Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MICRB 201 > Chapter 18 > Flashcards

Chapter 18 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the causative agent of Roseola?

A

Human herpesvirus 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of Postnatal Rubella?

A

Malaise, mild fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy, pink maculopapular rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is MRSA diagnosed?

A

PCR; inoculation on blood agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is desquamation?

A

The shedding of the skin in scales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the causative agent of rubella?

A

Rubivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is S. aureus considered the sturdiest of all non-endospore forming microbes?

A

It can withstand high salt, pH extremes, high temperatures, and air drying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does MRSA stand for?

A

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does MRSA spread from host to host?

A

Direct contact and indirect contact via fomites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of virus is HHV3?

A

An enveloped DNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is shingles?

A

Reemergence of the chickenpox virus after a latent period; lesions form on one side of the body; pain and tenderness also occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the conjunctiva?

A

A thin, membrane-like tissue that covers the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of chickenpox?

A

Fever, abundant rash in a centripetal pattern (more on trunk than extremities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is SSSS treated?

A

Antibiotics; current recommended drug is Cloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the stratum corneum?

A

The outermost layer of the epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is conjunctivitis?

A

Inflammation of the conjunctiva, combined with a milky (bacterial) or clear (viral) discharge, redness, and eyelid swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How are warts transmitted?

A

Direct and indirect contact, autoinoculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the characteristics of Streptococcus pyogenes?

A

gram-positive, coccus, Lancefield Group A, beta-hemolytic on blood agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the treatment for cellulitis?

A

Oral antibiotics for mild cases, intravenous antibiotics and debridement for severe cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During which stages is a person with measles contagious?

A

Incubation, prodome phase, and skin rash phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is keratinitis?

A

A more serious eye infection that conjunctivitis; invasion of deeper eye tissue occurs and can lead to complete corneal destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a papule?

A

Small, elevated, solid bump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of cellulitis?

A

Pain, tenderness, swelling, warmth, fever, lymphangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of measles?

A

Sore throat, dry cough, headache, conjunctivitis, lymphadenitis, fever, Koplik’s spots, maculopapular exanthem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What genus is the measles virus?

A

Morbillivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the difference between SSSS and TEN?

A

In SSSS, the split in skin tissue occurs within the epidermis; in TEN, it occurs between the dermis and epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How are staphylococcus species distinguished from streptococcus species?

A

Catalase test (staphylo produces it, strepto does not)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the most common causative agents of neonatal eye infection?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Impetigo?

A

A superficial bacterial infection that causes the skin to flake or peel off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the main virulence factors of MRSA?

A

Production of coagulase and hyaluronidase, as well as other enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is leishmaniasis?

A

A protozoan infection caused by Leishmania tropica (cutaneous; skin only) or Leishmania brazilensis (mucocutaneous; skin and mucous membranes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In addition to MRSA and Impetigo, what other skin infections are caused by S. aureus?

A

Folliculitis, furuncles, carbuncles, necrotizing fasciitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the main sign of cutaneous anthrax?

A

A papule that becomes increasingly necrotic, eventually rupturing to form a black eschar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In addition to Impetigo, what other skin infections are caused by S. pyogenes?

A

Necrotizing fasciitis, erysipelas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How are tinea conditions transmitted?

A

Direct and indirect contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is ProQuad?

A

A multipathogen vaccine that vaccinates against measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What non-skin conditions are caused by S. pyogenes?

A

Streptococcal pharyngitis, scarlet fever, pneumonia, puerperal fever, rheumatic fever, bloodstream infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are dermatophytes?

A

A group of fungi that infect the skin and other components of the integument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of Roseola?

A

Maculopapular rash, high fever, possible seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which group of viruses is responsible for HFMD?

A

Enteroviruses, usually the Coxsackie virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of Fifth Disease?

A

Slapped-cheek appearance, blotchy rash on rest of body, low-grade fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is S. aureus distinguished from other staphylococcus species?

A

Coagulase test (only S. aureus produces it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What treatment is prescribed for River Blindness?

A

Ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What word is found in all of the conditions caused by dermatophytes?

A

Tinea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the integument?

A

The outer surfaces of the body, including the skin, hair, nails, sweat glands, and oil glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are flat warts?

