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MICRB 201 > Chapter 22 > Flashcards

Chapter 22 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the predominant bacterial types found in normal oral cavity biota?

A

Prevotella, Treponema, Streptococcus, Actinomyces, Neisseria, Veillonella, Lactobacillus

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2
Q

What are the predominant bacterial types found in the esophagus and stomach?

A

Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Clostridium, Bacillus

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3
Q

What are the predominant bacterial types found in the large intestine?

A

Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, Bifidobacterium, Clostridium, Streptococcus, Peptostreptococcus, Lactobacillus, Escherichia, Enterobacter

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4
Q

What is the most common infectious disease of human beings?

A

Dental caries

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5
Q

What is involved in the process of tooth decay?

A

dissolution of solid tooth surface due to the metabolic action of bacteria

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6
Q

What are the symptoms of dental caries?

A

A range from minor disruptions in the enamel surface to complete destruction of the enamel and deeper tooth layers

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7
Q

What is the pulp?

A

soft tissue inside the tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves

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8
Q

What two bacterial species are the most common causes of dental caries?

A

Streptococcus mutans and Streptococcus sobrinus

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9
Q

Which bacterial species is commonly seen in early childhood dental caries?

A

Scardovia wiggsiae

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10
Q

What substance must be present in order for bacteria to cause tooth decay?

A

Dietary carbohydrates

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11
Q

How are the bacteria that cause dental caries transmitted?

A

Through close contact with caregivers/other people

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12
Q

How are dental caries diagnosed?

A

Based on tooth condition

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13
Q

How are dental caries prevented?

A

dietary restriction of carbohydrates, routine brushing and flossing, fluoride treatment

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14
Q

How are dental caries treated?

A

removal of the affected part of the tooth, restoration of tooth with artificial material

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15
Q

What is periodontal disease?

A

Inflammation of the gums/gingiva due to bacterial colonization

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16
Q

What is the initial stage or periodontal disease?

A

Gingivitis

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17
Q

What are the symptoms of gingivitis?

A

swelling, loss of normal gingival contour, patches of redness, increased bleeding of the gingiva

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18
Q

If gingivitis progresses to periodontitis, what symptoms can result?

A

increase in pocket size, bone resorption severe enough to loosen the tooth out of the socket, tooth loss

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19
Q

Which bacteria, sometimes present in the gingival crevice, is an important contributor of periodontal disease?

A

Methanobrevibacter oralis

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20
Q

What is calculus?

A

Dental deposit formed when plaque mineralizes with calcium and phosphate crystals

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21
Q

How does oral cavity bacteria associate to cardiovascular health?

A

those with higher numbers of bacteria associated with periodontitis tend to have thicker carotid arteries and increased rates of cardiovascular disease

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22
Q

How are the bacteria associated with periodontal disease transmitted?

A

Close contact

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23
Q

How is periodontal disease diagnosed?

A

Appearance of the oral tissues

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24
Q

How can periodontal disease be prevented?

A

Regular brushing and flossing

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25
Q

How can periodontal disease be treated?

A

Mechanical procedures, such as scaling, at a dental office, surgery to reduce pocket sizes; antibiotic therapy

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26
Q

What are the two most destructive periodontal diseases?

A

necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) and necrotizing ulcerative periodontis (NUP)

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27
Q

What bacterial species are involved in NUG and NUP?

A

Treponema vincentii, Prevotella intermedia, Fusobacterium species

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28
Q

What symptoms are associated with NUG and NUP?

A

severe pain, bleeding, pseudomembrane formation, necrosis

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29
Q

How are NUG and NUP treated?

A

removal of damaged periodontal tissue followed by targeted antibiotics

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30
Q

What is mumps?

A

a self-limited, mildly epidemic illness associated with painful swelling at the angle of the jaw

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31
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of mumps?

A

fever, nasal discharge, muscle pain, malaise, inflammation of the salivary glands, swelling of the parotids glands (parotitis)

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32
Q

What is mumps pancreatitis?

A

a variation of mumps in which the virus replicates in the beta cells and pancreatic epithelial cells

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33
Q

What are the symptoms of mumps meningitis?

A

fever, headache, stiff neck

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34
Q

What are the characteristics of the mumps virus?

A

enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus, genus Paramyxovirus

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35
Q

What is the main virulence factor of the mumps virus?

A

Ability to form syncytia

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36
Q

How is the mumps virus transmitted?

A

salivary and respiratory secretions

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37
Q

How is mumps diagnosed?

