Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AMK > Cardio Pathology > Flashcards

Cardio Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Endocarditis

A
  • infection of the inner lining of the heart
  • infection in the blood vessels coming out of the heart

Symptoms :
- fever
- chills
- small red/purple spots on the skin
- painful red lumps on fingers and toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is it?

Malignant hypertension

A
  • severely high blood pressure
    180/120
  • can cause multiple complications and organ damage
  • more vasoconstriction
  • medical emergency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

giant cell arteritis

A
  • pain and stiffness in the neck
  • due to inflammation of the blood vessels
  • causes narrowing of arteries and reduced blood flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

pericarditis

A
  • inflammation of the pericardium
  • can be caused by virus and bacteria

symptoms:
- chest pain,
- fever
- ECG changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aortic Stenosis

A
  • valve disease
    narrowing of the aortic valve opening
  • it is followed by three symptoms
  1. heart failure
  2. syncope
  3. angina
  • slow rising pulse
  • decreased exercise tolerance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cardiac Tamponade

A
  • there is accumulation of fluid, blood and air in the pericardial space
  • this raises intra pericardial pressure
  • diastolic filling is reduced - cardiac output is reduced

Symptoms:
- tachycardia
- confusion
- chest pain
- hypotension, quiet heart sounds and raised JVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Pericardiocentesis

A

procedure done to remove fluid that gets built up in the pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Aortic Regurgitation

A
  • the aortic valve is leaking and causes the blood to flow in the reverse direction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mitral regurgitation

A
  • when the mitral valve doesn’t close properly
  • the blood flows backwards into the heart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aortic Sclerosis

A
  • thickening of the aortic valve
  • but doesn’t properly block blood flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tricuspid Stenosis

A
  • narrowing of the tricuspid valve
  • disruption in blood flow from right atrium to right ventricle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

STEMI on ECG

A
  • new onset left bundle branch block LBBB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

De Musset’s Sign

A

bobbing of head along with heartbeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Quincke’s sign

A

pulsation of nail beds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Traube’s sign

A

pistol shot sound coming from femoral pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Muller’s sign

A

bobbing of the uvula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Widened pulse pressure

A

low diastolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ACUTE BRADYCARDIA
what is it?

A

-heart rate of less than 60 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Causes of Bradycardia

A
  1. beta blockers
  2. calcium channel blockers
  3. hypothyroidism
  4. electrolyte abnormalities (hypokalaemia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES OF BRADYCARDIA

A
  • dizziness
  • fatigue
  • syncope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MANAGEMENT OF BRADYCARDIA

A

DR ABCDE

IF PATIENT IS HAVING ANY OF THESE 4: shock, myocardial ischaemia, HF or Syncope:

GIVE ATROPINE 500mcg IV

(If doesn’t work then give adrenaline 2-10mcg per minute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how does Atropine work in managing bradycardia

A

blocks vagus activity to the heart so the firing to the SA node is increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which antibiotics are associated with Long QT interval?

A

Macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what causes raised JVP?

A

venous hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MYOCARDITIS
What is it?

A
  • inflammatory disease of the myocardium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CAUSES OF MYOCARDITIS

A
  • viral infection
  • auto-immune conditions
  • chagus disease
  • kawasaki disease: high temperature for over 5 days and swollen neck glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

SYMPTOMS OF MYOCARDITIS

A
  • HF
  • Palpitations
  • Chest Pain
  • Fatigue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is heard on auscultation in pericarditis

A

pericardial rub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

DIAGNOSING MYOCARDITIS

A

ST segment and T wave changes on ECG
Elevated troponin levels
ventricular dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MANAGEMENT OF MYOCARDITIS

A
  • treat the underlying cause
  • treat HF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

TACHYCARDIA
what is it

A

heart rate >100bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

MANAGEMENT OF TACHYCARDIA IN UNSTABLE PATIENT

A

EMERGENCY SYNCHRONISED DIRECT CURRENT CARDIOVERSION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

MANAGEMENT OF TACHYCARDIA IN STABLE PATIENTS with REGULAR RHYTHM

A

Vagal manoeuvres or Valsalva manoeuvre - blow into tube

IF this fails:

GIVE ADENOSINE 6MG (over 2 seconds)
6MG
12MG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

MANAGEMENT OF TACHYCARDIA IN STABLE PATIENTS with IRREGULAR RHYTHM

A

IF ONSET IS <48 HOURS: Flecainide
IF ONSET IS > 48 HOURS: Bisoprolol or Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

SICK SINUS SYNDROME

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is given to manage tachycardia in ASTHMATIC PATIENTS

A

Verapamil (adenosine CANNOT be given to asthmatic patients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when is digoxin used?

