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BRAIN - Epilepsy Flashcards

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1
Q

mutation/mode of inherence/breed associated with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A

Rhodesian Ridgeback
mutation DIRAS1 (role in acetylcholine release and neurodevt)
fully penetrant autosomal recessive

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2
Q

clinical signs associated with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A

myoclonic seizures occuring mainly during relaxation
generalised tonico-clonic seizure in 1/3 of patients
35% photosensitive
absent seizure

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3
Q

2 antiepileptic treatements in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A

levetiracetam
potassium bromide
in human valproic acid

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4
Q

EEG in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A

ictal and inter-ictal
generalised and irregular 4-5 Hz spike and wave complexes and polyspike-waves complexes
with a fronto-central maximum

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5
Q

Which gene is associated with epilepsy in Lagotto Romagnolo and Belgian Shepherd?​

A

Lagotto Romagnolo: LGI2​
Belgian Shepherd: ADAM23​

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6
Q

DDx episodic disorders​

A

Syncope​
Narcolepsy​
Cataplexy​

Seizure​
Neuromuscular weakness​
Paroxysmal behaviour changes (compulsive disorders)​

Vestibular attack​
Idiopathic head tremor​
Paroxysmal dyskinesia​

SNC-SNP-VIP​

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7
Q

How many dogs with frontal lobe neoplasia are presented with seizure as the first clinical sign?​

A

75%​

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8
Q

What are the prediction factors of early seizure recurrence in dogs acording to epilepsy type?

A

Epileptic seizures recurred in 50% of patients within a mean time of 7 hours.

IE: abnormal postictal neurological examination with prosencephalon signs

Structural epilepsy: one seizure 72 hours before hospital admission and abnormal neurologic examination

Reactive seizures: long-term antiepileptic monotheraphy

All dogs: abnormal neurological examination, occurrence of cluster seizures, status epilepticus, or combination of them 72 hours before presentation

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9
Q

What breed of cat is associated with audiogenic reflex seizures? And what kind of seizures?

A

Birman
Myoclonic seizures, frequently occurring prior to GTCS
late onset (median 15 years) and absence seizures (6%), with most seizures triggered by high-frequency sounds amid occasional spontaneous seizures (up to 20%).

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10
Q

Which EEG rhythm is associated with REM-sleep?

A

Beta (higher than 12.1 Hz)

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11
Q

What are the factors significantly associated with short term mortality in SE.

A

Increased patient age
Shorter duration of hospitalization
Development of SE before arrival
SE caused by a potentially fatal etiology

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12
Q

Audiogenic reflex seizures are usually associated with deafness or hearing impairment: true or false?

A

True
Half of the population

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13
Q

What are the two most common causes of reactive seizures in dogs?

A

Intoxication & hypoglycemia

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14
Q

What are clinical features associated with DIRAS1 epilepsy?

A

Juvenile onset
Absence seizures
Myoclonic seizures with propagation to generalized tonic-clonic seizures (38%)
Photosensitivity (35% observed, 66% in EEG)
Nodding of the head
4-5Hz spike-and-wave complexes and polyspike-wave complexes with a fronto-central maximum

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15
Q

Which test is useful for differentiating seizure and syncope? Is this test specific and/or sensitive? What does it mean (confirmation, exclusion…)?

A

ROC analysis of sPi as a marker of GTCS yielded an AUC, with an optimum cutoff point of 0.97 mmol/L, corresponding to specificity and sensitivity levels of 100% and 44%.
Hypophosphatemia only in seizure group. Especially with sPi < 0.97 mmol/L, may be useful in clinical practice to rule in GTCS.

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16
Q

Give 5 genetic epileptic conditions.

A

Idiopathic: Belgian Shepherd (ADAM23, RAPGEF5), Dutch partridge dog (CCDC85A)

Juvenile benign: Lagotto Romagnolo (LIG2)

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy with photosensitivity: Rhodesian Ridgeback (DIRAS1)

Severe early-onset epilepsy, mitochondrial dysfunction and neurodegeneration: Parson Russell Terrier (PITRM1)

Myoclonic epilepsy with neuronal glycoproteinosis (Lafora): Beagle, Chihuahua, French Bulldog, Griffon Bruxellois, Miniature Wirehaired Dachshund, Newfoundland, Pembroke Welsh Corgi, Domestic Shorthair (NHLRC1 = EPM2B)

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17
Q

At which age the EEG characteristics stabilize?

A

The characteristics of the EEG corresponding to the adult animal begin to appear at 12 months of age but stabilize after 24 months of age.

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18
Q

Intranasal midazolam has the same efficiency in status epilepticus management than intrarectal midazolam: true or false?

A

False

IN-MDZ is superior to IR-MDZ: IN-MDZ and R-DZP terminated status epilepticus in 70% (14/20) and 20% (3/15) of cases, respectively. All dogs showed sedation and ataxia.

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19
Q

Which AED is associated with the more highest prevalence of adverse effect? Give the %

A

A significant relationship was identified between the occurrence of reported AEs and monotherapy group, with a higher prevalence in the PB group (77%) and a lower prevalence in the ZNS group (39%).

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20
Q

What is the autoimmune syndrome associated with phenobarbital in dog? What serology can be tested?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus
Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA)

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21
Q

What is the most frequent cause of status epilepticus as first epileptic manifestation in dogs?

A

Structural: 45%
Reactive: 31%
Idiopathic: 23%

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22
Q

mechanism for:
1/ Gabapentine/pregabaline
2/ Phenobarbital
3/ Zonisamide
4/ Potassium bromide
5/ Levetiracetam
6/ Imepitoin

A

1/ Binds to α2δ subunit of VGCa channel
2/ Activate GABAa receptor directly and indirectly by allosteric action (alpha-beta)
3/ Inactivate Na+ channel, increase GABA release and modulate VGCa channel type T
4/ Hyperpolarise neurons by passing through the neuronal chloride channels
5/ Binds synaptic vesicle protein SV2A, modulates neurotransmiter release
6/ Activate GABAa receptor via BZP (beta-gamma) site with low affinity (partial agonist)

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23
Q

What are the findings predictors of postictal changes?
Which brain sites are commonly affected?

A

Predictors of postictal changes:
- Epilepsy of unknown origin
- Cluster seizures or status epilepticus
- Lower time from last seizure to MRI