A

Smooth, skin-colored lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of a MRSA infection?

A

Raised, red, tender, localized lesions, often containing pus and hot to the touch; fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What type of virus causes mollscum contagiosum?

A

An enveloped, double-stranded DNA poxvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What symptoms occur when HHV-6 is reactivated?

A

Mononucleosis-like or hepatitis-like symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What category does S. pyogenes fall into in the CDC Antibiotic Resistance Report?

A

Concerning Threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are common/seed warts?

A

Painless, elevated, rough growths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the causative agent of gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the treatment for impetigo?

A

Antibiotics that target both S. aureus and S. pyogenes (typically Mupirocin)

53
Q

What is superficial mycosis/tinea versicolor?

A

A cosmetic infection caused by the Malassezia yeast genus; interferes with pigment production by melanocytes

54
Q

How is Rubella diagnosed?

A

ELISA testing, Latex-Agglutination card

55
Q

What are the causative agents of impetigo?

A

Staphylococcus aureus and/or Streptococcus pyogenes

56
Q

What causes chickenpox?

A

Human Herpesvirus 3 (also called Varicella virus or Varicella-Zoster virus)

57
Q

What are the virulence factors of C. perfringens?

A

Already present dead/damaged tissue, anaerobic environment, production of several exotoxins (including alpha toxin, the most potent)

58
Q

What is gas gangrene/clostridial myonecrosis?

A

Clostridial infection of soft tissue or wound

59
Q

What is River Blindness?

A

A chronic helminth infection caused by Onchocerca volvulus worms

60
Q

How is impetigo typically diagnosed?

A

By visual inspection

61
Q

How is leishmaniasis transmitted?

A

Via female sand flies

62
Q

How are tinea conditions diagnosed?

A

Microscopic examination and culturing

63
Q

What is the main antibiotic used to treat anthrax?

A

Ciprofloxacin

64
Q

What are the effects of congenital rubella?

A

Induced miscarriage or permanent birth defects

65
Q

How is chickenpox spread?

A

Exposure to respiratory droplets and the fluid of chickenpox/shingles lesions

66
Q

What is the cornea?

A

The dome-shaped, central portion of the eye

67
Q

What drug is used to treat smallpox?

A

Cidofovir

68
Q

What are the major distinguishing characteristics of smallpox lesions?

A

Indentation in the middle of the pustules; lesions feel as if they contain a BB pellet

69
Q

What type of virus is Rubivirus?

A

Single-stranded RNA virus with a loose lipid envelope

70
Q

What are the causative agents of ringworm infections?

A

39 different species within the genera Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton

71
Q

What are the initial signs/symptoms of smallpox?

A

Fever, malaise, rash

72
Q

When are those with chickenpox the most infectious?

A

1-2 days prior to the development of the rash

73
Q

What are the most common causes of cellulitis?

A

S. aureus and S. pyogenes

74
Q

How is impetigo transmitted?

A

Direct contact, indirect contact via fomites and mechanical vectors

75
Q

What are the steps of progression for the smallpox rash?

A

Macular to papular to vesicular to pustular

76
Q

How is HFMD transmitted?

A

Via direct contact with bodily secretions

77
Q

What is a macule?

A

Flat, well-demarcated lesion typically indicated by a color change

78
Q

What are bullous lesions?

A

Lesions caused by exfoliative toxins A and B in SSSS; the legions begin as red regions, take on the appearance of wrinkled tissue paper, and then become fluid filled blisters

79
Q

How is Fifth Disease diagnosed?

A

Clinical presentation, IgM testing to rule out Rubella

80
Q

Why is Rubella so damaging to fetuses?

A

It has the ability to stop mitosis and induce apoptosis

81
Q

How can gas gangrene be prevented?

A

Cleansing/surgical repair of wounds and infections; debridement of dead/diseased tissue

82
Q

How is MRSA treated?

A

Drainage of pus; antibiotic treatment consisting of Vancomycin and multiple other drugs

83
Q

What is cellulitis?

A

A condition caused by fast-spreading infection in the dermis and subcutaneous tissues following the introduction of bacteria or fungi

84
Q

What is the causative agent of smallpox?

A

An enveloped DNA orthopoxvirus called the variola virus

85
Q

Which virus has the ability to cause host cells to form syncytia?

A

Measles virus

86
Q

What are the two clinical forms of Rubella?

A

Postnatal rubella and congenital rubella

87
Q

What is the most serious complication of measles?

A

Subacute Sclerosing Pan-encephalitis (SSPE)

88
Q

What are plantar warts?

A

Deep, painful papillomas caused by HPV-1

89
Q

How is Fifth Disease transmitted?

A

Respiratory droplets, direct contact

90
Q

What are the initial signs/symptoms of Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease?

A

Fever, sore throat, malaise, rash that begins inside the mouth

91
Q

How is measles diagnosed?

A

Clinical presentation and indirect ELISA testing

92
Q

What are the most common causative agents of bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pneumoniae

93
Q

What is the main virulence factor of leishmaniasis?

A

Ability to multiply within macrophages

94
Q

What is cutaneous anthrax?

A

The most common and least dangerous anthrax infection; occurs when endospores enter the skin

95
Q

What are the characteristics of C. perfringens?

A

Gram-positive, endospore-forming bacterium, anaerobic

96
Q

What is immune privilege?

A

The reduction of immune response in certain areas of the body that reduces potential damage to tissues that would normally be caused by an inflammatory response

97
Q

Which viruses typically cause warts?

A

Human papillomaviruses

98
Q

What are the two forms of gas gangrene?

A

Anaerobic cellulitis and true myonecrosis

99
Q

How is SSSS diagnosed?

A

Histological examination

100
Q

What category does MRSA fall under in the CDC Antibiotic Resistance Report?

A

Serious Threat

101
Q

How is gas gangrene treated?

A

Oxygen therapy, surgical removal, antibiotic treatment

102
Q

What are the characteristics of molluscum contagiosum lesions?

A

Smooth, waxy nodules; may be indented in middle; contain a milky fluid

103
Q

What is a vesicle?

A

Elevated lesion with clear fluid

104
Q

How is smallpox spread?

A

Through droplet transmission and fomites

105
Q

What is toxic epidermal necrolysis?

A

A skin condition caused by a reaction to antibiotics, barbiturates, and other drugs

106
Q

What are the virulence factors of impetigo caused by S. aureus?

A

Exfoliative toxins A and B, coagulase

107
Q

What is a pustule?

A

Small, elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid (pus)

108
Q

What is the causative agent of Fifth Disease?

A

Parvovirus B19

109
Q

What are the two principle forms of smallpox?

A

Variola minor and Variola major

110
Q

What classification has the variola virus been assigned by the CIA?

A

Class A Bioterrorism Agent

111
Q

What is Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome?

A

A dermolytic condition caused by S. aureus

112
Q

What is the most important virulence factor of HHV3?

A

Its ability to remain latent in the ganglia

113
Q

What type of virus is the measles virus?

A

Single-stranded, enveloped RNA

114
Q

What is Shingrix?

A

The vaccine that protects against shingles

115
Q

What is the more precise name for Fifth Disease?

A

Erythema infectiosum

116
Q

What is the more technical term for a wart?

A

A papilloma

117
Q

What are the characteristics of an impetigo lesion?

A

Peeling skin, crusty and flaking scabs, honey-colored crusts

118
Q

What is another name for Rubella?

A

German measles

119
Q

What is ocular trachoma?

A

Chronic Chlamydia trachomatis infection of the epithelial cells of the eye

120
Q

How is measles spread?

A

Direct contact with respiratory droplets

121
Q

What is a purpura?

A

Reddish-purple coloration due to blood in small areas of tissue

122
Q

What is lymphangitis?

A

Red lines leading away from an area of cellulitis

123
Q

What are the characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Gram-positive, coccus, grows in grape-like clusters, non-motile

124
Q

How is conjunctivitis treated?

A

Erythromycin or other antibiotics

125
Q

What are the most common causative agents of viral conjunctivitis?

A

Adenoviruses

126
Q

What is another name for measles?

A

Rubeola

127
Q

What family is the measles virus?

A

Paramyxovirus

128
Q

What is the order of progression for chickenpox lesions?

A

Macules to papules to vesicles

129
Q

How does MRSA enter the skin to cause infection?

A

Through injury, shaving, or abrading

MICRB 201 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions