Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NSCA CSCS > CH17 - CH22: Program Design > Flashcards

CH17 - CH22: Program Design Flashcards

1
Q

what is the SAID principle

A

specific adaptation to imposed demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

initial task of a strength and conditioning specialist

A

needs analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

an athletes current level of preparedness

A

training status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

recommended exercise frequency for someone with a beginner training status

A

2-3 times per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

recommended exercise frequency for someone with an intermediate training status

A

3-4 times per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

recommended exercise frequency for someone with an advanced training status

A

4-7 times per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

off season frequency guidelines

A

4-6 times per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pre season frequency guidelines

A

3-4 times per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

in season frequency guidelines

A

1-3 times per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

post season (active rest)

A

0-3 times per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

two sequentially performed sets targeting two opposing muscles or muscle areas

A

superset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sequentially performing two different exercises for the same muscle group

A

compound set

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

mechanical work

A

the product of force x displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the corresponding % of 1RM for the following repetition allowance: 1

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the corresponding % of 1RM for the following repetition allowance: 2

A

95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the corresponding % of 1RM for the following repetition allowance: 3

A

93

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the corresponding % of 1RM for the following repetition allowance: 4

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the corresponding % of 1RM for the following repetition allowance: 5

A

87

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the corresponding % of 1RM for the following repetition allowance: 7

A

83

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the corresponding % of 1RM for the following repetition allowance: 8

A

80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the corresponding % of 1RM for the following repetition allowance: 9

A

77

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the corresponding % of 1RM for the following repetition allowance: 10

A

75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the corresponding % of 1RM for the following repetition allowance: 6

A

85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the corresponding % of 1RM for the following repetition allowance: 11

A

70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the corresponding % of 1RM for the following repetition allowance: 12

A

67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the corresponding % of 1RM for the following repetition allowance: 15

A

65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

rep range for power

A

2-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

rep range for strength

A

2-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

rep range for hypertrophy

A

6-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

rep range for muscular endurance

A

> 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the 2 for 2 rule

A

if an athlete can complete 2 or more reps over assigned reps for 2 consecutive workouts weight should be added to the following session

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

total amount of weight lifted in a training session

A

volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

set range for power

A

3-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

set range for strength

A

2-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

set range for hypertrophy

A

3-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

set range for muscular endurance

A

2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

rest period for strength

A

2-5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

rest period for power single effort

A

2-5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

rest period for power multiple effort

A

2-5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

rest period for hypertrophy

A

30s to 90s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

rest period for muscular endurance

A

<30s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the workhorse for plyometric exercise?

A

series elastic component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what constitutes the majority of the SEC

A

tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

describe the function of the SEC

A

when an eccentric muscle action occurs the muscle is stretched which stores elastic energy in the SEC, if a concentric muscle action occurs immediately following this eccentric muscle action the SEC will contribute towards the total force production by naturally returning muscles and tendons to their un-stretched configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

if a concentric action doesn’t occur immediately after eccentric action, or if the eccentric phase is too long or requires too much motion about a given joint, what happens to the energy stored in the SEC?

A

dissipates and is lost as heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

change in the force-velocity characteristics of a muscles contractile components caused by a stretch

A

potentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what function employs the energy stored by the SEC and stimulation of the stretch reflex to maximize muscle recruitment over a short period

A

SSC - stretch shortening cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the three phases of the SSC?

A

eccentric, amortization, concentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the action in the eccentric phase of the SSC?

A

stretch of the agonist muslce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the action in the amortization phase of the SSC?

A

pause between phases 1 and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the action in the concentric phase of the SSC?

A

shortening of agonist muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

in which phase of the SSC are muscle spindles stimulated?

A

eccentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what physiological event occurs during the amortization phase?

A

type Ia afferent nerves synapse with alpha motor neuros which transmit signals to agonist muscle group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

in which phase of the SSC is elastic energy released from the SEC?

A

concentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

in which phase of the SSC do alpha motor neurons stimulate the agonist muscle group?

A

concentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what factors affect the intensity of lower body plyometric drills?