Brain sites
- Piriform lobe
- Hippocampus
- Temporal neocortex
- Cingulate gyrus

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24
Q

molecule for myoclonic seizures

A

levetiracetam

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25
Definition of an epileptic seizure
Manifestation of excessive synchronous, usually self-limiting epileptic activity of neurons in the brain, resulting in transient occurrence of signs which may be characterized by short episodes with convulsions or focal features
26
Potassium bromide treatment was strongly associated with high hair arsenic in dogs with idiopathic epilepsy: true or false?
True
27
Levetiracetam is an interesting AED which is best used as an add-on in a pulse administration protocol because 1. Long term Levetiracetam increases other AEDS side effects 2. Levetiracetam has a high long term toxicity 3. Some dogs develop progressive tolerance to the treament in the case of prolonged treatment with Levetiracetam 4. Long term maintenance, as an add-on AED decreases other AED serum concentration, especially PB
3
28
ABCB1 gene mutation is associated with refractory idiopathic epilepsy in Australian Shepherd: true or false?
False Only in Border Collies
29
Give 3 molecules that can increase serum concentration of phenobarbital and the associated mechanism.
Antiacids: cimetidine, omeprazole, lansoprazole Antibiotics: chloramphenicol, trimethoprim, fluoroquinolones, tetracyclines Antifungal: ketoconazole, fluconazole, itraconazole Others: fluoxetine, felbamate, topiramate Inhibition of hepatic microsomal cytochrome P450 enzymes
30
prevalence epilepsy dog
0.6-0.75%
31
most common seizure type in dog
focal epileptic seizure evolving into generalised epileptic seizure
32
definition epilepsy
disease of the brain characterized by en enduring predisposition to generate epileptic seizures. Usually practically applied when 2 ore more unprovoked epileptic seiz at least 24h apart
33
criteria for genetic epilepsy
genetic testing breed prevalence > 2% genealogical analysis or familial accumulation of epil individual
34
EEG % interictal paroxysmal episod in dog with IE
25%
35
toxic causing epilepsy
carbamate, organoph, lead, etylene glycol, metaldehyde, strichnine
36
% dogs with reactive seizure presented in status + higher risk ?
41% higher risk
37
% dogs with structural epil which have a normal neuro exam epilepsy first sign in ... of dogs with intracranial disease more frequent local for structural brain disease assoc with seiz
23% 76% frontal lobe
38
focal seizure are more frequent in structural epil T/F
false, 20% in both cases
38
time for disparition of post ictal MRI change + histological changes
10-16 weeks oedema, neovascularisation, reactive astriocytosis, acute neuronal necrosis
38
1. tier 1 confidence level of idiopathic epilepsy 2. tier 2 3. tier 3
1. > 2 unprovoqued epil >24h apart 6m-6y unremarkable interictal physical exam (except EAD-induced an post-ictal) blood test (CBC, biochemistry profile, electrolytes, cholest, TG, bilirubin, fasting bil ac and/or amonic) urinalysis 2. fasting and post prand bile acide, MRI, CSF analysis 3. ictal or inter ictal EEG abnomalities
39
post ictal change CSF
mild pleocytosis (up to 12/uL) when < 12h association between CSF WBC count and interval since last seizure no assoc prot, cluster seizures
39
link age, interict period and cause of epil
Structural more fqt <1y and >7y IE more probable 1-5y, interictal period>4w
40
when perform an MRI in dog with epilepsy
age <6m or >6y interictaly neurological abnomality status or cluster drug resistance with a single AED
41
when is recomanded epilepsy treatment
interictal period <6m status or cluster post-ictal signs severe or last longer than 24h ferquency or duration increasing or seizure severity deteriorating over 3 interictal period
42
toxic AE in dogs
lamotrigine (cardiotox) vigabatrin (neurotox + haemolytic)
43
phenobarbital: 1. efficacity 2. elimination half life 3. peak serum concent 4. plasma binding prot 5. % excreted unchanged in urine
1. 60-93%, superior to KBr 2. 37-73h (decrease progressively, stabilizes 30-45d) 3. 4-8h 4. 45% 5. 25%
44
raison for hepatotoxicity in phenobarb
induction cyt P 450 =>increase heaptic production reactive oxygen species
45
pharmacocinet interaction PHBR
*metabolized by cyt P450 or linked to prot* decrease efficacy of **levet, zonisamide, benzodiazepine** + corticosteroids, cyclosporine, metronidazole, voriconazole, digoxine, digitoxin, phenylbutazone, thiopental *PB metabolism can be inhibited by P450 inhib:* cimetidine, **omeprazole**, lanzoprazole, chloramphenicol, trimetoprim, fluoroquin, **tetracyclines**, **keto/fluco/itroconazole**, **fluoxetine**, felbamate, topiramate
46
type 1/2 adverse effect pheno
type 1: sedation, ataxia, polyphagia, PUPD type 2: hepatotoxicity, anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, superficial necrolytic dermatitis, pancreatitis, dyskinesia, anxiety, hypoalbuminemia
47
imepitoin 1. elimination 2. receptor 3. adverse effect 4. dose
1. extensively metabolised in liver, ecreted via **fecal** route 2. low afinity partial agonist for **GABA A** receptor 3. polyphagia, hyperact, somnolence, PD, hypersaliv, emesis, diarrhea, **prolapse nict mb, decrease vision, sensib to sound** 4. **10-30 mg/kg BID**
48
KBr 1. elimination half life 2. bound to plasma prot 3. elimination 4. drug interaction 5. adverse effect type 1 6. adverse effect type 2 7. dose
1. 25-46 days 2. unbound 3. unchanged in urine, tubular reabsorption in compet with chloride (high chloride increase elim) 4. loop diuretic (furosemide) increase elim 5. sedation, ataxia, PL weakness, PUPD, polyphagia, GI irritation 6. personality change, persistant cough, increase risk pancreatitis and megaoeso 7. bitherap 15 mg/kg BID (loading 625 mg/kg over 48h)
49
levetiracetam 1. elimination half life 2. receptor 3. adverse effect 4. interaction 5. prot binding 6. elim
1. 3-6h 2. presynaptic prot SVA2 3. sedation, ataxia, vomiting, decrease appetite 4. P450 alter disposition: increase dosage with pheno 5. minimal 6. minim hepat metab, mainly unchanged in urines
50
felbamate: 1. adverse effect 2. mechanism 3. interaction 4. elimination + half life
1. keratocongonctivitis, blood dyscrasia 2. inhib glycine-enhanced NMDA-induced intracel Ca current, blokade voltage gated Na channel, inhib voltage gated Ca current 3. raised pheno level in a dose dpd manner, elimi reduced with gabapentine 4. half life 6h, mainly metab liver
50
zonisamide: 1. adverse effect 2. mechanism 3. elim half life 4. prot binding 5. elim 6. dose 7. dosage can be altered by
1. sedation, ataxia, loss apetite, type 2: hepatox, renal tub acidosis, neutropenia, erythema multifome 2. blockage Ca chan, enhancemt GABA release, inhib glutamate release, inhib voltage gated Na channel 3. 15h 4. low 5. hepat metab P450, excretion kidney 6. 3-7 mg/kg BID (7-10 with pheno) 7. hemolysis
51
topiramate: 1. mechanism 2. elim half life 3. elimination
1. enhance GABA-ergic activity, inhib voltage gated Na and Ca channel, kainate evoked current and carbonic ahnydrase isoenzyme 2. 2-4h 3. 70-80% unchanged in urine, biliary excretion
52
def non convulsive EEG seiz/status + prevalence + risk factor
epileptiform discharge lasting at least **10 sec** or any pattern with **definite evolution in frequency, location or morphology without prominent motor activity** **status >10 min** prevalence **29% and 16%** **mortality higher** than patient without EEG seizures risk factor ES/ESE: **young age, seizure <8h before, history cluster**
53
zonisamide: adverse effect + half life in cat
sedation 17%, ataxia 11%, hyporexia 17%, emesis 5% non regenerative anemia, metabolic acidosis, increase ALT/ALP, anticonv hypersensitivy syndrome adv effect with q12h>q24h half life 30h, steady state 1 w A median decrease of 1 seizure per month, and 1 (2 for IE) seizure days per month was found across all cats
54
behavioural comorbidity of epilepsy
attention deficit hyperactivity disorder like cognitive impairement fear and anxiety
55
most prevalent breed with vestibular epilepsy, EEG, prognosis
Pugs EEG: interictal spikes in fronto-temporal ans fronto-parietal area 100% response to AE presumed idiopathic cause
56
effect zonisamide treatment on Phbr concentration
increased (5/9) hepatotoxic dose metabolised by CYP450
57
region assoc with seizures triggered by eating breed overrepresentated main type of seizures
perisylvian region (maj temporal in hum) Retrievers focal evolving in generalised maj idiopath epil
58
risk factor for early recurrencence in dogs hospitalized for seizure eval according for StE/IE/RE
IE: abnormal neurol exam StE: abnormal neurol exam, seizure 72h before RE: long term
59
diffusion in dog with epil
increase ADC in amygdala and in semioval centrum (cell loss and increase intercellular space=
60
risk factor structural epil in cat
pedigree cat, >7y, abnormal neurologic exam, ictal vocal (salivation decrease likelihood)
61
EEG abnomalies associated with PSS shunts/ intracran pathology/ IE
high voltage low frequency background activity in PSSS and intracran path bilateral symmetric triphasic: PSS IE: spike-waves
62
EEG artifacts
eyes movement: frontopolar elect +/- frontal. Mono, biphasic sharp waveform or complex polyphasic slow waveform (1Hz) eye blinks: positive pole (cornea) move closer to frontopolar elect: symmetric downward deflexion EMG: sudden arrytmic burst, prolonged duration and frequency (20-100 Hz) ECG: electrical (QRS) and mechanical (vessel). Rythmic, regular, temporaly correlated with heart contraction ear: similar than ocular mobility Alternating current (50-60 Hz): very high freq, long duration. Serie of sharp, rapid, positive-negative deflection in one or more elect electrode artifact: brief transient limited to one elect teh low freq high amp rythm across the entire scalp salt bridge: when 2 elect are too close. unipol mont appear superimposable, isoelect wave in longit montage
63
preval diagnosis with CSF in normal MRI
0.5%
64
negative prognostic indicator for status
GME, absence control 6h after hospit onset, partial SE mortality 25%
65
phenobarb induced hematol change in cat
75% cytopenia most freq neutropenia 50%, thrombocytopenia 25% and anemia 20% even when phbr in therapeutic range, life-threatening 1.5%
66
interaction canabidiol and pheno
no interaction
67
histological lesion in cat with familial spontaneous epil + perfusion on MRI
lower number of neuron in cornu amnionis 3 hippocampus hypoperfusion (but other etude with some hyper)
68
age-realted changes in MRI spectroscopy
young dog increased choline decreased NAA
69
feline audiogenic reflex seizure type seizure age, breed treatment prognosis
non progressive, myoclonic (generalised TC when repetitive stimultation) seizures triggered by loud, sudden sound cat>15yo Birman levetiracetam 50% freedom from seiz
70
higher probability of MRI post ictal change
cluster or status unknown-origin epilepsy lower time from last seiz
71
adverse effect topiramate in cat
renal tubular acidosis
72
diffusion in epilepstic dog
lower cerebral flow, greather mean time of contrast arival
73
effect food with adimistration of levet
food slow absorption, decrease plasma concent
74
diffusion MRI in idiopath epil
interictal DWI: increase dif in piriform ADC : reduction 3-6h, increase 12-24h, normalisation 48h DTI: change in cingulate gyrus (lower FA)
75
spectroscopy in epileptic dog
higher NAA/cho in temporal lobe reduced NAA/Cr , reduces Glx/cr in thalamus in dogs under treatment
76
serum marker for structural epilepsy
neurofilament light chain higher than IE
77
mechanism BBB dysfunction in epilepsy
leakage serum albumine ->binding TGF B in astrocytes -> reactive astroglyosis ->generation excit synapse, dim GABA inhib, change extracellular matrix
78
BBB dysfunction in epil dog
higher blood brain barrier permeability in IE increase activity/expression MMP9 in serum/CSF, lower gene expression Kir4 (astro K channel) and claudin 5 (endothelial TJ) in pirif lobe
79
% response of zonisamide for IE dog
76% 50% reduction 55% seizure freedom adverse effect (13%): reduced appetite, vomit, hindlimb weakness, constip blokage volt gated Na channel + voltage gated type T calcium channel, enhance GABAA recept function, inhib glutamate release, scavenge free radic
80
interaction pheno / levetiracetam
pheno decrease leve concentr in a dose dpdt manner + more rapid elim (suspicion oxid leve induced by pheno)
81
CBD: mechanism, first/ ajunct tretment for epil + adverse effects
not canabinoid recep reduction of presynaptic intracellular calcium concentrations mediated by a functional **antagonism at G protein-coupled receptor 55** (GPR55) receptors and a **desensitization of transient receptor potential vanilloid 1** (TRPV1) receptors. impact on **extracellular adenosine** concentrations (impact on calcium and potassium fluxes) first: 2.5 mg/kg BID, reduction seiz freq 33% adjunct: 9 mg/kg/d 24% decrease in seizure day decrease appetite and vomiting, ataxia increase liver enzyme
82
phenobarb induced hematol change in cat
75% cytopenia (neutropenia 60%, leukopenia 50%, thrombocytopenia 25%, anemia 20%) polytherap : lower hematocrite
83
volumetry change in IE
reduced cingulate gyrus volume
