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AMK > Cardio Pathology > Flashcards

Cardio Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Endocarditis

A
  • infection of the inner lining of the heart
  • infection in the blood vessels coming out of the heart

Symptoms :
- fever
- chills
- small red/purple spots on the skin
- painful red lumps on fingers and toes

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2
Q

what is it?

Malignant hypertension

A
  • severely high blood pressure
    180/120
  • can cause multiple complications and organ damage
  • more vasoconstriction
  • medical emergency
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3
Q

giant cell arteritis

A
  • pain and stiffness in the neck
  • due to inflammation of the blood vessels
  • causes narrowing of arteries and reduced blood flow
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4
Q

pericarditis

A
  • inflammation of the pericardium
  • can be caused by virus and bacteria

symptoms:
- chest pain,
- fever
- ECG changes

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5
Q

Aortic Stenosis

A
  • valve disease
    narrowing of the aortic valve opening
  • it is followed by three symptoms
  1. heart failure
  2. syncope
  3. angina
  • slow rising pulse
  • decreased exercise tolerance
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6
Q

Cardiac Tamponade

A
  • there is accumulation of fluid, blood and air in the pericardial space
  • this raises intra pericardial pressure
  • diastolic filling is reduced - cardiac output is reduced

Symptoms:
- tachycardia
- confusion
- chest pain
- hypotension, quiet heart sounds and raised JVP

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7
Q

What is Pericardiocentesis

A

procedure done to remove fluid that gets built up in the pericardium

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8
Q

Aortic Regurgitation

A
  • the aortic valve is leaking and causes the blood to flow in the reverse direction
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9
Q

Mitral regurgitation

A
  • when the mitral valve doesn’t close properly
  • the blood flows backwards into the heart
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10
Q

Aortic Sclerosis

A
  • thickening of the aortic valve
  • but doesn’t properly block blood flow
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11
Q

Tricuspid Stenosis

A
  • narrowing of the tricuspid valve
  • disruption in blood flow from right atrium to right ventricle
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12
Q

STEMI on ECG

A
  • new onset left bundle branch block LBBB
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13
Q

De Musset’s Sign

A

bobbing of head along with heartbeat

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14
Q

Quincke’s sign

A

pulsation of nail beds

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15
Q

Traube’s sign

A

pistol shot sound coming from femoral pulse

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16
Q

Muller’s sign

A

bobbing of the uvula

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17
Q

Widened pulse pressure

A

low diastolic pressure

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18
Q

ACUTE BRADYCARDIA
what is it?

A

-heart rate of less than 60 bpm

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19
Q

Causes of Bradycardia

A
  1. beta blockers
  2. calcium channel blockers
  3. hypothyroidism
  4. electrolyte abnormalities (hypokalaemia)
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20
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES OF BRADYCARDIA

A
  • dizziness
  • fatigue
  • syncope
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21
Q

MANAGEMENT OF BRADYCARDIA

A

DR ABCDE

IF PATIENT IS HAVING ANY OF THESE 4: shock, myocardial ischaemia, HF or Syncope:

GIVE ATROPINE 500mcg IV

(If doesn’t work then give adrenaline 2-10mcg per minute)

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22
Q

how does Atropine work in managing bradycardia

A

blocks vagus activity to the heart so the firing to the SA node is increased

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23
Q

which antibiotics are associated with Long QT interval?

A

Macrolides

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24
Q

what causes raised JVP?

A

venous hypertension

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25
Q

MYOCARDITIS
What is it?

A
  • inflammatory disease of the myocardium
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26
Q

CAUSES OF MYOCARDITIS

A
  • viral infection
  • auto-immune conditions
  • chagus disease
  • kawasaki disease: high temperature for over 5 days and swollen neck glands
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27
Q

SYMPTOMS OF MYOCARDITIS

A
  • HF
  • Palpitations
  • Chest Pain
  • Fatigue
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28
Q

What is heard on auscultation in pericarditis

A

pericardial rub

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29
Q

DIAGNOSING MYOCARDITIS

A

ST segment and T wave changes on ECG
Elevated troponin levels
ventricular dysfunction

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30
Q

MANAGEMENT OF MYOCARDITIS

A
  • treat the underlying cause
  • treat HF
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31
Q

TACHYCARDIA
what is it

A

heart rate >100bpm

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32
Q

MANAGEMENT OF TACHYCARDIA IN UNSTABLE PATIENT

A

EMERGENCY SYNCHRONISED DIRECT CURRENT CARDIOVERSION

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33
Q

MANAGEMENT OF TACHYCARDIA IN STABLE PATIENTS with REGULAR RHYTHM

A

Vagal manoeuvres or Valsalva manoeuvre - blow into tube

IF this fails:

GIVE ADENOSINE 6MG (over 2 seconds)
6MG
12MG

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34
Q

MANAGEMENT OF TACHYCARDIA IN STABLE PATIENTS with IRREGULAR RHYTHM

A

IF ONSET IS <48 HOURS: Flecainide
IF ONSET IS > 48 HOURS: Bisoprolol or Verapamil

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35
Q

SICK SINUS SYNDROME

A
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36
Q

What is given to manage tachycardia in ASTHMATIC PATIENTS

A

Verapamil (adenosine CANNOT be given to asthmatic patients)

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37
Q

when is digoxin used?

A

used for fast AF in patients with Heart Failure

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38
Q

ECG SHOWS DELTA WAVES AND SHORT PR INTERVAL
what condition is this?

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

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39
Q

ECG SHOWS SHORT PR INTERVAL
what condition is this

A

Lown-Ganong-Lenine syndrome

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40
Q

ACUTE MYOCARDITIS
what is it

A

inflammation of the myocardium

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41
Q

FEATURES OF MYOCARDITIS

A

chest pain
fatigue
palpitations

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42
Q

TREATMENT OF ACUTE MYOCARDITIS

A

painkillers
antibiortics
corticosteroids - alemtuzumab

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43
Q

AORTIC DISECCTION
what is it

A

tear in the tunica intima of the aorta
blood flows between the layers making a false lumen

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44
Q

TWO TYPES OF AORTIC DISECCTION

A

type A - aortic arch and ascending aorta
type B - descending aorta

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45
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES OF AORTIC DISECCTION

A

tearing chest pain
radiates to the back
renal failure/bowel ischemia

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46
Q

EXAMINATION FEATURE OF AORTIC DISECCTION

feature of the blood pressure

A

different BP on each arm

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47
Q

INVESTIGATION FOR AORTIC DISECCTION

A

CT angiography
ECG
bloods will show raised troponin and positive D-Dimer

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48
Q

MANAGEMENT OF AORTIC DISECCTION

A

TYPE A: surgical management
TYPE B: conservative management

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49
Q

AORTIC REGURGITATION
what is it

A

incomplete closure of the AV valves

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50
Q

CAUSES OF ACUTE AORTIC REGURGITATION

A

infective endocarditis
aortic disecction

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51
Q

CAUSES OF CHRONIC AORTIC REGURGITATION

A

rheumatic heart disease
bicuspid aortic valve
Marfan’s syndrome

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52
Q

PRESENTATION OF ACUTE AORTIC REGURGITATION

A

pulmonary oedema
pallor
sweating

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53
Q

PRESENTATION OF CHRONIC AORTIC REGURGITATION

A

exertional dyspnoea
nocturnal dyspnoea

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54
Q

EXAMINATION FINDINGS OF AORTIC REGURGITATION

A

waterhammer pulse
De mussets sign
Quincke’s sign
Traube’s sign
collapsing pulse
early diastolic murmur

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55
Q

MAANAGEMENT OF AORTIC REGURGITATION

A

aortic root dilation
beta blockers

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56
Q

AORTIC STENOSIS
what is it

A

narrowing of the aortic valve

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57
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES OF AORTIC STENOSIS

A

heart failure
syncope
angina
exertional dyspnoea

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58
Q

EXAMINATION FINDINGS OF AORTIC STENOSIS

A

slow rising pulse
heaving apex beat
ejection systolic murmur on 2nd R. intercostal space

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59
Q

ECG FINDINGS OF AORTIC STENOSIS

A

increased QRS voltage
left axis deviation

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60
Q

WHO IS GIVEN INTERVENTION FOR AORTIC STENOSIS

A
  1. symptomatic patients
  2. asymptomatic patients with LVEF <50%
  3. asymptomatic patients with LVEF <50% who have a fall in BP during exercise
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61
Q

MANAGEMENT FOR AORTIC STENOSIS

A

transcatheter aortic valve implantation (for patients at high risk who cannot have surgery)
or
surgical aortic valve replacement

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62
Q

AORTIC SCLEROSIS
what is it

A

narrowing of the aortic valve without having any affects on the function of the valve

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63
Q

CLINICAL FEATURE OF AORTIC SCLEROSIS

A

ejection systolic murmur that doesnt radiate to the carotids

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64
Q

ATRIAL FLUTTER
what is it

A

regular, rapid atrial rate

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65
Q

CAUSES OF ATRIAL FLUTTER

A

COPD
sleep apnoea
PE
sepsis
alcohol

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66
Q

CLINCIAL FEATURES OF AORTIC FLUTTER

A

dizziness
palpitations
chest pain

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67
Q

ECG OF ATRIAL FLUTTER

A

saw tooth baseline at 300 bpm

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68
Q

MANAGEMENT OF ATRIAL FLUTTER

A

HEAMODYNAMICALLY UNSTABLE: DC cardioversion
HEAMODYNAMICALLY STABLE: rate control by beta blockers or CCB

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69
Q

ATRIAL FIBRILLATION
what is it

A

uncoordinated atrial contraction at 300-600bpm
delay at AV node so only some of the atrial contractions get passed onto the ventricles

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70
Q

CAUSES OF ATRIAL FIBRILLATION

A

CARDIAC: ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, rheumatic heart disease
NON CARDIAC: dehydration, hyperthyroidism, sepsis and PE

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71
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF ATRIAL FIBRILLATION

(different names for the duration)

A

acute <48h
paroxysmal: <7 days
persistent >7 days
permanent >7 days and doesn’t go away with cardio version

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72
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES OF ATRIAL FIBRIALLTION

A

palpitations
chest pain
shortness of breath
dizziness

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73
Q

MANAGEMENT OF ATRIAL FIBRILLATION

A

Rate control - given to those who have AF with reversible cause
eg. bisoprolol (BB)
diltiazem (CCB) and Verapamil

BB cannot be given to hypotensive patients so give DIGOXIN

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74
Q

MANAGEMENT OF ATRIAL FIBRILLATION BASED ON ONSET

A

<48 hours - DC cardioversion
>48 hours - 3 weeks on anticoagulation and then DC cardioversion

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75
Q

IMPORTANT DRUGS IN AF

A

flecainide - for younger patients
amiodarone - rate and rhythm control
sotalol - BB

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76
Q

CHADS2-VASC SCORE

A

C- congestive heart failure 1
H- hypertension 1
A- >75 2
D- diabetes 1
S-stroke 2

V- vascular disease 1
A- age <75 1
S-sex Female 1 male 0

males with score 1 and females with score 2 = anticoagulation needed

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77
Q

ANTICOAGULATIONS IN AF

A

direct oral anticoagulation - apixaban and rivaroxaban
warfarin
low molecular weight heparin

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78
Q

CARDIAC TAMPONADE
what is it

A

fluid, blood and air accumulates in the pericardial space
causes raised intra pericardial pressure and reduced cardiac output

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79
Q

CLINCIAL FEATURES OF CARDIAC TAMPONADE

A

shortness of breath
tachycardia
confusion
chest pain
abdo pain

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80
Q

BECKS TRIAD FOR CARDIAC TAMPONADE

A

hypotension
quiet heart sounds
raised JVP

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81
Q

RISK FACTORS OF CARDIAC TAMPONADE

A

pericarditis
serious injury

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82
Q

INVESTIGATION FOR CARDIAC TAMPONADE

A

ECG: low voltage on QRS complex
Chest xray: large, globular heart
ECHO: more fluid around heart

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83
Q

MANAGEMENT OF CARDIAC TAMPONADE

A

unstable patients: pericardiocentesis
stable: surgical drainage

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84
Q

CARDIAC MYXOMA
what is it

A

benign tumour in heart

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85
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES CARDIAC MYXOMA

A

fever
weight loss
nail clubbing
‘plop’ sound on auscultation

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86
Q

ECG FEATURES FOR COPD

A

right ventricular heave

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87
Q

HEART FAILURE MANAGEMENT

A

cardiac resynchronisation

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88
Q

MANAGEMENT OF BRADYCARDIA AFTER MI

A

transcutaneous pacing

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89
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PERICARDITIS IN POST MI PATIENTS

A

high dose aspirin

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90
Q

LEFT VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY IS SEEN WHEN

A

stable angina

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91
Q

CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE: pt is already on ramipril and furosemide and bisoprolol,

what should be given now

A

spironolactone

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92
Q

PATIENT HAS CHEST PAIN FOR 12 HOURS

A

angiography and PCI

93
Q

NORMAL QT INTERVAL

A

<350-450ms

94
Q

SYNCOPE after exertion with short QT interval - what is it

A

cardiac arrythmia

95
Q

COMMON CAUSE OF INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS IN IV DRUG USERS

A

staphyl. aureus

96
Q

WHAT MEDICATIONS SHOULD BE GIVEN TO PATIENTS AFTER AN MI

A

ACE inhibitor,
beta-blocker
statin

97
Q

Patient with severe hypomagnesaemia collapses - what is the most likely cause of the collapse

A

Ventricular tachycardia

98
Q

Pernicious anaemia - what is it

A

Deficiency of red blood cells due to lack of vitamin B12
Mainly due to autoimmune conditions like diabetes

99
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation - what is it

A

small blood clots develop throughout the bloodstream
this blocks small blood vessels
this reduces the platelets and clotting factors needed to control bleeding
causes excessive bleeding.

100
Q

Which corticosteriod can be used to increase blood pressure (useful in postural hypotension)

A

Fludrocortisone

101
Q

ECG side effects of ramipril

A

hyperkalaemia,
tall t waves,
flat p waves
broad QRS

102
Q

most common

side effect of PCI

A

heart can swell and cause compartment syndrome

103
Q

what are the heart related enzymes and what are raised after MI

A

CKMB and Troponin T and I and Myoglobin - all are there for 3 days

104
Q

how long does troponin stay in the blood for post MI

105
Q

what does an A wave show

A

atrial contraction

106
Q

when is absent a wave seen

A

in uncoordinated atrial activity

107
Q

when is prominent a wave seen

A

forced atrial contraction

108
Q

when is cannon a wave seen

A

when the atria contracts against a closed tricuspid valve

109
Q

what is a v wave

A

ventral contraction

110
Q

what is apixaban

A

an anticoagulant that is used to prevent stroke
works by blocking 10a - clotting factor

111
Q

what is clopidogrel

A

anti platelet

112
Q

how does warfarin work

A

works on the liver and stops the clotting factors from being produced

113
Q

dexathasone uses

A

steroid
used in severe asthma
used to reduce brain tumour size

114
Q

What does Thrombosis do

A

Dilutes the clot

115
Q

What does aspirin do and how does it work

A

Thins blood and prevents a clot from forming

116
Q

What does frobronlysis doe

A

Dissolves fibronogen

117
Q

What is broad complex tachycardia

A

No output

Give unsynchronised dC cardio version

118
Q

Shockable Rhythm

A

VF and pulseless VT

119
Q

Non shockable rhythm

A

Pulseless electrical activity and a systole

120
Q

Help for pulseless rhythm

A

CPR for 2 mins and adrenaline

After 3 adrenalines give amiodarone

121
Q

MI
Shortness of breath and malaise
Parasternal thrill and pansystolic murmur along with L sternal angle radiating towards apex
JVP raised

What is it

A

Ventricular septal defect
Complication of MI

It can cause a pansystolic murmur and acute heart failure
Troponin rises 3 hours MI
Causes pedal oedema

122
Q

VEF = 55%
Bilateral pitting oedema
Asthma and type 2 diabetes
Smoker

What medication should you give

A

Furosemide and ramipril

123
Q

SOB on exertion
SOB at rest
Smoker and hypertension
Displaced apex beat and crepitations and crackles

A

Pulmonary oedema due to heart failure

124
Q

IV drug user
6 weeks of fever and malaise
Double p wave

A

Infective endocarditis

Common in drug users and fever is common symptom

125
Q

SOB
bilateral crackles
Raised JVP
high HR
Pansystolic murmur at apex

A

Acute mitral regurgitation

126
Q

Where is the SA node

A

Junction of superior vena cava and right atrium

127
Q

The cardiac electrical cycle

A
  1. Blood goes to atria then goes to ventricles
  2. AV slows down the electrical conduction
  3. Cardiac muscle depolarises releasing ca
    This slows down the repolarisariom phase - causes plateau
  4. Then K+ is released - depolarisation
128
Q

What is stroke volume equation

A

Cardiac output = stroke volume x HR

129
Q

What is reactive hyperaemia

A

Tissue ischaemia causes an increase in blood flow

130
Q

Functional hyperaemia

A

Increase in blood flow due to increased metabolic activity

131
Q

Anterior STEMI
Legs swollen for 6 months

A

Hyperlipidaemia
Due to nephrotic syndrome

132
Q

Pedal oedema and raised JVP

A

Right sided HF
Raised pressure in right atrium

133
Q

78year old man
Central chest pain radiating to jaw

What treatment

A

Dusk Antiplatelet therapy and morphine (if o2 is <94%)

134
Q

What is atrial flutter

A

Regular and rapid contraction of atria
More frequent than ventricle contraction
2:1 ratio
Saw tooth pattern

135
Q

ECG
Leads ii, iii, avF

Which location

136
Q

ECG
Leads V1-2

Which location

137
Q

ECG
Leads V3-4

Which location

138
Q

ECG
Leads V5-6

Which location

A

Distal LAD and RCA

139
Q

ECG
Leads I and avL

Which location

140
Q

ECG
Leads v7-v9

Which location

A

RCA and lcx

141
Q

Palpitations
Drinks alcohol everyday
Absent p waves
Irregular QRS complex
What do you give

A

Give Abixaban

142
Q

What is the most common side effect of ramipril

143
Q

Which medication is given instead of ramipril if patient is having dry cough?

A

Angiotensin II receptor blocker

144
Q

what is a complication of infective endocarditis

A

perialvular aortic abscess - prolonged PR interval on ECG

  • this can then go onto causing heart blocks
145
Q

what features are seen in right sided heart failure

A

peripheral oedema
raised JVP
hepatomegaly
bloating

146
Q

what features are seen in left sided heart failure

A

pulmonary oedema
pink frothy sputum
paraoxymsl nocturnsl dyspnoea
cardiac wheeze

147
Q

which medication can cause leg swelling

A

amlodipine

148
Q

when should PCI be given to patients after MI1/

A

should be given within 12 hours
best if given in 2 hours

149
Q

dose of atorvastatin for secondary prevention

150
Q

dose of atorvastatin for primary prevention

151
Q

what is the scoring system used to assess risk of bleeding in patients taking anticoagulation

A

ORBIT score

152
Q

what is the underlying pathology of an NSTEMI

A

incomplete blockage of the coronary artery

153
Q

what condition causes radio-femoral delay

A

coarctation of the aorta

154
Q

in what condition is coarctation of the aorta common in

A

Turners syndrome

155
Q

what type of delay does aortic dissection cause

A

radio-radial delay

156
Q

which antibiotic can cause polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
chest pain and prolonged QT

A

clarithromycin

157
Q

globular shape of heart on chest x ray

what is it

A

cardiac tamponade

158
Q

what is seen on ECG of complete heart block

A

cannon wave

159
Q

new left bundle branch block and chest pain

what is the cause

A

acute coronary syndrome

160
Q

no clear QRS on ECG

161
Q

rheumatic fever and mid diastolic murmur heard loudest at the apex

what is it

A

mitral stenosis

162
Q

clinical presentations of hypertension

A

very high BP
light headed
fatigue
palpitations
SOB
epistaxis - nose bleeds

163
Q

essential hypertension

A

due to no underlying cause

164
Q

secondary hypertension

A

if the person always has some condition and as a result of that get hypertension

eg. renal artery stenosis

165
Q

stage 1 hypertension

166
Q

stage 2 hypertension classification

167
Q

stage 3 hypertension classification

168
Q

diagnosing hypertension

A

ABPM - ambulatory blood pressure monitoring - cuff that the patients wears to home
takes out an average

169
Q

which patients with hypertension do you manage?

A

stage 2 hypt patients or under 80 stage 1 hypt with diabetes or renal disease

170
Q

step 1 treatment for hypertension

A

<55 years or diabetic - ACE inhibitor/Angiotensin receptor blocker
>55 years or African - CCB

171
Q

step 2 treatment for hypertension

A

<55 years or diabetic - ACE inhibitor and ARB AND CCB or thiazide like diuretic
> 55 years or African - CCB AND ACE INHIB AND THIAZIDE LIKE DIURETIC

172
Q

step 3 treatment for hypertension

A

ACE inhibitor/ARB and CCB and thiazide like diuretic

173
Q

step 4 treatment for hypertension

A

spironolactone if K<4.5 or alpha blocker
if K>4.5 then beta blocker

174
Q

what is pitting oedema

A

oedema that responds to pressure

175
Q

what is seen in x ray in heart failure

A

pleural effusion
cephalisation of the vessels
Kerley B lines

176
Q

why does the heart get bigger in heart failure

A

because fluid fills in it and it gets bigger

177
Q

what is non-pitting oedema

A

doesn’t respond to pressure

178
Q

what is BNP blood test

A

when ventricles get stretched to fluid due to heart failure - BNP is released from the ventricles
this can be detected and used to diagnose heart failure

179
Q

what is seen on echo for heart failure

A

ejection fraction can be detected
can see valve abnormailits
myocarditis

these can be seen

180
Q

heart failure can cause which heart complication

A

afibrillation

181
Q

management for heart failure

A

ace inhibitor
beta blocker
spironolactone
furosemide

182
Q

stenosis and regurgitation - what are they

A

stenosis - doesnt open properly
regurgitation - doesnt close properly

183
Q

where do you hear the LUB DUB sounds of the heart

A

s1 - lub
s2 dub

184
Q

what do you hear if there is a stenosis

A

you will hear murmur when blood flows through it in the right direction

185
Q

what do you hear in regurgitation

A

murmur when blood flows through the valve in the wrong direction

186
Q

S1 is which valve

A

atrioventricular valve

187
Q

s2 is which valve

A

pulmonary and aortic

188
Q

mitral stenosis makes which murmur

A

mid diastolic murmur - best heard on expiration

189
Q

mitral regurgitation makes which murmur

A

pan systolic murmur radiating to left axilla

190
Q

aortic stenosis makes which murmur

A

ejection systolic murmur radiating to carotids

191
Q

aortic regurgitations makes which murmur

A

early diastolic murmur best heard on expiration with patient sat forward

192
Q

what is infective endocarditis

A

inflammation of the inner lining of the heart

193
Q

which bacteria causes infective endocarditis

A

staphylococcus aureus

194
Q

why is infective endocarditis common in iv drug users

A

the bacteria staph aureus is on the skin

195
Q

what valve abnormality does infective endocarditis cause

A

mitral regurgitation

196
Q

presentation of infective endocartitis

A

myalgia
fever
joint pain
anorexia
night sweats

197
Q

examination findings of infective endocartitis

A

splinter haemorrhage
Roths spots in the eyes - white heamorrgaes in the eyes

198
Q

what is rheumatic fever

A

immune mediated inflammatory disease
happens after group A stepto throat infection

199
Q

presentation of rheumatic fever

A

poly arthritis - red swollen and painful
carditis
sydenhams chorea - rapid and irregular involuntary movements

200
Q

management of rheumatic fever

A

oral penicillin
NSAIDS

201
Q

what is commonly found in patients with rheumatic fever

A

it is found in patients who used to live in developing countries

202
Q

what is pericarditis

A

chest pain
non productive cough
pericardial rub
tachycardia
chest pain worse on lying flat - gets better when leaning forward

203
Q

most common cause of pericarditis

A

coxsackie virus
post MI
dressers syndrome

204
Q

ECG findings of pericarditis

A

saddle shaped ST elevation
- seen everywhere on the ECG - due to ischameia of the pericardium

205
Q

why does everyone with pericarditis need to have a trans echo

A

to rule out effusion

206
Q

how does AF look on ECG

A

irregular pattern

207
Q

why do strokes happen with AF

A

static blood - can cause blood clots
go to brain - stroke

208
Q

atrial flutter on ecg

A

saw tooth pattern

209
Q

IV amiodarone are used for which kind of tachycardia

A

monomorphic VT

210
Q

Iv magnesium sulphate is used for which kind of tachycardia

A

polymorphic VT - due to torsades pointes

211
Q

features that show end organ damage in malignant hypertension

A

headaches
nausea
vomiting
visual disturbances
chest pain

212
Q

symptoms of heart failure

A

exertion dysponea
proximal nocturnal dysponea
fatigue

213
Q

signs of heart failure

A

cardiomegaly
heart sounds - S3 and S4

214
Q

what is Kawasaki disease associated with - what disease ?

A

coronary aneurysms
- so need to do a echocardiogram

215
Q

what is given in secondary prevention of STEMI

A

atrovatatin high dose 80mg

216
Q

post MI management

A

aspirin 75mg
beta blockers
ACE inhibitor
high dose statin 80mg

217
Q

how long after MI are troponin levels raised for

218
Q

how long after MI are creatinine kinase levels raised fir

219
Q

STEMI first line management

A

aspirin 300mg and GTN spray

220
Q

what is marfan’s disease

A

connective tissue disorder which causes long toes and fingers
makes it more likely to get spontaneous pneumothorax and also aortic disecction

221
Q

what is a side effect of abruptly stopping bisoprolol or any other beta blockers

A

high bp and heart rate
known as rebound tachycardia

222
Q

management cascade for chronic heart failure

A
  1. ACE inhibitor and beta blocker
  2. Aldosterone antagonist
223
Q

patient has infective endocarditis with MRSA and stent in heart - what antibiotic to give?

A

IV vancomycin and rifampicin

224
Q

which bacterial cause on infective endocarditis is associated with colorectal cancer?

s______ g_____

A

Streptococcus gallolyticus

225
Q

which bacterial cause on infective endocarditis is associated with IV drugs users?

s____ a___

A

staphylococcus aureus

226
Q

which bacterial cause of infective endocarditis is MOST COMMON

s—— v——

A

Streptococcus viridans

227
Q

which bacterial cause on infective endocarditis is associated with patients with recent cardiac surgery

s—— ep—

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

228
Q

what is the pathophysiology of malignant hypertension?

A

RAAS gets activated and causes vasoconstriction, causing hypo-perfusion and ischaemia

AMK (27 decks)

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