A

points of contact, speed, height of the drill, body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

how much rest should be allotted between plyometric sessions?

A

48 to 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

beginner plyo session volume

A

80 - 100 contacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

intermediate plyo session volume

A

100-120 contacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

advanced plyo session volume

A

120-140 contacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

dynamic valgus

A

inward movement of the knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is the strength guideline for lower body plyometrics?

A

1RM should be 1.5x body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is the balance guideline for lower body plyometrics

A

stand on one leg for 30s without falling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the recommended height range for depth jumps?

A

16 - 42 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is the recommended height range for depth jumps for athletes over 220 pounds?

A

18 inches MAX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

skills and abilities needed to explosively change direction, velocities or modes

A

change of direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

skills and abilities needed to change direction velocity or mode in response to a stimulus

A

agility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

typical index for explosive strength

A

RFD - rate of force development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

impulse

A

product of the force generated and the time required to generate it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

production of braking forces over certain periods of time

A

braking impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what aftereffect phenomenon occurs when a combination of progressive plyometric and heavy resistance training methods are used

A

post-activation poteintiation

72
Q

pre activation of the musculature used in sprinting is due to in an increase in what?

A

muscle spindle sensitivity

73
Q

model used to depict sprinting as a type of human locomotion

A

spring mass model

74
Q

what type of movement requires the longest ground contact time?

A

change of direction

75
Q

what type of movement has the shortest ground contact time

A

maximal velocity phase of a sprint

76
Q

what is the number one factor for increasing speed in individuals?

A

vertical force applied to the ground during the stance phase

77
Q

in sprinting the greatest force should be applied to the ground for as long as possible (T/F)

A

F - greatest force yes, but in the shortest possible period of time

78
Q

stride length of elite male sprinters

A

2.7m

79
Q

stride rates of elite male sprinters

A

4.63 step per second

80
Q

what are the two subcomponents of the stance phase?

A

eccentric braking, concentric propulsion

81
Q

what are the two subcomponents of the flight phase?

A

recovery and ground preparation

82
Q

what causes an athlete to step out laterally during the initial drive phase

A

an improper distribution of forces

83
Q

what causes an athlete to “jump” their first stride?

A

push off angle too high, upward thrust to steep

84
Q

what causes an athlete to experience chronic hamstring injury and pain?

A

insufficient mobility and improper positioning of the pelvis

85
Q

on an opponent what should an athlete focus on for change of direction cues?

A

shoulders, trunk and hip

86
Q

what should the athlete focus on controlling when decellerating?

A

the trunk

87
Q

what should an athlete re-orient first when changing tirections

A

trunk and hips

88
Q

what should be emphasized with athletes to improve change of direction performance

A

pushing the ground away

89
Q

through what mechanism can sprinting improve musculoskeletal control?

A

rate coding - when high central nervous system activity occurs over a prolonged period where the skeletal muscle does not completely relax between stimulations

90
Q

short term cycles

A

microcycles

91
Q

medium term cycles

A

mesocycles

92
Q

long term cycles

A

macrocycles

93
Q

strategic manipulation of an athletes preparedness through the employment of sequence training phases defined by cycles and stages of workload

A

periodization

94
Q

what is the most common key performance indicator for success in aerobic endurance events?

A

VO2 max

95
Q

lactate threshold

A

speed of movement or percentage of VO2 max when a specific blood lactate threshold is observed, or when blood lactate level begin to rise above resting threshold

96
Q

measure of the energy cost of activity at a given exercise velocity

A

exercise economy

97
Q

how often must you train per week to increase VO2 max?

A

> 2 times per week

98
Q

difference between maximal heart rate and resting heart rate

A

HRR - heart rate reserve

99
Q

if lab testing is unavailable what maximal heart rate should be used?

A

APMHR - age predicted maximal heart rate

100
Q

what are the two methods for determining desired exercise intensity for aerobic endurance training?

A

Karvonen method, percentage of maximal heart rate (MHR) method

101
Q

RPE

A

rating of perceived exhaustion (qualitative)

102
Q

amount of oxygen required by the body at rest?

A

MET - metabolic equivalent

103
Q

training intensities at around 70% of VO2 max

A

long, slow distance (LSD)

104
Q

pace/tempo training corresponds to what intensity?

A

at lactate threshold or at/above race pace

105
Q

combination of several anaerobic endurance training types

A

fartlek training

106
Q

during offseason duration of training should not increase by more than what % per week?

A

5-10%

107
Q

duration should be steadily increased during pre-season training (T/F)

A

F - intensity should be increased

108
Q

what type of training should precede scheduled competition races

A

low intensity short duration

109
Q

what is the focus of off season training for endurance athletes?

A

rehab from injuries and maintain cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular strength, and lean body mass

110
Q

what is the benefit of cross training for aerobic endurance athletes?

A

can reduce the likelihood of overuse injuries by distributing physiological stress across different muscle groups

111
Q

cross training has been shown to be just as effective as mode specific training for aerobic endurance athletes in improving single event performance (T/F)

A

F

112
Q

what is the best way for endurance athletes to limit the impact of detraining due to injury, illness or other factors?

A

continue to use their primary mode of exercise at ta reduced frequency and intensity

113
Q

systematic reduction of training duration and intensity combined with increase emphasis on technique work and nutritional intervention leading up to competition

A

tapering

114
Q

what are the three general approaches to tapering?

A

linear taper, step taper, progressive (combination)

115
Q

for altitude training to be effective how long must an athlete be in hypoxic conditions

A

> 12 hours per day for a minimum of three weeks

116
Q

for altitude training to be effective what altitude range must an athlete be at?

A

2100-2500 metres

117
Q

what is the most effective form of altitude training?

A

LHTL - live high train low

118
Q

how long can peak performance realistically be optimized for?

A

7-14 days

119
Q

what are the three basic mechanistic theories established for periodization

A

general adaptive syndrome, stimulus fatigue recovery adaptation theory, fitness fatigue paradigm

120
Q

In GAS what is the three stage response to stres?

A

alarm, resistance, exhaustion

121
Q

supercompensation

A

adaptive responses that result in biochemical, structural and mechanical adjustment that further elevate an athletes performance capabilities

122
Q

explain GAS

A
  • body experiences novel, new or intense stress
  • alarm phase; accumulation of fatigue, soreness, reduction in energetic stores, performance decline that can last hours, days, or weeks
  • resistance phase; body adapts to the stimulus and returns to normal functional capacity
  • if training stress is appropriately structured we get supercompensation
  • if training stress persists for too long the exhaustion phase sets in; decline in performance, overtraining symptoms may occur
123
Q

what are some factors that can push an athlete into the exhaustion phase?

A

excessive loading, monotonous training, overly varied training as well as non-training related issues like occupational stress, relationships, diet and sleep

124
Q

in the stimulus fatigue recovery adaptation theory what occurs if no new training stimulus is introduced once the fatigue states dissipates?

A

involution (detraining)

125
Q

what fact allows for preparedness to become elevated based on the fitness-fatigue paradigm?

A

that fatigue dissipates faster than fitness

126
Q

training period that is several months to a year

A

macrocycle

127
Q

training period that is 2-6 weeks

A

mesocycle

128
Q

training period that is several days to 2 weeks

A

microcycle

129
Q

period where there are no competitions and technical sport related work is limited

A

preparatory period

130
Q

what are the two subcomponents of the preparatory period?

A

general and specific

131
Q

what training focus occurs early in the general preparatory phase?

A

hypertrophy and strength endurance

132
Q

what training focus occurs in the specific preparatory phase?

A

basic strength

133
Q

in the first transition phase what training is in focus?

A

power and strength

134
Q

what program is required during the competition phase and what goal does it try and achieve?

A

maintenance, peaking

135
Q

the second transition phase of active rest should last how long?

A

no longer than four weeks

136
Q

the daily undulating model involves microcycle fluctuations in what?

A

load and volume

137
Q

what are the proposed benefits of the traditional periodization model over the undulating model

A

Less risk to injury

Easier to control the fitness fatigue paradigm

138
Q

what are the proposed benefits of the undulating model periodization model over the traditional model

A

Less neural fatigue (people like variety)

Can result in lower preparedness due to peripheral fatigue caused by higher volumes

139
Q

what person provides medical care to an organization and is typically a medical doctor or doctor of osteopathy?

A

team physician

140
Q

who is responsible for the day to day health of an athlete?

A

an athletic trainer

141
Q

physical therapist (physiotherapist)

A

someone with specialization in orthopedics or sports medicine that can play a valuable role in reducing pain and restoring function to injured athletes

142
Q

exercise physiologist

A

formal background in exercise sciences, helps design training programs that carefully considers physiology of the athlete

143
Q

a form of treatment required by the rehabilitating athlete

A

indication

144
Q

an activity or practice that is inadvisable or prohibited due to a particular injury

A

contraindication

145
Q

specific sudden episode of overload injury to a given tissue that disrupts the integrity of that tissue

A

macrotrauma

146
Q

dislocation

A

complete displacement of the joint surfaces

147
Q

subluxation

A

partial displacement of the joint surfaces

148
Q

first degree sprain

A

partial tear of the ligament without increased joint instability

149
Q

second degree sprain

A

partial tear with minor join instability

150
Q

third degree sprain

A

complete tear with full joint instability

151
Q

contusion

A

direct musculotendinous trauma

152
Q

muscle contusion

A

excess accumulation of blood and fluid in the tissues surrounding injured muscle; severely limits function of injured muscle

153
Q

strain

A

indirect musculotendinous trauma

154
Q

first degree muscle strain

A

partial tear of individual fibers characterized by strong but painful muscle activity

155
Q

second degree muscle strain

A

partial tear with weak and painful muscle activity

156
Q

third degree muscle strain

A

complete tea of the fibers manifested as very weak but relatively painless muscle activity

157
Q

microtrauma

A

overuse injury

158
Q

inflammation of the tendon

A

tendinitis

159
Q

initial reaction to injury

A

inflammation

160
Q

edema

A

“swelling”

161
Q

how long does the inflammatory phase typically last?

A

less than one week

162
Q

what phase follows the inflammatory phase

A

fibroblastic repair (tissue repair)

163
Q

when does fibroblastic repair begin and how long does it typically last?

A

2 days after injury, may last up to 2 months

164
Q

how long does tissue remodeling last?

A

months to year after injury

165
Q

physical agents that are viable primary treatment options for injury during inflammation phase

A

ice, compression, elevation, and electrical stimulation

166
Q

if movement of the injured limb is not contraindicated what isolated exercises should be incorporated into the rehab plan?

A

exercises that target the proximal and distal areas relative to the injury

167
Q

isometric

A

contractions where muscles don’t change length and joints don’t move

168
Q

isokinetic

A

muscles contract and shorten at a constant speed

169
Q

isotonic

A

muscles contract and shorten at a constant load

170
Q

de lormes program has resistance that progresses how?

A

light to heavy

171
Q

oxford system has resistance that progresses how?

A

heavy to light

172
Q

10 reps @50% of 10RM
10 reps @75% of 10RM
10 reps @100% of 10RM

A

de lorme’s program

173
Q

10 reps @100% of 10RM
10 reps @75% of 10RM
10 reps @50% of 10RM

A

oxford system

174
Q

10 reps @50% of estimated 1RM
6 reps @75% of estimated 1RM
max reps @100% or estimated 1RM
adjusted based on third set performance

A

daily adjustable progressive resistive exercise

175
Q

In DAPR if the third set had 3-4 reps what is the adjustment for set 4 and then the next session?

A

set 4 - drop 0 to 5 lb

next session - same resistance

176
Q

In DAPR if the third set had 11 reps what is the adjustment for set 4 and then the next session?

A

set 4 - add 10 to 15 lbs

next session - add 10 to 20 lbs

NSCA CSCS (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions