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Pathology > Chapter 26 - Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors > Flashcards

Chapter 26 - Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors Flashcards

1
Q

Osteoid consists of what type of collagen?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

A. Type I

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2
Q

Which of the following is used as a specific marker of osteoblast activity?

A. Osteoid
B. Osteocalcin
C. Calcitonin
D. Hydroxyapatite

A

B. Osteocalcin / Osteopontin

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3
Q

These cells regulate mineralization/

A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteocytes
C. Osteoclasts
D. All of the above

A

A. Osteoblasts

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4
Q

Cranium is formed by which process?

A. Endochondral ossification
B. Intramembranous ossification
C. Mesenchymal ossification
D. Chondrocyte ossification

A

B. Intramembranous ossification

Embryogenesis = endochondral (axial & appendicular)

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5
Q

This forms a primary center of ossification resulting in radial bone growth.

A. Diaphysis
B. Epiphysis
C. Metaphysis
D. All of the above

A

A. Diaphysis

Secondary = epiphysis

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6
Q

This refers to localized disruption of the migration and condensation of mesenchyme

A. Dysostosis
B. Dysplasia
C. Hyperplasia
C. Epistosis

A

A. Dysostosis

Dysplasia = global disorganization of bone/cartilage

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7
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with defects in nuclear proteins and TFs?

A. Brachydactyly
B. Achondroplasia
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. Thanatophoric dysplasia

A

A. Brachydactyly

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8
Q

Which of the following conditions is the most common skeletal dysplasia and a major cause of dwarfism?

A. Hypochondroplasia
B. Achondroplasia
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. Thanatophoric dysplasia

A

B. Achondroplasia

Thanatophoric dysplasia = most common lethal form of dwarfism

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9
Q

Which of the following is the most common inherited disorder of connective tissue and is also called as brittle bone disease?

A. Osteopetrosis
B. Achondrogenesis
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. Osteoporosis

A

C. Osteogenesis imperfecta

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10
Q

Which of the following conditions is Albers-Schonberg disease mostly associated?

A. Achondrogenesis
B. Osteogenesis
C. Osteopetrosis
D. Osteoporosis

A

C. Osteopetrosis = deficient osteoclast development

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11
Q

What gene is responsible for achondroplasia and thanatophoric dysplasia?

A. HOXD13
B. FGFR3
C. CA2
D. LRP5

A

B. FGFR3

HOXD13 = brachydactyly
CA2 = osteopetrosis
SOX9 = osteoporosis-pseudoglioma
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12
Q

It refers to decreased bone mass which increases the risk of fracture

A. Osteopenia
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteogenesis

A

C. Osteoporosis

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13
Q

All of the following are secondary causes of osteoporosis EXCEPT:

A. Type 1 DM
B. Anemia
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. Postmenopausal

A

D. Postmenopausal

Primary:
>Idiopathic
>Postmenopausal
>Senile

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14
Q

This refers to impaired mineralization of bone matrix in adults.

A. Osteomalacia
B. Rickets
C. Osteoporosis
D. Hyperparathyroidism

A

A. Osteomalacia

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15
Q

All of the following are hallmark of severe hyperparathyroidism EXCEPT:

A. Increased bone cell activity
B. Peritrabecular fibrosis
C. Cystic brown tumors
D. None of the options

A

D. None of the options

severe hyperparathyroidism = osteitis fibrosa cystica / Von Recklinghausen

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16
Q

All of the following are manifestations of renal osteodystrophy EXCEPT:

A. Osteopenia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Osteomalacia
D. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
E. None of the options
A

E. None of the options

17
Q

This disease is marked by increased, but disordered and structurally unsound, bone mass.

A. Renal osteodystrophy
B. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
C. Osteitis deformans
D. Osteonecrosis
E. Osteomyelitis
A

C. Osteitis deformans / Paget’s disease

18
Q

Which of the following is the hallmark of Paget disease?

A. Jigsaw puzzle like appearance of woven bone
B. Cement lines of trabecular bone
C. Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone
D. None of the options

A

C. Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone

19
Q

Which of the following types of fracture describes a bone which are not aligned?

A. Simple
B. Compound
C. Comminuted
D. Displaced
E. Stress
A

D. Displaced

20
Q

Which of the following helps stabilize the fracture site?

A. Soft tissue callus
B. Procallus
C. Bony callus
D. All of the above

A

C. Bony callus

Soft / procallus = anchorage

21
Q

All of the following are TRUE about osteonecrosis EXCEPT:

A. Also called as avascular necrosis
B. Fractures and use of corticosteroid are the most common causes
C. Involve infarction of bone and marrow
D. Surrounded by necrotic adipocytes
E. None of the options
A

E. None of the options

22
Q

All of the following are TRUE about osteomyelitis EXCEPT:

A. Always secondary to infection
B. Can be pyogenic or mycobacterial
C. Fungi and parasites can produce osteomyelitis
D. Involves inflammation of bone and marrow
E. None of the options

A

E. None of the options

23
Q

Which of the following is responsible for 80 to 90% of culture-positive pyogenic osteomyelitis?

A. S. aureus
B. P. aeruginosa
C. H. influenzae
D. Salmonella
E. All of the above
A

A. S. aureus

24
Q

Which of the following is responsible for genitourinary tract infections or IV drug users?

A. S. aureus
B. P. aeruginosa
C. H. influenzae
D. Salmonella
E. All of the above
A

B. P. aeruginosa

25
Q

This refers to a dead bone which can crumble and release fragments into the sinus tract?

A. Sequestrum
B. Involucrum
C. Cloaca
D. All of the above

A

A. Sequestrum

Involucrum = new bone

26
Q

What do you call the disease of mycobacterial osteomyelitis which involve the spine?

A. Mucopolysaccharidoses
B. Pott Disease
C. Mycoses
D. Spina bifida

A

B. Pott Disease

27
Q

Saber shins are a malformation of the tibia that presents with anterior bowing of the tibia, usually caused by which of the following?

A. H. influenzae
B. T. pallidum
C. E. coli
D. P. aeruginosa
E. None of the options
A

B. T. pallidum

28
Q

All of the following are TRUE about osteoid sarcoma EXCEPT:

A. Bone forming tumor
B. Greater than 2 cm in diameter
C. Predilection for the appendicular skeleton
D. Most common in men in their teens and 20s
E. None of the options

A

B. Greater than 2 cm in diameter

29
Q

All of the following are TRUE about osteoblastoma EXCEPT:

A. Largen than 2 cm in diameter
B. Involve posterior spine
C. Relieved by aspirin
D. Requires curettage or en bloc excision
E. None of the options
A

C. Relieved by aspirin

30
Q

Which of the following is the most common primary malignant tumor of the bone?

A. Osteoblastoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Osteochondroma
D. Osteoid osteoma

A

B. Osteosarcoma

31
Q

Which of the following is the most common benign bone tumor?

A. Osteoblastoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Osteochondroma
D. Osteoid osteoma

A

C. Osteochondroma

32
Q

Which of the following is the most common intraosseous cartilage tumor?

A. Chondroma
B. Enchondroma
C. Chondrosarcoma
D. Juxtacortical chondroma
E. Ewing sarcoma
A

B. Enchondroma

Pathology (15 decks)

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