A

used for fast AF in patients with Heart Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ECG SHOWS DELTA WAVES AND SHORT PR INTERVAL
what condition is this?

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ECG SHOWS SHORT PR INTERVAL
what condition is this

A

Lown-Ganong-Lenine syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ACUTE MYOCARDITIS
what is it

A

inflammation of the myocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

FEATURES OF MYOCARDITIS

A

chest pain
fatigue
palpitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

TREATMENT OF ACUTE MYOCARDITIS

A

painkillers
antibiortics
corticosteroids - alemtuzumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

AORTIC DISECCTION
what is it

A

tear in the tunica intima of the aorta
blood flows between the layers making a false lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

TWO TYPES OF AORTIC DISECCTION

A

type A - aortic arch and ascending aorta
type B - descending aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES OF AORTIC DISECCTION

A

tearing chest pain
radiates to the back
renal failure/bowel ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

EXAMINATION FEATURE OF AORTIC DISECCTION

feature of the blood pressure

A

different BP on each arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

INVESTIGATION FOR AORTIC DISECCTION

A

CT angiography
ECG
bloods will show raised troponin and positive D-Dimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

MANAGEMENT OF AORTIC DISECCTION

A

TYPE A: surgical management
TYPE B: conservative management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

AORTIC REGURGITATION
what is it

A

incomplete closure of the AV valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

CAUSES OF ACUTE AORTIC REGURGITATION

A

infective endocarditis
aortic disecction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

CAUSES OF CHRONIC AORTIC REGURGITATION

A

rheumatic heart disease
bicuspid aortic valve
Marfan’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

PRESENTATION OF ACUTE AORTIC REGURGITATION

A

pulmonary oedema
pallor
sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

PRESENTATION OF CHRONIC AORTIC REGURGITATION

A

exertional dyspnoea
nocturnal dyspnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

EXAMINATION FINDINGS OF AORTIC REGURGITATION

A

waterhammer pulse
De mussets sign
Quincke’s sign
Traube’s sign
collapsing pulse
early diastolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

MAANAGEMENT OF AORTIC REGURGITATION

A

aortic root dilation
beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

AORTIC STENOSIS
what is it

A

narrowing of the aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES OF AORTIC STENOSIS

A

heart failure
syncope
angina
exertional dyspnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

EXAMINATION FINDINGS OF AORTIC STENOSIS

A

slow rising pulse
heaving apex beat
ejection systolic murmur on 2nd R. intercostal space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

ECG FINDINGS OF AORTIC STENOSIS

A

increased QRS voltage
left axis deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

WHO IS GIVEN INTERVENTION FOR AORTIC STENOSIS

A
  1. symptomatic patients
  2. asymptomatic patients with LVEF <50%
  3. asymptomatic patients with LVEF <50% who have a fall in BP during exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

MANAGEMENT FOR AORTIC STENOSIS

A

transcatheter aortic valve implantation (for patients at high risk who cannot have surgery)
or
surgical aortic valve replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

AORTIC SCLEROSIS
what is it

A

narrowing of the aortic valve without having any affects on the function of the valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

CLINICAL FEATURE OF AORTIC SCLEROSIS

A

ejection systolic murmur that doesnt radiate to the carotids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

ATRIAL FLUTTER
what is it

A

regular, rapid atrial rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

CAUSES OF ATRIAL FLUTTER

A

COPD
sleep apnoea
PE
sepsis
alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

CLINCIAL FEATURES OF AORTIC FLUTTER

A

dizziness
palpitations
chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

ECG OF ATRIAL FLUTTER

A

saw tooth baseline at 300 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

MANAGEMENT OF ATRIAL FLUTTER

A

HEAMODYNAMICALLY UNSTABLE: DC cardioversion
HEAMODYNAMICALLY STABLE: rate control by beta blockers or CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

ATRIAL FIBRILLATION
what is it

A

uncoordinated atrial contraction at 300-600bpm
delay at AV node so only some of the atrial contractions get passed onto the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

CAUSES OF ATRIAL FIBRILLATION

A

CARDIAC: ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, rheumatic heart disease
NON CARDIAC: dehydration, hyperthyroidism, sepsis and PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF ATRIAL FIBRILLATION

(different names for the duration)

A

acute <48h
paroxysmal: <7 days
persistent >7 days
permanent >7 days and doesn’t go away with cardio version

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES OF ATRIAL FIBRIALLTION

A

palpitations
chest pain
shortness of breath
dizziness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

MANAGEMENT OF ATRIAL FIBRILLATION

A

Rate control - given to those who have AF with reversible cause
eg. bisoprolol (BB)
diltiazem (CCB) and Verapamil

BB cannot be given to hypotensive patients so give DIGOXIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

MANAGEMENT OF ATRIAL FIBRILLATION BASED ON ONSET

A

<48 hours - DC cardioversion
>48 hours - 3 weeks on anticoagulation and then DC cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

IMPORTANT DRUGS IN AF

A

flecainide - for younger patients
amiodarone - rate and rhythm control
sotalol - BB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

CHADS2-VASC SCORE

A

C- congestive heart failure 1
H- hypertension 1
A- >75 2
D- diabetes 1
S-stroke 2

V- vascular disease 1
A- age <75 1
S-sex Female 1 male 0

males with score 1 and females with score 2 = anticoagulation needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

ANTICOAGULATIONS IN AF

A

direct oral anticoagulation - apixaban and rivaroxaban
warfarin
low molecular weight heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

CARDIAC TAMPONADE
what is it

A

fluid, blood and air accumulates in the pericardial space
causes raised intra pericardial pressure and reduced cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

CLINCIAL FEATURES OF CARDIAC TAMPONADE

A

shortness of breath
tachycardia
confusion
chest pain
abdo pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

BECKS TRIAD FOR CARDIAC TAMPONADE

A

hypotension
quiet heart sounds
raised JVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

RISK FACTORS OF CARDIAC TAMPONADE

A

pericarditis
serious injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

INVESTIGATION FOR CARDIAC TAMPONADE

A

ECG: low voltage on QRS complex
Chest xray: large, globular heart
ECHO: more fluid around heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

MANAGEMENT OF CARDIAC TAMPONADE

A

unstable patients: pericardiocentesis
stable: surgical drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

CARDIAC MYXOMA
what is it

A

benign tumour in heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES CARDIAC MYXOMA

A

fever
weight loss
nail clubbing
‘plop’ sound on auscultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

ECG FEATURES FOR COPD

A

right ventricular heave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

HEART FAILURE MANAGEMENT

A

cardiac resynchronisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

MANAGEMENT OF BRADYCARDIA AFTER MI

A

transcutaneous pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PERICARDITIS IN POST MI PATIENTS

A

high dose aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

LEFT VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY IS SEEN WHEN

A

stable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE: pt is already on ramipril and furosemide and bisoprolol,

what should be given now

A

spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

PATIENT HAS CHEST PAIN FOR 12 HOURS

A

angiography and PCI

93
Q

NORMAL QT INTERVAL

A

<350-450ms

94
Q

SYNCOPE after exertion with short QT interval - what is it

A

cardiac arrythmia

95
Q

COMMON CAUSE OF INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS IN IV DRUG USERS

A

staphyl. aureus

96
Q

WHAT MEDICATIONS SHOULD BE GIVEN TO PATIENTS AFTER AN MI

A

ACE inhibitor,
beta-blocker
statin

97
Q

Patient with severe hypomagnesaemia collapses - what is the most likely cause of the collapse

A

Ventricular tachycardia

98
Q

Pernicious anaemia - what is it

A

Deficiency of red blood cells due to lack of vitamin B12
Mainly due to autoimmune conditions like diabetes

99
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation - what is it

A

small blood clots develop throughout the bloodstream
this blocks small blood vessels
this reduces the platelets and clotting factors needed to control bleeding
causes excessive bleeding.

100
Q

Which corticosteriod can be used to increase blood pressure (useful in postural hypotension)

A

Fludrocortisone

101
Q

ECG side effects of ramipril

A

hyperkalaemia,
tall t waves,
flat p waves
broad QRS

102
Q

most common

side effect of PCI

A

heart can swell and cause compartment syndrome

103
Q

what are the heart related enzymes and what are raised after MI

A

CKMB and Troponin T and I and Myoglobin - all are there for 3 days

104
Q

how long does troponin stay in the blood for post MI

A

10 days

105
Q

what does an A wave show

A

atrial contraction

106
Q

when is absent a wave seen

A

in uncoordinated atrial activity

107
Q

when is prominent a wave seen

A

forced atrial contraction

108
Q

when is cannon a wave seen

A

when the atria contracts against a closed tricuspid valve

109
Q

what is a v wave

A

ventral contraction

110
Q

what is apixaban

A

an anticoagulant that is used to prevent stroke
works by blocking 10a - clotting factor

111
Q

what is clopidogrel

A

anti platelet

112
Q

how does warfarin work

A

works on the liver and stops the clotting factors from being produced

113
Q

dexathasone uses

A

steroid
used in severe asthma
used to reduce brain tumour size

114
Q

What does Thrombosis do

A

Dilutes the clot

115
Q

What does aspirin do and how does it work

A

Thins blood and prevents a clot from forming

116
Q

What does frobronlysis doe

A

Dissolves fibronogen

117
Q

What is broad complex tachycardia

A

No output

Give unsynchronised dC cardio version

118
Q

Shockable Rhythm

A

VF and pulseless VT

119
Q

Non shockable rhythm

A

Pulseless electrical activity and a systole

120
Q

Help for pulseless rhythm

A

CPR for 2 mins and adrenaline

After 3 adrenalines give amiodarone

121
Q

MI
Shortness of breath and malaise
Parasternal thrill and pansystolic murmur along with L sternal angle radiating towards apex
JVP raised

What is it

A

Ventricular septal defect
Complication of MI

It can cause a pansystolic murmur and acute heart failure
Troponin rises 3 hours MI
Causes pedal oedema

122
Q

VEF = 55%
Bilateral pitting oedema
Asthma and type 2 diabetes
Smoker

What medication should you give

A

Furosemide and ramipril

123
Q

SOB on exertion
SOB at rest
Smoker and hypertension
Displaced apex beat and crepitations and crackles

A

Pulmonary oedema due to heart failure

124
Q

IV drug user
6 weeks of fever and malaise
Double p wave

A

Infective endocarditis

Common in drug users and fever is common symptom

125
Q

SOB
bilateral crackles
Raised JVP
high HR
Pansystolic murmur at apex

A

Acute mitral regurgitation

126
Q

Where is the SA node

A

Junction of superior vena cava and right atrium

127
Q

The cardiac electrical cycle

A
  1. Blood goes to atria then goes to ventricles
  2. AV slows down the electrical conduction
  3. Cardiac muscle depolarises releasing ca
    This slows down the repolarisariom phase - causes plateau
  4. Then K+ is released - depolarisation
128
Q

What is stroke volume equation

A

Cardiac output = stroke volume x HR

129
Q

What is reactive hyperaemia

A

Tissue ischaemia causes an increase in blood flow

130
Q

Functional hyperaemia

A

Increase in blood flow due to increased metabolic activity

131
Q

Anterior STEMI
Legs swollen for 6 months

A

Hyperlipidaemia
Due to nephrotic syndrome

132
Q

Pedal oedema and raised JVP

A

Right sided HF
Raised pressure in right atrium

133
Q

78year old man
Central chest pain radiating to jaw

What treatment

A

Dusk Antiplatelet therapy and morphine (if o2 is <94%)

134
Q

What is atrial flutter

A

Regular and rapid contraction of atria
More frequent than ventricle contraction
2:1 ratio
Saw tooth pattern

135
Q

ECG
Leads ii, iii, avF

Which location

A

RCA

136
Q

ECG
Leads V1-2

Which location

A

LAD

137
Q

ECG
Leads V3-4

Which location

A

LAD

138
Q

ECG
Leads V5-6

Which location

A

Distal LAD and RCA

139
Q

ECG
Leads I and avL

Which location

A

Lcx

140
Q

ECG
Leads v7-v9

Which location

A

RCA and lcx

141
Q

Palpitations
Drinks alcohol everyday
Absent p waves
Irregular QRS complex
What do you give

A

Give Abixaban

142
Q

What is the most common side effect of ramipril

A

Dry cough

143
Q

Which medication is given instead of ramipril if patient is having dry cough?

A

Angiotensin II receptor blocker

144
Q

what is a complication of infective endocarditis

A

perialvular aortic abscess - prolonged PR interval on ECG

  • this can then go onto causing heart blocks
145
Q

what features are seen in right sided heart failure

A

peripheral oedema
raised JVP
hepatomegaly
bloating

146
Q

what features are seen in left sided heart failure

A

pulmonary oedema
pink frothy sputum
paraoxymsl nocturnsl dyspnoea
cardiac wheeze

147
Q

which medication can cause leg swelling

A

amlodipine

148
Q

when should PCI be given to patients after MI1/

A

should be given within 12 hours
best if given in 2 hours

149
Q

dose of atorvastatin for secondary prevention

A

80mg

150
Q

dose of atorvastatin for primary prevention

A

20mg

151
Q

what is the scoring system used to assess risk of bleeding in patients taking anticoagulation

A

ORBIT score

152
Q

what is the underlying pathology of an NSTEMI

A

incomplete blockage of the coronary artery

153
Q

what condition causes radio-femoral delay

A

coarctation of the aorta

154
Q

in what condition is coarctation of the aorta common in

A

Turners syndrome

155
Q

what type of delay does aortic dissection cause

A

radio-radial delay

156
Q

which antibiotic can cause polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
chest pain and prolonged QT

A

clarithromycin

157
Q

globular shape of heart on chest x ray

what is it

A

cardiac tamponade

158
Q

what is seen on ECG of complete heart block

A

cannon wave

159
Q

new left bundle branch block and chest pain

what is the cause

A

acute coronary syndrome

160
Q

no clear QRS on ECG

A

VF

161
Q

rheumatic fever and mid diastolic murmur heard loudest at the apex

what is it

A

mitral stenosis

162
Q

clinical presentations of hypertension

A

very high BP
light headed
fatigue
palpitations
SOB
epistaxis - nose bleeds

163
Q

essential hypertension

A

due to no underlying cause

164
Q

secondary hypertension

A

if the person always has some condition and as a result of that get hypertension

eg. renal artery stenosis

165
Q

stage 1 hypertension

A

> 135/85

166
Q

stage 2 hypertension classification

A

> 150/95

167
Q

stage 3 hypertension classification

A

> 180/120

168
Q

diagnosing hypertension

A

ABPM - ambulatory blood pressure monitoring - cuff that the patients wears to home
takes out an average

169
Q

which patients with hypertension do you manage?

A

stage 2 hypt patients or under 80 stage 1 hypt with diabetes or renal disease

170
Q

step 1 treatment for hypertension

A

<55 years or diabetic - ACE inhibitor/Angiotensin receptor blocker
>55 years or African - CCB

171
Q

step 2 treatment for hypertension

A

<55 years or diabetic - ACE inhibitor and ARB AND CCB or thiazide like diuretic
> 55 years or African - CCB AND ACE INHIB AND THIAZIDE LIKE DIURETIC

172
Q

step 3 treatment for hypertension

A

ACE inhibitor/ARB and CCB and thiazide like diuretic

173
Q

step 4 treatment for hypertension

A

spironolactone if K<4.5 or alpha blocker
if K>4.5 then beta blocker

174
Q

what is pitting oedema

A

oedema that responds to pressure

175
Q

what is seen in x ray in heart failure

A

pleural effusion
cephalisation of the vessels
Kerley B lines

176
Q

why does the heart get bigger in heart failure

A

because fluid fills in it and it gets bigger

177
Q

what is non-pitting oedema

A

doesn’t respond to pressure

178
Q

what is BNP blood test

A

when ventricles get stretched to fluid due to heart failure - BNP is released from the ventricles
this can be detected and used to diagnose heart failure

179
Q

what is seen on echo for heart failure

A

ejection fraction can be detected
can see valve abnormailits
myocarditis

these can be seen

180
Q

heart failure can cause which heart complication

A

afibrillation

181
Q

management for heart failure

A

ace inhibitor
beta blocker
spironolactone
furosemide

182
Q

stenosis and regurgitation - what are they

A

stenosis - doesnt open properly
regurgitation - doesnt close properly

183
Q

where do you hear the LUB DUB sounds of the heart

A

s1 - lub
s2 dub

184
Q

what do you hear if there is a stenosis

A

you will hear murmur when blood flows through it in the right direction

185
Q

what do you hear in regurgitation

A

murmur when blood flows through the valve in the wrong direction

186
Q

S1 is which valve

A

atrioventricular valve

187
Q

s2 is which valve

A

pulmonary and aortic

188
Q

mitral stenosis makes which murmur

A

mid diastolic murmur - best heard on expiration

189
Q

mitral regurgitation makes which murmur

A

pan systolic murmur radiating to left axilla

190
Q

aortic stenosis makes which murmur

A

ejection systolic murmur radiating to carotids

191
Q

aortic regurgitations makes which murmur

A

early diastolic murmur best heard on expiration with patient sat forward

192
Q

what is infective endocarditis

A

inflammation of the inner lining of the heart

193
Q

which bacteria causes infective endocarditis

A

staphylococcus aureus

194
Q

why is infective endocarditis common in iv drug users

A

the bacteria staph aureus is on the skin

195
Q

what valve abnormality does infective endocarditis cause

A

mitral regurgitation

196
Q

presentation of infective endocartitis

A

myalgia
fever
joint pain
anorexia
night sweats

197
Q

examination findings of infective endocartitis

A

splinter haemorrhage
Roths spots in the eyes - white heamorrgaes in the eyes

198
Q

what is rheumatic fever

A

immune mediated inflammatory disease
happens after group A stepto throat infection

199
Q

presentation of rheumatic fever

A

poly arthritis - red swollen and painful
carditis
sydenhams chorea - rapid and irregular involuntary movements

200
Q

management of rheumatic fever

A

oral penicillin
NSAIDS

201
Q

what is commonly found in patients with rheumatic fever

A

it is found in patients who used to live in developing countries

202
Q

what is pericarditis

A

chest pain
non productive cough
pericardial rub
tachycardia
chest pain worse on lying flat - gets better when leaning forward

203
Q

most common cause of pericarditis

A

coxsackie virus
post MI
dressers syndrome

204
Q

ECG findings of pericarditis

A

saddle shaped ST elevation
- seen everywhere on the ECG - due to ischameia of the pericardium

205
Q

why does everyone with pericarditis need to have a trans echo

A

to rule out effusion

206
Q

how does AF look on ECG

A

irregular pattern

207
Q

why do strokes happen with AF

A

static blood - can cause blood clots
go to brain - stroke

208
Q

atrial flutter on ecg

A

saw tooth pattern

209
Q

IV amiodarone are used for which kind of tachycardia

A

monomorphic VT

210
Q

Iv magnesium sulphate is used for which kind of tachycardia

A

polymorphic VT - due to torsades pointes

211
Q

features that show end organ damage in malignant hypertension

A

headaches
nausea
vomiting
visual disturbances
chest pain

212
Q

symptoms of heart failure

A

exertion dysponea
proximal nocturnal dysponea
fatigue

213
Q

signs of heart failure

A

cardiomegaly
heart sounds - S3 and S4

214
Q

what is Kawasaki disease associated with - what disease ?

A

coronary aneurysms
- so need to do a echocardiogram

215
Q

what is given in secondary prevention of STEMI

A

atrovatatin high dose 80mg

216
Q

post MI management

A

aspirin 75mg
beta blockers
ACE inhibitor
high dose statin 80mg

217
Q

how long after MI are troponin levels raised for

A

2 weeks

218
Q

how long after MI are creatinine kinase levels raised fir

A

72 hours

219
Q

STEMI first line management

A

aspirin 300mg and GTN spray

220
Q

what is marfan’s disease

A

connective tissue disorder which causes long toes and fingers
makes it more likely to get spontaneous pneumothorax and also aortic disecction

221
Q

what is a side effect of abruptly stopping bisoprolol or any other beta blockers

A

high bp and heart rate
known as rebound tachycardia

222
Q

management cascade for chronic heart failure

A
  1. ACE inhibitor and beta blocker
  2. Aldosterone antagonist
223
Q

patient has infective endocarditis with MRSA and stent in heart - what antibiotic to give?

A

IV vancomycin and rifampicin

224
Q

which bacterial cause on infective endocarditis is associated with colorectal cancer?

s______ g_____

A

Streptococcus gallolyticus

225
Q

which bacterial cause on infective endocarditis is associated with IV drugs users?

s____ a___

A

staphylococcus aureus

226
Q

which bacterial cause of infective endocarditis is MOST COMMON

s—— v——

A

Streptococcus viridans

227
Q

which bacterial cause on infective endocarditis is associated with patients with recent cardiac surgery

s—— ep—

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

228
Q

what is the pathophysiology of malignant hypertension?

A

RAAS gets activated and causes vasoconstriction, causing hypo-perfusion and ischaemia

AMK (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions