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Clerkship Prep > CCE specific > Flashcards

CCE specific Flashcards

1
Q

Differential diagnosis for seizures in a nine month old

A

Febrile seizure, tumor, stroke, injury, meningitis, epilepsy, electrolyte imbalance, hypoglycaemia

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2
Q

How long does a febrile seizure usually last

A

Less than 10 minutes

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3
Q

Epilepsy is diagnosed when a patient has had

A

Two or more unprovoked seizures

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4
Q

Risk factors for febrile seizures include

A

Previously diagnosed to neurodevelopmental abnormality, epilepsy and a first-degree relative, high fever

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5
Q

Generalized and brief seizure which occurs once in does not require within 24 hours in a young child with a fever

A

Simple febrile seizure

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6
Q

Focal and prolonged or repetitive seizure in a child with a fever

A

Complex febrile seizure

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7
Q

Further test order in a child with hypoglycaemia on POC test

A

Serum glucose to confirm the diagnosis, insulin, C-Peptide, electrolytes, Uriah, creatin, AST, ALT, drug screen, BHB

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8
Q

High insulin level with low C-peptide might mean

A

Patient has been taking exogenous insulin

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9
Q

Breaking bad news mnemonic spikes stands for

A

Setting, perception, invitation, knowledge sharing, emotions, strategy in summary.

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10
Q

Five common causes for postmenopausal bleeding

A

Cancer (endometrial adenocarcinoma or cervical squamous cell), endometrial atrophy due to hypo oestrogenic state, I don’t know meiosis, pull-ups, fibroids.

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11
Q

Risk factors for endometrial adenocarcinoma

A

Postmenopausal bleeding, endometrial thickness greater than 4 mm, increased age, nulliparity, diabetes mellitus

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12
Q

Common causes of viral gastroenteritis in children

A

Rotavirus, Norovirus, adenovirus,

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13
Q

Three common causes of bacterial gastroenteritis in children

A

E. coli, salmonella, CDiff

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14
Q

Most common cause of parasitic gastroenteritis in children

A

Giardia

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15
Q

Treating mild to moderate dehydration and children

A

ORT: 90meq/L Na, 20meq/L K, 20meq/L glucose

50-100mL/kg over 2-4 hrs

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16
Q

Treating moderate to severe dehydration/hypovolemic shock in child

A

20 mL per kilogram bolus of ringers lactate until blood pressure normalizes

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17
Q

Maintenance fluids 421 rule

A

4 mg per kilogram for the first 10 kg, then 2 mg per kilogram for the next 10 kg, and then 1 mg per kilogram for the remaining weight

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18
Q

Combined oral contraceptive pills work by mimicking which phase of the menstrual cycle

A

The luteal phase

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19
Q

In addition to mimicking the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and inhibiting LHFSH an ovulation combined oral contraceptives further reduce the risk of pregnancy by

A

Thickening the cervical mucus to burnt sperm passage and thinning the endometrium to reduce the chance of implantation 

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20
Q

Medical contraindications to combined hormonal birth control pills

A

Migraine with aura, current breast cancer, high VTE risk factors

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21
Q

Some high VTE risk factors include

A

Atrial fibrillation, SLE positive for antiphospholipid antibodies, age 35 and smoking 15 cigarettes daily, history of stroke, history of thrombus, major surgery with prolonged mobilization

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22
Q

Differential diagnosis for a necrotizing soft tissue infection

A

Cellulitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, gas gangrene, DVT

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23
Q

Risk factors for necrotizing soft tissue infection

A

Anything that may depress immunity or tissue perfusion such as diabetes, intravenous drug use, alcohol abuse, obesity, chronic steroid use, liver failure or kidney failure

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24
Q

Most common bugs in immuno compromised patient with necrotizing soft tissue infection

A

Polymicrobial

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25
Q

Most common bug in an average patient with a necrotizing soft tissue infection

A

Group a strep, gram-positive cocci

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26
Q

Most common gram negative bug in necrotizing soft tissue infection

A

Typically a marine organism like vibrio

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27
Q

 Asking the patient to inhaled will hook in the fingers under the liver border inspiration causing the gallbladder to send them to the fingers producing pain if the gallbladder is inflamed is called

A

Murphy’s sign

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28
Q

Location of the appendix 2/3 from the umbilicus and the ASIS

A

McBurney’s point

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29
Q

Pain in the right lower quadrant with left lower quadrant palpation

A

Rosvings sign

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30
Q

Increased abdominal pain with extension of the leg at the hip

A

Psoas sign

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31
Q

Right hypogastric pain when the right hip is flexed knee bent and internally rotated at the hip

A

Obturator sign

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32
Q

Fever right upper quadrant pain and Murphy’s sign positive

A

Cholecystitis

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33
Q

Fever right upper quadrant pain Murphy’s sign positive jaundiced an elevated labs

A

Choledocholithiasis

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34
Q

Shock, fever, jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, altered mental status

A

Cholangitis 

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35
Q

Blue or gray appearance to the abdomen and the flanks

A

Gray Turner side

36
Q

Echinosis in the Peri umbilical area around the belly button

A

Cullen sign

37
Q

Two signs for ascites

A

Shifting dullness, Fluid wave test

38
Q

History of diabetes, nausea and vomiting, thirsty, abdominal pain

A

DKA

39
Q

Treat DKA with

A

Fluid bolus normal saline one later, DKA protocol involves IV insulin slowly with potassium

