Chapter 11 Part V

Question 1

lymphoid neoplasm with B cells in follicular (nodular) pattern that have lymphocytes with cleaved nuclei called _____

Answer 1

follicular lymphoma

centrocytes

Question 2

85% of all follicular lymphoma have _____ mutation and marrow is MC involved; and onset is usually > ____ y.o.

Answer 2

t(14,18) on (BCL2 gene)

50

Question 3

tumor that constitutes 40% of all adult non-hodgkin’s lymphoma is called ______ and 40% transition into _____ which is more aggressive

Answer 3

follicular lymphoma

diffuse B cell lymphoma

Question 4

rare type of lymphoid neoplasm that arises from B cells and has dysfunctional cyclins that activate cell cycles, it is AGGRESSIVE and incurable; MC diagnosis in late stages

Answer 4

mantle cell lymphoma

Question 5

MC lymphoma of adulthood that progressive from CLL

Answer 5

diffuse large B cell lymphoma

Question 6

diffuse large B cell lymphoma is 50% of all _______ and avg diagnosis is at ___ y.o.

Answer 6

non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

60 y.o.

Question 7

diffuse large B cell lymphoma commonly presents outside of ______ in the spleen, marrow, _____ or brain and may metastasize to any organ; treatment is ____ and without treatment is fatal; 80% enter remission with treatment

Answer 7

nodes
GI tract
chemotherapy

Question 8

burkitt lymphoma MC affects _____ usually in Africa and involves ______ characteristics, creates _____ pattern

one of FASTEST growing human neoplasms

Answer 8

kids/young adults
facial (mandible/maxilla)
starry sky

Question 9

MC plasma cell CA that is usually diagnosed around age _____; _______ lesions: “punched out”

Answer 9

multiple myeloma
70
osteolytic

Question 10

_______ proteins found in urine in multiple myeloma; ______ on protein electrophoresis
incurable

Answer 10

bence-jones proteins

M-spike

Question 11

MC site of lytic lesion is ________ (66%), then ribs (44%), 3rd is ________ (41%)

Answer 11

vertebral column

calvarium

Question 12

it is common to confuse multiple myeloma with _______ on x-ray

Answer 12

hyperparathyroidism

Question 13

B cell lymphoma that has REED-STERNBERG cells as hallmark feature, with includes _______ appearance, arises from ____ node and has predictable metastasis; includes night sweats and painless lymphadenopathy

Answer 13

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
owl-eye
single

Question 14

lymphoma that is idiopathic, risk is male age 15-40 and > 55 y.o.
exposure to AGENT ORANGE

Answer 14

Hodgkin lymphoma

Question 15

myeloid neoplams MC affect ______ and arises from _______ stem cells

Answer 15

adults

hematopoietic

Question 16

3 categories of myeloid neoplasms

Answer 16

acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)
myelodysplastic syndromes
chronic myeloproliferative disorders

Question 17

myeloid neoplasms that is an aggressive leukemia and resembles ALL, immature myeloblasts accumulate and displace marrow > 20%; suppresses hematopoiesis; MARROW FAILURE

Answer 17

acute myeloid leukemia (AML)

Question 18

acute myeloid leukemia is diagnosed at _____ y.o. and has a _____ prognosis

Answer 18

60 y.o.

poor

Question 19

formerly known as pre-leukemia

Answer 19

myelodysplastic syndromes

Question 20

myeloid neoplasms that is MC diagnosed at 50-70 y.o., marrow FILLS with myeloblasts; 40% transform into AML

Answer 20

myelodysplastic syndromes

Question 21

myelodysplastic syndromes have ____ prognosis, and poor response to treatment, median survival is ____ years

Answer 21

poor

1-2

Question 22

group of indolent tumors, hyper plastic myeloid progenitors – proliferating EXTENSIVELY in marrow, disproportionate RBC’s that spreads to other organs

Answer 22

chronic myeloproliferative disorders

Question 23

3 categories of chronic myeloproliferative disorders

Answer 23

chronic myelogenous leukemia
polycythemia vera
primary myelofibrosis

Question 24

20% of all leukemia diagnoses; adults 30-50 y.o.
MC INCREASE granulocytes and megakaryocytic
leukocytosis > 100,000 cell/uL

Answer 24

chronic myelogenous leukemia

Question 25

category of chronic myeloproliferative disorders with features:slowly progressive, fatigue, EXTREME splenomegaly

Answer 25

chronic myelogenous leukemia

Question 26

Philadelphia (Ph) chromosome involved in 95% of cases of _______; specific gene is t(9;22)

Answer 26

chronic myelogenous leukemia

Question 27

in chronic myelogenous leukemia, __% enter accelerated phase with failure to respond to treatment, called “ _______” or “blast crisis” = prognosis is ____ years
marrow treatment is ___% curative

Answer 27

50%
spent phase
3 years
70%

Question 28

MC type of RBC cancer; too many RBCs, WBCs, and platelets; diagnoses is usually 60 y.o.

Answer 28

polycythemia vera

Question 29

point mutation in polycythemia vera

Answer 29

JAK2

Question 30

diagnosis for polycythemia vera is done by _____ + _______

Answer 30

polycythemia (increase RBC) + erythropoietin (EPO)

Question 31

bone marrow is ______ in polycythemia vera, multiple organ _______ –> infarction; dysfunctional platelets, prognosis with treatment is ____ years, but without treatment is _____ years

Answer 31

hypercellular
congestion
10-20 years
3 years

Question 32

chronic myeloproliferative disorder that has an EARLY “spent phase” and diffuse marrow fibrosis; massive splenomegaly; disordered hematopoiesis; usually diagnosed in LATE stages

Answer 32

primary myelofibrosis

Question 33

peripheral smears with primary myelofibrosis show ___ & ______ shaped cells

Answer 33

poikilocytes

darcocytes

Question 34

excessive proliferation of phagocytic stem cells that can be benign or malignant

Answer 34

histiocytic neoplasms

Question 35

with histiocytic neoplasms, langherhans cells are in the _______ and have a tennis-racket appearance called ________ ; the cells can either be a ____ or ______

Answer 35

epidermis
birbeck granules
unisystem or multisystem

Question 36

Multisystem Langerhans cell histiocytosis is MC in kids

Answer 36

2 y.o.
males
skin
osteolytic