
C. Th17
D. All of the above

A

B. Th2

Th1 and Th17 - defense against bacteria, viruses, and autoimmune diseases

39
Q

These cells are involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions.

A. Eosinophils
B. Mast cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Lymphocytes

A

B. Mast cells

40
Q

These are multinucleated giant cells found in granulomas.

A. Kupffer giant cells
B. Langhans giant cells
C. Myco giant cells
D. Epitheloid cells

A

B. Langhans giant cells

41
Q

All of the following are cases of noncaseating necrosis EXCEPT:

A. Tuberculosis
B. Crohn disease
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Leprosy

A

A. Tuberculosis

42
Q

Which of the following diseases are caused by Treponema pallidum?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Leprosy
C. Syphilis
D. Cat scratch disease
E. Sarcoidosis
A

C. Syphilis

TB = M. tuberculosis
Leprosy = M. leprae
Cat scratch disease = gram negative bacilli
Sarcoidosis = unknown etiology
Crohn disease = immune rxn (self-antigen)

43
Q

Acute phase reactants such as CRP and fibrinogen are stimulated by which of the following cytokines?

A. TNF
B. IL-1
C. IL-6
D. IL-17

A

C. IL-6

Serum amyloid A (SAA) protein: IL-1 or TNF

44
Q

In a person experiencing allergies, which of the following would a CBC most probably shows?

A. Neutrophilia
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Eosinophilia
D. Leukopenia

A

C. Eosinophilia

45
Q

All of the following are manifestations of an acute-phase response EXCEPT:

A. Increased BP
B. Increased sweating
C. Rigors
D. Anorexia

A

B. Increased sweating

46
Q

DIC, hypotensive shock and metabolic disturbance is a clinical tried known as what?

A. Hypovolemia
B. Septic shock
C. Respiratory failure
D. Sepsis
E. Hypertensive crisis
A

B. Septic shock

47
Q

This occur by proliferation of differentiated cells that survive the injury and retain the capacity to proliferate

A. Repair
B. Regeneration
C. Deposition
D. Fibrosis

A

B. Regeneration

REPAIR: refers to the restoration of tissue architecture and function after an injury

CONNECTIVE TISSUE DEPOSITION: scar formation; occurs by laying down of connective tissue, a process that may result in scar formation

FIBROSIS: deposition of collagen as a consequence of chronic inflammation

48
Q

Cardiac muscle is considered as what kind of body tissue?

A. Labile
B. Stable
C. Permanent
D. Intermittent

A

C. Permanent

49
Q

Which of the following cells proliferate to form new blood vessels?

A. Epithelial cells
B. Endothelial cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. Osteoblasts

A

B. Endothelial cells

50
Q

What type of macrophages are mostly involved in repair?

A. M1
B. M2
C. M3
D. M4

A

B. M2

51
Q

Which of the following promotes vasodilation by stimulating production of NO?

A. VEGF
B. FGF-2
C. Ang 1 and Ang 2
D. PDGF
E. TGF-B
A

A. VEGF

FGF-2: proliferation of endothelial cells
Ang 1 and Ang 2: growth factors; maturation of new vessels
PDGF: recruits smooth muscle cells
TGF-B: suppresses endothelial proliferation; enhances production of ECM proteins

52
Q

Which of the following is the most important cytokine for synthesis and deposition of connective tissue proteins?

A. VEGF
B. FGF-2
C. Ang 1 and Ang 2
D. PDGF
E. TGF-B
A

E. TGF-B

53
Q

All of the following are MMPs which play important role in ECM. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

A. Interstitial collagenases : cleave fibrillar collagen
B. Gelatinases : degrade amorphous collagen and fibronectin
C. Stromelysin: degrade other ECM consistuents (proteoglycans, fibronectin, laminin)
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

54
Q

This occurs as a result of atherosclerosis of peripheral arteries, especially associated with diabetes.

A. Venous leg ulcers
B. Arterial ulcers
C. Diabetic ulcers
D. Pressure sores

A

B. Arterial ulcers

Venous leg ulcers: chronic venous hypertension
Diabetic ulcers: lower extremities (feet)
Pressure sores: Skin ulceration

55
Q

This refers to a scar beyond original wound.

A. Atrophic
B. Keloid
C. Contracture
D. Hypertrophic

A

B. Keloid