40
Q

Inflammation of the pouches in the intestine is called

A

Diverticulitis

41
Q

Left lower quadrant pain, diarrhea, maybe bloody, nausea, vomiting, older patient

A

Diverticulitis

42
Q

Treat diverticulitis with

A

Metronidazole and ciprofloxacin

43
Q

Three viruses that cause otitis media

A

RSV, para influenza, influenza

44
Q

Three bacteria that causes bacterial acute otitis media

A

Strep pneumonia, H flu, moraxella catarrhalis

45
Q

Risk factors for ear infections

A

Bottlefeeding, caretaker smoking, daycare attendance, pacifier use

46
Q

Treatment of bacterial otitis media inpatient younger than two years, high risk, very ill appearing

A

High-dose amoxycillin

47
Q

Treatment for severe croup

A

Nebulized epinephrin and steroids

48
Q

Which bug causes bacterial tracheitis

A

Staph aureus

49
Q

Which bug causes epiglottitis

A

H flu

50
Q

Treatment for a group a strep pharyngitis

A

Penicillin times 10 days

51
Q

Positive Monospot test or heterophile antibody

A

Infectious mononucleosis

52
Q

First phase of whooping cough

A

Catarrhal phase 1 to 2 weeks of low-grade fever, cough, coryza

53
Q

Second phase of pertussis

A

Paroxysmal phase which includes intent spasms of coughing followed by a sudden inhalation which produces a whoop sound

54
Q

Risk factors for endometrial cancer

A

Advanced age, unopposed estrogen, tamoxiphen therapy, early menarche or late menopause more periods, nulliparity, PCOS, obesity, diabetes

55
Q

Causes of postmenopausal PV bleed

A

Atrophy of the vagina or endometrium, cancer, I don’t know meiosis, polyps, fibroids

56
Q

Two questions to ask about paranoia

A

Do you think that anyone is trying to harm you? Do you think that someone is following you?

57
Q

Questions for thought insertion

A

Are your thoughts your own? Is there anyone putting thoughts into your head that you know we’re not your own

58
Q

Questions for thought Broadcasting

A

Can anyone else hear your thoughts when you aren’t speaking

59
Q

Mania questions

A

Have you ever felt like you haven’t needed to sleep? Have you felt like you have unlimited energy? Do you feel like you’ve accomplished a lot in a very short amount of time?

60
Q

Parts of the mental status exam

A

Appearance, behavior, speech, mood, affect, thought content and process , perception, cognition, insight

61
Q

Psychosis that lasts from one day to one month

A

Brief psychotic disorder

62
Q

Psychosis that lasts from one month to less than six months

A

Schizophreniform

63
Q

To diagnose schizophrenia psychosis must be present for more than

A

Six months

64
Q

First line therapy for schizophrenia or other psychotic disorders

A

Second-generation antipsychotics such as Abilify, quetiapine, olanzapine

65
Q

Common side effects to second-generation antipsychotics are

A

Metabolic, weight gain, extra Piramidal side effects

66
Q

Differential diagnosis for psychosis

A

Schizoaffective disorder, mood disorder with psychotic features, delusional disorders

67
Q

Treat bipolar type 2 with

A

Lithium, mood stabilizers

68
Q

Cluster headache treatment

A

High-dose oxygen, Triptans

69
Q

PR interval normal length

A

0.12-20

70
Q

QRS interval normal length

A

<0.12

71
Q

QTC interval normals for male and female

A

Male less than 460 female less than 480

72
Q

m shaped P-wave can be indicative of

A

P-mitrale, left atrial enlargement

73
Q

Peaked p-wave can be indicative of

A

Right atrial enlargement or p pulmonale

74
Q

Septal leads

A

V1 and V2

75
Q

Anterior wall leads

A

V3 and V4

76
Q

Lateral wall leads

A

I, aVL, V5, V6

77
Q

Inferior wall leads

A

II, III, avF

78
Q

Carpopedal spasm when blood pressure cuff is inflated over arm for 2 to 3 minutes

A

Trousseau sign for hypocalcaemia

79
Q

Facial spasm when facial nerve is tapped over the parotid

A

Chvosteks sign for hypocalcemia

80
Q

Next best test for hypocalcaemia or hypercalcaemia

A

PTH

81
Q

Drugs that can cause hypercalcaemia

A

Thiazide diuretics, lithium, vitamin D

82
Q

A lipid profile includes

A

Total cholesterol, high density lipoprotein, low density lipoprotein, triglycerides

83
Q

COPD with decreased DLCO

A

Emphysema

84
Q

COPD with normal DLCO

A

Broncholitis

85
Q

Restricted PFT pattern with decreased DLCO

A

Interstitial lung disease, congestive heart failure

86
Q

Red/brown Granular casts in urine

A

ATN

87
Q

Left anterior chest line at the level of the lower intercostal space is called

A

Castells point. Percuss here for splenomegaly during inspiration

Clerkship Prep (34 decks)

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