84
phenobarbarb type 2 reaction
1. systemic lupus erythematus: fever, multiple cytopenia positive antinuclear AB titer 2. pseudolymphoma: generalised lymphadenopathy, pyrexia, hepatomeg/splenomeg (histocyt-neutroph inflam) 3-5 weeks after init 3. pancreatitis, blood dyscrasia, necrolytic dermatitis, dyskinesia
85
why benzodiazep loss efficacy during prolonged seiz
internalisation GABAa recepty + overexp NMDA
86
risk factor associated with short term mortality and recurrence status
short term mortality (0%) increase age, decreased duration hospit, SE before arrival, SE from fatal etiol recurrence (30%): history phjaramcoresist, focal
87
which tube for leve dosage
only serum (in situ hydrolysis in plasma or whole blood)
88
dermatologic reaction pheno, KBr, zonisamide
pheno: metabolic epidermal necrosis (superficial necrotizing dermtatitis) after several m/y, probably hepatocutaneous KBr: panniculitis, pustulous derm, non supp white maccules zonisamide: erythema multiforme
89
% idiopathic epil dog with hippocampal atrophy
56% 88% same side as temporal epil
90
effect topical lido application on EEG muscle artifact
not helpful
91
focal epilepsy with fear-related behaviour: 1. breed 2. associated with ... signs 3. histo 4. age of onset 5. antiepil
1. **boerboel** 2. autonomic and motor 3. **vacuoles** in the perikaryon in deep cerebal **cortical** region (pariet, temp, occip) 4. 3m 5. pheno, KBr
92
pathol with cerebral vacuoles
1. focal epil with fear related behavious in boerboel dogs 2. transmissible spongiform encephalopathy 3. RABGAPA3 in Alaskan Huskies, Black Russian Terrier, Rottweiler. intracytopl vacuols in cerebellar/BS/thal/SC nuclei. Ataxia, ocular abnom, laryngeal paral 4. ATG4D Lagotto Romagnolo. cerebellar ataxia, vacuol cytopl CNS/PNS 5. fucosidosis 6. GMA gangliosisdosis 7. intox
93
predominant type seiz pomeranian
focal (limb contraction)
94
juvenile epil Rhodesian % photos
95
breed with increase frequence status/cluster
cluster + status: Border Collie Status: Aust Sheperd
96
IE related death % in italian spinone, Border, Irish Wolfhund, great swiss montain
IT: 32% Border: 35% Irish Wolfhund: 52% great swiss montain: 35% decrease survival time Border and Aust sheperd if onset < 2y
97
mutation begnign familial epil lagotto romagnolo + epil assoc with
**focal**-onset seizures, start 5-9 weeks, **spontaneously remit 13 w** **LGI2** mut (synapse formation during dev) **Behavioural** abn: inattention, excitability impulsivity, event after 4y
98
% structural epil in Boxer
93% (neoplasia)
99
most common seiz type in irish setter
generalised
100
ab in cat limbic encephalitis seizures type
leucin rich glioma-inactivated I voltage gated potassium channel focal seiz, cluster, interictal behaviour change
101
types of SE
motor: convulsive, myoclonic, focal motor, hyperkinetic non convulsive: comatose or not comatose
102
physiopathology of status
5-10 min: impending neurotransmit release/imbalence ion channel opening/closure first line treat 10-30 min: established GABAaR decrease, inetrnalisation of GABAaR NMDA and AMPA R upregulation second>first >30 min refractory excitatory and inhibit neuropeptide realease/imbalance BBB transporter upregulation third line treat >24h superrefractory gene exp alteration
103
1st, 2nd, 3rd line treatment status
1st: mida IN, IV or diazepam IV +/- mida CRI 2nd: leve IV + pheno IV +/- fosphenytoin IV 3rd: ketamine IV +/- dexmedeto, propofol, pentobarb, inhalational anest
104
action mechanism propofol, dexmedeto, keta
dexmedeto: alpha2 adrnorecept ago ->supression norepi release, decrease cerebral oxygen demand, vasoconstriction brain propofol: GABAaR, non BZP site + glycine and NMDA antag. Heinz body anemia in cat inhalant anesth GABAa anesth barbiturate GABAa phosphetoin GABAa, NMDA AMPA
105
elim half life KBr, imepitoin, levet
KBr 15d imepitoin 2h levetiracetam 2-4h
106
zonisamide is metabolised by + weak inhib of ...
hepatic enzyme CYP3A4 weak carbonic anhydrase inhibitor coadmn with pheno increase clearance by 50% and shorten elim half life higher risk idiosynch react if allergic episod with sulfonamide
107
LGI (leucin rich glioma inactivated) proteins action
LGI1 binds to 1. presyn volt gated k channel **Kv1** -> increase Ca influx and neurotrans release 2. presynap **ADAM 23** ->affect neurite outgrowth 3. post synap **ADAM22** -> stabilised synapse with presyn 4. regulation **AMPA** -> glutamate recept LG role in maturation glutaminergic synapse (LGI2 immediately post nat)
108
pathologies associated with LGI proteins
Lagotto Romagnolo mut **LGI2**: familial juvenil epil. Belgian Sheperd **ADAM23**: predisp adult epil. focal seiz, 3-4y, very low freq SE **limbic seizure** in cat: antibodies against VGKC complexes/LGI1 suppression LGI1expression in **glioblastoma**
109
transcranial magnet stim act by which neurotransmit
dopamine
110
ABCB1 gene in epil
Border: assoc ABCB1 and phenobarb resistance in only one variant
111
medium-chain TG action
elevation **beta hydroxybutiric acid** (suspected by ATP channel and GABAb) reduce seizure frequency, better QoL reduces pheno concent 8%, ALKP 10%
112
mineral in epileptic dogs
higher Cu, Zn, Se, As lower P
113
cardiac troponin 1 and seizure
tropo 1 higher in dogs with recent seiz associated with : number seiz, age
114
ammoniema after seizure in cat
transient hyperammonemia
115
feline temporal lobe epil: 1. equivalent in humans 2. type of seizure 3. localisation 4. causes
1. autoimmune limbic encephalitis and temporal lobe epil 2. focal, orofacial or head twitching, hypetrsalivation, lip smacking, mydriasis, vocalisation, motionless staring with interict behaviour change 3. hippocampus and piriform lobe 4. astrocytoma/lymphome, voltage gated potassium channel antibodies (targeting LGI1), DCC: deleted in colorectal carcinome = netrin 1 recept
116
in cat half life 1. pheno 2. leve 3. zonisamide 4. gaba 5. diazepam
1. 40-80h, escalating dose over time is rare in cat 2. 3h 3. 33h 4. 2.5-3.5h 5. 15-20h, no functional toler i cat
117
More often focal/generalised seizures in cat with hypertyroidism/hepatic encephalopathy
focal
118
feline audiogenic reflex seizure
15y Birman levetiracetam high pitched sound
119
% IE, structural, reactive seizures in cat
reactive 15-25% structural 40-70% idiopath 22-57%
120
% cat with intracran lymphoma positive for FeLV
18%
121
causes of ischemic CVA in cat
hypertension (renal, hyperthyroidism) cuterebra (< 4y, access to outdoor in sumer months) systemic neoplasia cardiomyopathy sepsis vasculitis vascular degeneration
122
thimaine deficiency: 1. localisation 2. causes 3. signs
1. lateral geniculate nuclei, caudal colliculi, facial nuclei, cerebellar nodulus, medial vestibular nuclei 2. diets preserved with sulfur dioxide, inaquately suppelmented, thimaine degradeds by heating, diet with thiaminase 3. imapaired vision, mydriasis, ataxia, ventroflexion, vestibular signs, seizures (60%). 80% of seizuring cat with status/cluster
123
1. salivation during seizure 2. ictal vocalisation in cat is more likely in ... 3. status/cluster more frequent in IE/struct/react
1. IE 2. structural epil 3. 10-20% in IE vs 40% in other causes, associated with poorer survival
124
hepatic enz induction with pheno in cat
NO, but some cases of increase ALT
125
most common adverse effect pheno cat + factors
sedation, ataxia increase with dose, second AE
126
% epileptic cat with normal MRI and abnormal CSF
4.6 %
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maj cause epil <12m in cat
structural
128
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levetiracetam and pheno + recomanded dose
Phenobarbital significantly decreased serum levetiracetam concentration in a dose dependent manner levetiracetam dosage of 99–216 mg/kg/day is necessary to obtain a serum levetiracetam concentration of 20 μg/mL when used alone or concurrently with 7 mg/kg/day of phenobarbital no significant causal link was found between serum phenobarbital concentration and serum levetiracetam concentration increasing doses of phenobarbital, the correlation between the PO dose of levetiracetam and serum concentrations may disappear No significant association was found between serum levetiracetam concentration and clinical efficacy. significant and positive effect of levetiracetam PO dose was observed on serum levetiracetam concentration except in the case of zonisamide dual therapy with levetiracetam
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complement C3 and C4 in dogs with idiopathic epilepsy
Serum C3 and C4 concentrations were significantly higher in dogs with IE No significant differences were observed between dogs in the treatment and nontreatment groups Dogs with a seizure frequency >3 times/month had significantly higher serum C3 and C4

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