cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

Right side HF

A

when the heart can’t pump enough blood to the lung to get oxygenated

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2
Q

Ticagrelol (Brilinta):

A

Reversible and noncompetitive inhibitor of ADP P2Y12 receptor on platelet surface thus preventing activitation of GPIIb/IIIa leading to reducing platelets aggregation.

  1. MD of ASA > 100mg reduce effectiveness of Brilinta and should be avoided.
  2. Use is CI is ICH, PU bleeding.
  3. Surgery: D/C > 5days prior to operations
  4. CI in pregnancy
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3
Q

Main indications for VKAs are

A
Atrial fibrillation
Acute coronary syndrome
Heart failure
Prosthetic heart valve
Stroke
Deep vein thrombosis
Pulmonary embolism
Antiphospholipid syndrome
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4
Q

Difference between valvular Afib & non-Valvular Afib:

A
  1. Valvular AF: AF in the setting of moderate-to-severe mitral stenosis (potentially requiring surgical intervention) or in the presence of an artificial (mechanical) heart valve. Valvular AF is considered an indication for LONG-TERM anticoagulation with warfarin.
  2. Non-valvular AF does not imply the absence of valvular heart disease. Instead, as used in the present focused update, non-valvular AF is AF in the absence of moderate-to-severe mitral stenosis or a mechanical heart valve.
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5
Q

Ranolazine (Ranexa)

A

Exerts antianginal and anti-ischemic effects without changing hemodynamic parameters (heart rate or blood pressure).

Inhibits the late phase of the inward sodium channel (late INa) in ischemic cardiac myocytes during cardiac repolarization reducing intracellular sodium concentrations and thereby reducing calcium influx via Na+-Ca2+ exchange. Decreased intracellular calcium reduces ventricular tension and myocardial oxygen consumption.

It is classified as: Partial fatty acid oxidation inhibitors (pFOX inhibtor): which enhances the efficiency utilization of oxygen.

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6
Q

Nitroglycerine (glycerly trinitrate):

A

The active ingredient is dynamite. It primarily reduces cardiac oxygen demand by decreasing preload through release of Nitric oxide (similar MOA of nitroprusside) thus, producing a vasodilator effect on the peripheral veins and arteries with more prominent effects on the veins. It is firstly undergoes dinitration in the liver to 2 dinitrate (glyceryl trinitrate) which has the vasodialatory effects and then to mononitrates which is less active.

**use in rectal fissures, intra-anal administration results in decreased sphincter tone and intra-anal pressure.

First pass effect after oral administration is 90% !!!

Continuous IV infusion: Tolerance to the hemodynamic and antianginal effects can develop within 24 to 48 hours of continuous use. Nitrate-free interval (10 to 12 hours/day) is recommended to avoid tolerance development; gradually decrease dose in patients receiving nitroglycerin for prolonged periods to avoid withdrawal reaction.

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7
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers:

A

blocking L-type calcium channels leading to vasodialation and decrease afterload thus decreasing oxygen demand.

Verapamil and Diltiazem: also decrease heart rate and contractility. Thus, its use is beneficial in Arrhythmia.

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8
Q

Mechanism of QT prolongation associated with Ranexa:

A

Ranolazine inhibits the rapid delayed rectifier potassium current (IKr) thus prolonging the ventricular action potential duration and subsequent prolongation of the QT interval.

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9
Q

Ivabradine (PROCORALAN)

A

Antianginal through the blockage of the pacemaker Na channel (If) in SA node thus reducing Heart rate

It used for HF with EF<35% who are not responding to beta blockers and has sinus rythm of >70

SE: Luminous phenomena due to the fact that in the Retina of the eye there are If channels, bradycardia, AV block, Afib.

CI with CYP450 inhibitors i.e. verapamil

***Doses are based on HR

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10
Q

Major effect of digitalis on AV node and the ECG include:

A

increase AV node refractory period

Inverted T-wave

Short QT intervals

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11
Q

HF treatment include:

A

1.Cardiac Glycosides.