A

ELISA testing or PCR testing

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38
Q

What is gastritis?

A

Sharp or burning pain emanating from the abdomen

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39
Q

What are gastric ulcers?

A

lesions in the mucosa of the stomach

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40
Q

What are duodenal ulcers?

A

lesions in the mucosa of the uppermost portion of the small intestine

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41
Q

What symptoms can accompany gastric ulcers?

A

bloody stools and vomiting

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42
Q

What is the causative agent of gastritis and gastric ulcers?

A

Helicobacter pylori

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43
Q

Why do people with type O blood type have a higher incidence of gastric ulcers?

A

One specific receptor for H. pylori is also the molecule that confers the O blood type

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44
Q

How is H. pylori transmitted?

A

Oral-oral and fecal-oral routes

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45
Q

How is H. pylori diagnosed?

A

Urea breath test, stool test

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46
Q

How is H. pylori treated?

A

clarithromycin

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47
Q

What is the main cause of acute diarrhea cases in the US?

A

Contaminated food

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48
Q

What are the most common causative agents of acute diarrhea in the US?

A

norovirus, Salmonella, Clostridium perfringens, Campylobacter, Staphylococcus aureus

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49
Q

What are the characteristics of Salmonella?

A

Gram-negative, motile, ferment glucose, produce hydrogen sulfide

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50
Q

What is typhoid fever?

A

enteric fever caused by the Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi

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51
Q

Which S. enterica serotypes commonly cause illness in the U.S.?

A

Typhimurium, Enteritidis, Heidelberg, Newport, and Javiana

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52
Q

What are the symptoms of Salmonellosis?

A

fever, septicemia, vomiting, diarrhea, mucosal irritation, blood in stool

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53
Q

What is the typical treatment for Salmonellosis?

A

fluid and electrolyte replacement

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54
Q

What treatment is used for severe Salmonellosis cases?

A

ciprofloxacin

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55
Q

What are the characteristics of the Shigella bacteria?

A

gram-negative, straight rods, non-motile, non-endospore forming

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56
Q

How are Shigella infections diagnosed?

A

Stool culture

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57
Q

What are the symptoms of Shigellosis?

A

frequent, watery stools; fever; intense abdominal pain; nausea; vomiting, dysentery (bloody diarrhea)

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58
Q

What is enterotoxin?

A

an exotoxin that affects the cells of the GI tract

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59
Q

What is shiga toxin?

A

A heat-labile exotoxin produced by some Shigella species and E. coli O157:H7

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60
Q

How is shigellosis transmitted?

A

Oral routes, direct person-to-person contact

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61
Q

What treatment is recommended for shigellosis?

A

ciprofloxacin

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62
Q

What is STEC?

A

Shiga-toxin-producing E. coli

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63
Q

What is hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

a severe hemolytic anemia that can lead to kidney damage/failure and is caused by shiga-toxin-producing E. coli

64
Q

In addition to hemolytic uremic syndrome, what other symptoms are associated with STEC?

A

blindness, seizure, stroke

65
Q

What are enterocytes?

A

Gut epithelial cells

66
Q

How is STEC diagnosed?

A

Stool culture, ELISA test, PCR test, PFGE

67
Q

How is STEC prevented?

A

Heat treatment to kill the bacteria

68
Q

What symptoms are associated with Enterotoxigenic E. coil (ETEC)?

A

watery diarrhea, low-grade fever, nausea, vomiting

69
Q

What symptoms are associated with Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)?

A

bacillary dysentery, blood and mucus in stool, high fever

70
Q

What symptoms are associated with Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)?

A

profuse, watery diarrhea; fever; vomiting

71
Q

What symptoms are associated with Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)?

A

chronic diarrhea among children and AIDS patients

72
Q

What symptoms are associated with Diffusely Adherent E. coli (DAEC)?

A

development or urinary tract infections in addition to acute diarrhea

73
Q

What are the symptoms of Campylobacteriosis?

A

frequent, watery stools; fever, vomiting, headache, severe abdominal pain

74
Q

Which Campylobacter species most commonly causes GI disease in humans?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

75
Q

What are the characteristics of Campylobacter?

A

slender, curved or spiral, gram-negative, polar flagella

76
Q

How are Campylobacter species transmitted?

A

ingestion of contaminated food and drink

77
Q

What is Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A

a syndrome characterized by acute paralysis, often onset after a Campylobacter infection

78
Q

What treatment is given for Campylobacter infections?

A

Fluid and electrolyte replacement, azithromycin if needed

79
Q

What are the characteristics of Clostridioides difficile?

A

gram-positive, endospore-forming, rod-shaped

80
Q

What is the causative agent of pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Clostridioides difficile

81
Q

What are the symptoms of pseudomembranous colitis?

A

diarrhea, abdominal cramps, fever, leukocytosis

82
Q

What is the treatment for C. difficile?

A

metronidazole if mild; vancomycin if severe; fecal transplant

83
Q

What are the characteristics of vibrios?

A

comma-shaped rods, single polar flagellum, fermentative

84
Q

What are the symptoms of Vibrio cholerae?

A

vomiting, secretory diarrhea, rice-water stool, loss of blood volume, acidosis, potassium depletion, hypotension, tachycardia, cyanosis, collapse from shock

85
Q

What conditions favor the spread of V. cholerae?

A

warm, monsoon, alkaline, and saline conditions

86
Q

How is V. cholerae diagnosed?

A

stool sample culture, dark-field microscopy

87
Q

What is the key to cholera therapy?

A

Replacement of fluid and electrolytes

88
Q

What two Vibrio species are more prominent in the United States?

A

V. vulnificus and V. parahameolyticus

89
Q

What is cryptosporidium?

A

an intestinal protozoan of the apicomplexan type

90
Q

What are the symptoms of cryptosporidium infection?

A

headache, sweating, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, diarrhea

91
Q

How is cryptosporidium diagnosed?

A

ELISA or acid-fast staining of fecal samples or biopsies

92
Q

What are the characteristics of rotavirus?

A

member of Reovirus group, double-stranded RNA genome, inner and outer capsid

93
Q

What is the primary viral cause of moribidity and mortality as a result of diarrhea?

94
Q

How is rotavirus diagnosed?

A

Rapid antigen testing, ELISA testing

95
Q

How is Rotavirus transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral route, such as through food, water, or fomites

96
Q

Which virus is the most common cause of foodborne illness in the US?

97
Q

How is norovirus transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral route, via contaminated food or water

98
Q

What are the symptoms of norovirus?

A

watery diarrhea, severe vomiting, mild fever

99
Q

What three bacterial species are typically responsible for producing food poisoning via an exotoxin?

A

Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, Clostridium perfringens

100
Q

What symptoms are associated with S. aureus exotoxin food poisoning?

A

Cramping, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

101
Q

What are the two exotoxins produced by B. cereus?

A

One that causes a diarrheal form of the food poisoning disease and one that causes an emetic form of the food poisoning disease

102
Q

What is the definition of chronic diarrhea?

A

Diarrhea that lasts longer than 14 days

103
Q

What is a distinguishing factor of enteroaggregative E. coli?

A

The ability of the bacteria to adhere to human cells in aggregates rather than as single cells

104
Q

How is EAEC transmitted?

A

Contaminated food and water

105
Q

How is EAEC diagnosed?

A

Genotypic methods, such as PCR

106
Q

What is Cyclospora cayetanensis?

A

a protozoan pathogen spread through fecal-oral transmission of sporulated oocysts

107
Q

How is C. cayetanensis diagnosed?

A

Bright-field or phase-contrast microscopy; PCR testing

108
Q

What are the symptoms of C. cayetanensis?

A

Watery diarrhea, stomach cramps, bloating, fever, muscle aches, anorexia, weight loss

109
Q

What is the drug of choice for treating C. cayetanensis?

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

110
Q

What is Giardia lamblia?

A

a pathogenic flagellated protozoan

111
Q

What are the typical symptoms of Giardiasis?

A

diarrhea of long duration, abdominal pain, flatulence

112
Q

How is G. lamblia transmitted?

A

Contaminated food and water; fecal-oral route in children

113
Q

How is Giardiasis diagnosed?

A

ELISA testing, PCR testing

114
Q

What drugs can be used to treat Giardiasis?

A

Tinidazole, nitazoxanide

115
Q

What is Entamoeba histolytica?

A

a pathogenic amoeba with a single large nucleus and a prominent nucleolus termed a karyosome

116
Q

What are the symptoms of Entamoeba histolytica?

A

dysentery, abdominal pain, fever, diarrhea, weight loss, hemorrhage, perforation, appendicitis, ameboma growths

117
Q

How is Entamoeba histolytica transmitted?

A

Contaminated food and drink

118
Q

How is Entamoeba histolytica diagnosed?

A

ELISA and PCR testing

119
Q

What drugs are used to treat Entamoeba histolytica?

A

metronidazole, chloroquine, dehydroemitine

120
Q

What is hepatitis?

A

inflammatory disease marked by necrosis of hepatocytes and a response by mononuclear WBCs that swells and disrupts liver architecture

121
Q

What are the characteristics of Hepatitis A virus?

A

nonenveloped, single-stranded RNA, Picornaviridae family, milder and shorter disease

122
Q

How is Hepatitis A transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral route

123
Q

How is Hepatitis A diagnosed?

A

detection of anti-HAV antibodies; HA antigen tests

124
Q

How is Hepatitis A prevented?

A

Immunization

125
Q

What are the characteristics of Hepatitis B virus?

A

enveloped DNA virus in family Hepadnaviridae; genome is partly double-stranded and partly single-stranded

126
Q

What are the symptoms of Hepatitis B?

A

fever, chills, malaise, anorexia, abdominal discomfort, diarrhea, nausea, rash, arthritis

127
Q

What is hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

liver cancer associated with HBV infection

128
Q

How is Hepatitis B diagnosed?

A

Serological tests, ELISA testing

129
Q

How is HBV prevented?

A

Immunization

130
Q

What are the characteristics of the Hepatitis C virus?

A

RNA virus in the Flaviviridae family; most common cause of liver transplants in the US

131
Q

How is HCV diagnosed?

A

blood test for antibodies to the virus

132
Q

How is HCV transmitted?

A

sanctioned and unsanctioned blood contact

133
Q

How are most helminth infections diagnosed?

A

differential blood count showing eosinophilia and serological tests indicating sensitivity to helminth antigens; discovery of helminth eggs, larvae, or adults in feces or tissues

134
Q

What are the characteristics of Enterobius vermicularis?

A

nematode; called pinworm or threadworm, transmission through cycle A

135
Q

What are the symptoms of Enterobius vermicularis?

A

anal itching, disrupted sleep, nausea, abdominal discomfort, diarrhea

136
Q

What are the characteristics of Trichuris trichuria?

A

nematode, whipworm, transmission through cycle A

137
Q

What are the symptoms of Trichuris trichuria?

A

localized hemmorhage of the bowel, dysentery, loss of muscle tone, rectal prolapse

138
Q

What are the characteristics of Diphyllobothrium latum?

A

tapeworm, intermediate host in fish

139
Q

What are the symptoms of Diphyllobothrium latum?

A

abdominal discomfort, nausea, anemia

140
Q

What are the characteristics of Hymenolepis species?

A

Tapeworms, follow cycle C, most common human tapeworm species

141
Q

What are the characteristics of Ascaris lumbricoides?

A

roundworm, exhibit migratory symptoms, follows cycle A

142
Q

What are the characteristics of Taenia solium?

A

tapeworm, scolex with hooklets and suckers for attachment, often associated with pigs/pork, follows cycle C

143
Q

What is cysticercosis?

A

condition in which T. solium larvae become embedded in human tissues

144
Q

Which group of worms has an affinity for the liver?

A

trematodes

145
Q

What are the characteristics of Opisthorchis sinensis and Clonorchis sinensis?

A

intermediate hosts are snails and fish; follow cycle D; known as Chinese liver flukes

146
Q

What are the symptoms of Fasciola hepatica?

A

vomiting, diarrhea, hepatomegaly, bile obstruction

147
Q

What is trichinosis?

A

an infection transmitted by eating pork that has nematode Trichinella cysts embedded in the meat

148
Q

What are the symptoms of trichinosis?

A

diarrhea, nausea, abdominal pains, fever, sweating, puffiness around the eyes, muscle and joint pain, shortness of breath, pronounced eosinophilia

149
Q

What is schistomiasis?

A

Infection by a blood fluke, often as a result of contact with contaminated water

150
Q

What are the symptoms of schistomiasis?

A

itchiness at the site where the worm entered the body, fever, chills, diarrhea, cough, hepatomegaly, liver disease, splenomegaly

151
Q

What are the characteristics of schistomes?

A

trematodes, cylindrical, often called blood flukes, life cycle D

152
Q

How do schistomes evade the immune system?

A

forming coatings with proteins from the host’s bloodstream that “cloak” them from immune cells

153
Q

What is the first stage of a schistome trematode called?

A

Miracidium

154
Q

What is the second stage of a schistome trematode called?

155
Q

How is schistomiasis diagnosed?

A

identification of eggs in the urine or feces

156
Q

What is the drug of choice for treating schistomiasis?

A

praziquantel

MICRB 201 (15 decks)

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