2.Diuretics: effective early treatment for both systolic and diastolic HF. (initial treatment is always Lasix)
Spironolactone is the only agent proved to reduce mortality in long standing HF

  1. ACEI & ARBS (they have NO positive inotropic effects however they reduce water retention, decrease aldosterone and vascular resistance.
  2. Beta-blockers: Carvedilol showed to prolong life on HF patient despite its negative inotropic action on the heart.
  3. Vasodilators: Isobide dinitrates, Hydralazine, Nestiride(Natriuretic peptides with diuretics effects) ) which is used in acte failure only through IV route.
  4. PDE-5 inhibitors: by increasing cAMP leading to vasodialation
  5. Beta1 selective agonist: Dobutamine which has positive inotropic effects
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12
Q

Patients with HF have a lesser response to a given dose of diuretic than normal subjects due to main two reasons:

A
  1. decreased diuretic delivery to the kidney due to low renal blood flow.
  2. Increased sodium reabsorption at other sites due to hypoperfusion-induced activation of the RAAS & sympathetic nervous systems.
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13
Q

Cardiac Glycosides Founded by William Withering from …………………………………

A

Founded by William Withering from foxglove plant (Digitalis)

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14
Q

Anti-ischemic and analgesic therapy:

A

M: morphine however its use demonstrated negative effects on anti-platelets.
O: Oxygen: in patients with PO2 less than 90%
N: nitroglycerine to elevate chest discomfort.
A: ASA+ P2Y12 inhibitors.

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15
Q

It is a cardenolide meaning it contains a steroid and a lactone ring

It has a positive inotropy in cardiac myocytes

A

Cardiac Glycosides

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16
Q

Cardiac troponins are more ……………. and ………………… markers of cardiomyocyte injury than (CK), (CK-MB), and myoglobin.

A

Cardiac troponins are more sensitive and specific markers of cardiomyocyte injury than creatine kinase (CK), its myocardial band isoenzyme (CK-MB), and myoglobin.

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17
Q

Stroke volume (SV) is defined as:

A

amount of blood pumps from each ventricles at each heartbeat.

SV= EDV - ESV

SV depends on: EDV( filled volume before contraction) and ESV (volume of blood remaining after ejection) and Contractility.

Normal SV= 70ml

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18
Q

Difference between infarction and ischemia:

A
  1. Ischemia is a restriction in blood supply leading to tissue damage. “absence of blood supply” . Treatment focuses on increasing blood flow to the heart. Reversible damage.
  2. Infarction aka heart attack: tissue death due to obstructed blood flow in the coronary arteries such as thrombus or rupture of blood vessels. Irreversible damage.

***Hypo perfusion—> ischemia—-> infarction

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19
Q

MOA of Digoxin:

A
  1. Blocks Na/K ATPase leading to increased intra-cellular Na levels which lead to stimulation of the Na calcium exchange pump leading to accumulation of Ca+2 levels within the cell thus, exerting its effects of increased contractility.
  2. Increase vagal tone, which results in decreased conduction through the SA & AV nodes

-Has narrow therapeutic window.

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20
Q

Mitral Stenosis treatment

A
  1. long-term oral anticoagulation (vit.K antagonist) with INR goal of 2.5
  2. beta-blockers or negative chronotropic calcium channel blockers i.e. verapamil or diltiazem.
  3. Statins:?? still controversial
  4. Loop diuretics: mainly in severe stages when the patient develops pulmo congestion or right side heart failure
  5. Digoxin in cases where there is LV dysfunction.
21
Q

Bile is made up of:

A

Cholesterol + Carboxylic acid

22
Q

Routine catheter access is obtained from either the …… or ………….artery.

A

either the radial or femoral artery.

The radial artery approach has gained wide acceptance and demonstrated reduced bleeding complications relative to femoral artery access.

23
Q

Cholestyramine (Questran), Packets

A

Tx of HLP and hYPERthyrodism.

off-label: used to increase elimination of Leflonamide (Arava) in women planning to get pregnant.

should NOT be used in patients with baseline fasting triglyceride levels ≥300 mg/dL or type III hyperlipoproteinemia since severe TG elevations may occur. discontinue use if TG >400 mg/dL

Maximum dose for HLP: 24g/day in divided doses or once daily dose at evening time.

24
Q

INR goal in mitral stenosis:

A

2-2.5

25
Q

ransitioning between Ticagrelol and plavix:

A

< 30days: start w/LD of 180mg 24 hrs after last dose of plavix then MD of 90mg 12 hours later

> 30 days: start immediately with MD 24hrs after last dose of plavix

26
Q

Left side HF

A

when the heart can’t pump oxygenated blood to the rest of the body

27
Q

Gives False Negative when testing for HIT via platelets activation assays.

A

Ticagrelol (Brilinta)

28
Q

Mitral stenosis (MS) is a condition characterized by

A

obstruction of blood flow across the mitral valve from the left atrium to the left ventricle. The mechanical obstruction leads to increases in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart

29
Q

MOA of Bile Acid Sequestrants (BAS)

A

Sequestrant means “Silencer or stopper”

Bile bind to fat molecules forming emulsions in which BAS will bind to and eventually facilitates its excretion rather than restoring in the gallbladder (97% of bile is reused in the absence of BAS) leading to the emptying of gallbladder which in turn will signal the liver to produce more bile acid thus decreasing levels of cholesterol and ultimately levels of LDL.

In other words:
Forms a nonabsorbable complex with bile acids in the intestine, releasing chloride ions in the process; inhibits enterohepatic reuptake of intestinal bile salts and thereby increases the fecal loss of bile salt-bound low density lipoprotein cholestero

30
Q

HIT type I :

A

HIT type I (also known as heparin‐associated thrombocytopenia) is a non‐immunologic response to heparin treatment, mediated by a direct interaction between heparin and circulating platelets causing platelet clumping or sequestration.

usually occurs within the first 48–72 h after initiation of heparin treatment, and is characterized by a mild and transient thrombocytopenia (rarely <100 000/mm3), often returning to normal within 4 days once the heparin is withdrawn. No laboratory tests are required to diagnose HIT type I, and it is not associated with an increased risk of thrombosis,

31
Q

HIT type II

A

whereas HIT type II is immune‐mediated and associated with a risk of thrombosis.

32
Q

antiarrythmic drug class Ιb produce its action through

A

shortening phase 3 replorization

33
Q

Class ΙΙ antiarrythmic drugs produce its action through:

A

Suppress phase 4 depolarization

34
Q

Group I antiarrhythmic act on which phase of the action potential?

A

phase 0 & 4

35
Q

L-type ca+2 blockers (verapamil and Diltiazem) act on phase ……………………. as antiarrhythmic agents

A

phase 4 they belong to class IV

36
Q

Class Ia antiarrhythmic include:

A

procainamide
Amiodarone
Quinidine
Disopyramide

37
Q

Group III antiarrhythmic act on which phase of the action potential?

A

phase 3

38
Q

Class III antiarrhythmic

A

K+blockers, increase QT
Dofetilide
Ibutilide

39
Q

Lidocaine belongs to class ………………………… antiarrhythmic

A

Class Ib

40
Q

wolf-Parkinson’s disease ECG manifestation:

A

delta waves + tachyarrhythmia

41
Q

T wave on ECG:

A

ventricular repolarization

42
Q

Absent P waves:

A

Afib

43
Q

QRS:

A

ventricular repolarization

44
Q

ST waves:

A

ventricular repolarization

45
Q

Narrow QRS:

A

ventricular depolarization

46
Q

Phenytoin (eg, Dilantin) is class ………….. antiarrhythmic agent

A

class IB antiarrhythmic agent

47
Q

warfarin gene:

A

VKORC1 and CYP2C9 genotypes

48
Q

Beta blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (such as pindolol and acebutolol) should be avoided in patients with HFrEF.

A

Patients with HFrEF with no or minimal current evidence of volume overload should be treated with one of the following three beta blockers with established clinical benefits in randomized trials:

carvedilol (immediate release or extended release), extended release metoprolol succinate, or
bisoprolol.

49
Q
21-most direct anticoagulant that causes dyspepsia?
A.Dabigatran
B.rivaroxaban
C.apixaban
D.betrixaban
A

Dabigatran