book 1 Flashcards

1
Q

where can you palpate the ischial spines?

A

4 and 8 oclock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

where can you palpate the ischial spines?

A

4 and 8 oclock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

2 ligaments of the pelvis?

A

sacrospinous and sacrotuberous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

if you get life threatening haemorrhage after pelvic fracture, which vessels are likely affected?

A

common iliac artery/vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

do you want the station to be positive or negative

A

positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

describe medulla of ovary?

A

highly vascularised, connective tissue, nerves, lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the name of the group of arteries that enter hilum from broad ligament and supply blood to the ovary?

A

helicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

dense connective tissue in the penis?

A

tunica albuginea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

name for the development of oocytes?

A

oogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

growth of follicle term?

A

folliculogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

loss of oogonia and oocytes by apoptosis?

A

atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what happens to folic if it fails to associate with pregranulosa cells?

A

die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are pregranulosa cells like? what happens to them if the follicle enters growth phase?

A

squamous, become cuboidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what do you call cuboidal granulosa cells?

A

zona granulosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

layer of specialised extracellular matrix between oocyte and granolas cells?

A

zona pellucida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what cells associate with the outside of the folic?

A

stroma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what do they go on to become?

A

theca (interna and externa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which layer of the theca secrete oestrogen precursors?

A

inner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which cells convert the precursors to esrogen?

A

granulosa cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

name of strucure, filled with follicular fluid which starts to form?

A

antrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

after ovulation, follicle transforms into?

A

CL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which cells of the corpus lute secrete oestrogen and progesterone?

A

theca and granulosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

if no implantation, CL becomes?

A

corpus albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what colour is the corpus albicans?

A

white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

if implantation occurs, placenta secretes HCG. what is the effect of this?

A

prevents CL degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

the corpus lute maintains progesterone levels, and so maintains the pregnancy

A

ie corpus lute needs HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

name sites of uterine tubes (fun to as it is)

A

infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, interstital part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

where does fertilisation usually occur?

A

ampulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how many layers of smooth muscle are in the ampulla? isthmus?

A

2 in the ampulla, 3 in the isthmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

which layer of the endometrium contains 3 layers of smooth muscle, with collagen and elastic tissue?

A

myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

which layer shed during menstruation?

A

endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

2 layers of endometrium?

A

striatum basalis and stratum functionalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which part is grown and shed?

A

f

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

during secretory phase, describe the appearance of the glands? what do they secrete?

A

coiled with corkscrew appearance. glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is glycogen converted into in the vagina? by what?

A

lactic acid by commensal bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

describe mucus in proliferative phase and following ovulation?

A

thin and watery in proliferative phase, thick and viscous following ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

4 layers of the vagina?

A

NLFA - i hop - non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium, lamina propria, fibromuscular layer, adventitia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

vagina lubricated by cervical mucous and ?

A

fluid from thin walled vessels in lamina propria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

contains 2 tubes of erectile vascular tissue?

A

clitoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

minora, which has only sebacsous glands, wad which has both sebaceous and apocrine

A

minora only s, majora has s and a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what does FSH stimulate?

A

follicle development and granolas cells to produce oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

dominant follicles release what substance which inhibits FSH?

A

inhibin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

decline in FSH causes?

A

atresia of all but dominant follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

term for degeneration of corpus luteum?

A

luteolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

estrogen induced growth of endometrial glands, which phase?

A

proliferative phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what happens in L phase?

A

secretory activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

which process inhibits scar formation in menstruation?

A

fibrinolysis (breakdown of clots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how many days does bleeding usually last ?

A

4-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

should there be clots?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

variation of days in normal cycle?

A

21-35 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

menorrhagia?

A

prolonged and increased menstrual flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

RAGE PI

A

y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

metrorrhagia

A

regular intermenstrual bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

increased bleeding and frequent cycle?

A

polymenorrhagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

polymenorrhoea - menses occurring at?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

menometrorrhagia?

A

prolonged menses and intermenstrual bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

oligomenorrhoea?

A

menses at intervals of more than 35 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

how long do you need absence of periods to be amennorheic?

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

DUBs are all to do with?

A

corpus luteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what percentage of women with abnormal uterine bleeding have DUB?

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

both anovulatory and ovulatory have a deficiency of?

A

prog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

85% are an/ov?

A

anovulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

which one more common in obesity?

A

anovulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what ages do you expect to get anovulatry?

A

extremes of fertility, 20 and 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

management of DUB? (pro foo, dan, pillh, NSAID, GnRH analogues, capillary wall stabilisers)

A

PROGESTERONE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

2 alternatives that release progesterone?

A

IUCD or IUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

which hormone converts endometrium to secretory stage to prepare for implantation?

A

pro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

can also do resection or ablation for DUB

A

y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

infertility - female should take 0.4mg folic acid for how long before conception?

A

12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

mild or moderate endometriosis, what fertility treatment can be offered? also for unexplained fertility?

A

IUI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Indications for IVF?

A

unexplained 2 year duration, pelvic disease, anovulatory, male factor infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

which drug used to down regulate GnRH?

A

buretin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

side effects?

A

hot flushes, mood swings, nasal irritation, headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what should endometrium look like following this?

A

thin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how is ovary stimulated?

A

gnrh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

side effects of ovarian stimulation?

A

mild allergic reactions and ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is injected to mimic LH surge 36 hours before egg collection?

A

HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

no more than 2 embryos to be transferred in women less than 40. however, 3 can be transferred in special circumstances

A

y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

after the transfter, what hormone is given?

A

prog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what complications can arise from sperm aspiration?

A

abdominal pain/bloating/nausea, diarrhoea, breathless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is the chance of success in a woman under 35?

A

37%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

over 41

A

0.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

pathway of IVF?

A

down regulation using bretin (menopausal symptoms) - ovarian stimulation - scan - oocyte retrieval - embryo transfer - luteal support (progesterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

complications of IVF?

A

ectopic pregnancy, OHSS, multiple pregnancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

in breast, i larger ducts, epithelial lining is?

A

columnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

in smaller i.e. acini, its?

A

columnar or cuboidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

keratinised stratified squamous epithelium with a curve of dense irregular connective tissue mixed with bundles of smooth muscle?

A

nipple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

in absence of pregnancy, what happens to lumina of ducts and epithelial cells in luteal phase?

A

lamina increases, epithelial cells increase in height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

if pregnancy occurs, you get elongation and branching of the smaller ducts

A

y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

also proliferation of the epithelial cells of the glands and the myoepithelial cells

A

y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

in pregnancy, 2nd trimester, which cells infiltrate the connective tissue?

A

plasma and lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

during pregnancy, E and P stimulate proliferation of secretory tissue. what happens to fibrofatty tissue

A

becomes sparse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

composition of breast milk?

A

88% water, 7% carb, 3.5% fat, 1.5% protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

also contains?

A

vitamins, ions, IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what sort of secretion for lipids?

A

apocrine, takes a bit of cytoplasm with it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

proteins in milk made by ?

A

rER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

packaged in ?

A

the golgi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

which type of secretion for proteins?

A

merocrine, secretion, merge with the apical membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

following menopause, the secretory cells of TDLU degenerate leaving only ducts. in connective tissue there is reduced ______ and _______? fewer of which cell type

A

collagen and elastic fibres, fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

histopathology - tissue

cytology cells

A

B1-b5

c1 - c5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what would you do to establish hormone receptor status?

A

biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

causes of gynaecomastia?

A

hormones, cannabis, prescription drugs, liver disease, hyperthyroid, renal disease, puberty, idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

describe the growth?

A

ductal growth with no lobular growth?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

lumpy rope like change?

A

fibrocystic change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

pain, tenderness, lumpiness in pre menopausal woman. sudden pain, both breasts, cyclical pain, smooth discrete lumps?

A

FCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

describe cysts?

A

1mm blue domed with pale fluid, sisal multiple. cysts are thin walled but may have fibrotic wall. lined by apocrine epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

management?

A

exclude malignancy, reassure, excise if necessary (aspirate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what percentage of cysts are associated with malignancy?

A

1-2 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

circumscribed lesion composed of cell types normal to the breast but present in an abnormal proportion or distribtion/

A

hamartoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

black woman in 20s, solitary painless firm discrete mobile mass?

A

fibroadeoma. circumscribed, rubbery, grey white colour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

management of fibroadenoma?

A

diagnose, reassure, excise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

when do you excise it?

A

if it is abnormal shape, enlarging or don’t know what it is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

type of sclerosis. benign disorderly proliferation of acini and stroma. pain, tenderness, lumpiness, may cause calcification?

A

sclerosing adenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

radial scar - buzzwords?

A

stellate architecture, central puckering, fibroelastic core, radiating, epithelial proliferation, distorted ductules, fibrocystic change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what may develop within these lesions?

A

cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

are these types of sclerosis pre malignant?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

fat necrosis - path?

A

trauma, damage to adipcytes, foamy macrophage infiltration - scarring and fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

duct ectasia - which ducts does it affect?

A

sub areolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

pain?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

most common cause of?

A

green discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

acute episodic inflammatory changes

A

y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

associated with? what can happen to the nipple?

A

smoking, retraction and distortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

what happens to the sub areolar ducts?

A

dilation, also become inflamed and fobrosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

management?

A

treat infections, exclude maignancy, stop smoking. can excise if necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

2 main aetiologies of abcess/mastitis

A

duct ectasia and breast feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

management

A

CONTINUE BREAST FEEDING, antibiotics (flucloxacillin/co amoxixillin) drainage or incision and drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

management

A

CONTINUE BREAST FEEDING, antibiotics (flucloxacillin/amoxixillin) drainage or incision and drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

what is storm of breast?

A

connective tissue and fat, not glandular tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

unilateral breast mass, doesn’t metastasis, benign, prime to local recurrence, leaf shaped?

A

phyllodes tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

papillary lesions, can they cause blood nipple discharge?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

painful?

A

usually no, asymptomatic at screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

nodules may be calcified

A

core is fibrovascular, may show proliferative activity, myoepithelium and epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

pathway of intraduct papilloma?

A

none, usual type hyperplasia, atypical hyperplasia, dcis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

breast carcinoma arises from which epithelium?

A

glandular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

metastatic tumours to breast come from?

A

kidneys, lungs, ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

in situ carcinomas can be lobular or ductal

A

arise in the glandular epithelium of the terminal duct lobular unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

2 types of lobular neoplasia?

A

atypical lobular hyperplasia, lobular carc in sit (>50%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

describle neoplasia

A

er positive, e cad negative, intracytoplasmic lumens/vaculoes, small/intermediate sized nuclei. MULTIFOCAL AND BILATERAL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

DCIS tends to be unicentric

A

involvement of the nipple in DCIS is known as pagets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

what nipple symptoms do you get in pagets?

A

redness, scaling and flaking of nipple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

lobular neoplasia, palpable? calcium?

A

not palpable, but visible grossly. may calcify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

why is lobular neoplasia significant?

A

8 x rr of invasive carcinoma, 15-20 percent when you investigate them they have higher grade lesion than diagnostic biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

high grade DCIS can extend along the ducts to reach the epidermis of nipple

A

pagets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

most common invasive breast cancer?

A

ductal 80 percent, lobular 10 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

risk factors for breast cancer/

A

age, age at first menarche, age at first birth, age at menopause, hrt, cocp, alcohol , obesity, smoking, BRACA 1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

BRACA 1 and 2 - lifetime risk of breast cancer?

A

45 - 64 percent lifetime risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

DCIS management?

A

excise and radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

what staging system is used in breast cancer?

A

TNM t = local invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

pathological assessment breast cancer?

A

TGSPP (prognostic and predictive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

well differentiated - good prognosis - cells similar

A

poorly differentiated - cells different - bad prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

3 grading parts?

A

tubular differentiation 1-3 nuclear polymorphism 1-3 mitotic activiy 1-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

drug that blocks oestrogen receptor in breast?

A

tamoxifen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

how can you reduce amount of oestrogen?

A

gnRH antagonists, aromitast inhibitors (TAG OOPH) also oophrectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

name an aromatase inhibitor?

A

letrozole (aroma to let)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

gnrh antagonists

A

go zo

156
Q

percentage of breast cancers that are er positive?

A

80

157
Q

HER 2?

A

14

158
Q

scoring used in prognostic/predict?

A

nottingham

159
Q

nottingham eqn?

A

0.2 x tumour diameter x grade x lymph node status

160
Q

first degree relative with breast cancer doubles risk

A

why does obesity predispose to breast cancer? adipocytes convert androgens to oestrogens

161
Q

radiotherapy treatment for what pre disposes to breast cancer

A

hodgkins lymphoma

162
Q

presentation of breast cancer ?

A

LMNN - lump, mastalgia, nipple pain, nipple changes

163
Q

why sensitivity of mamography reduced in young women?

A

presence of more glandular tissue

164
Q

us good to differentiate between ?

A

solid and cystic lumps

165
Q

which t would a tumour be if it was over 5 cm?

A

t3

166
Q

distant mets of breast cancer?

A

other breast, liver, lungs, bone

167
Q

benefits of chemo better in who?

A

young women

168
Q

who gets radiotherapy after excision?

A

WLE, mastectomy if local spread, large tumour, lymph node mets (extensive)

169
Q

who gets radiotherapy after excision?

A

WLE, mastectomy if local spread, large tumour, lymph node mets

170
Q

side effects of radio?

A

telangactasia, pneumonitis, dysphagia, osteonecrosis

171
Q

tamoxifen - action?

A

blocks estrogen receptor in breast

172
Q

effective in what age group?

A

all

173
Q

less or more effective in her 2 positive?

A

less

174
Q

more effective when?

A

when given after chemo

175
Q

aromatase inhibitors - name 1

A

letrozole

176
Q

action?

A

inhibit estrogen synthesis

177
Q

side effect?

A

osteoperosis

178
Q

side effect?

A

osteoperosis

179
Q

2 ligaments of the pelvis?

A

sacrospinous and sacrotuberous

180
Q

if you get life threatening haemorrhage after pelvic fracture, which vessels are likely affected?

A

common iliac artery/vein

181
Q

do you want the station to be positive or negative

A

positive

182
Q

describe medulla of ovary?

A

highly vascularised, connective tissue, nerves, lymphatics

183
Q

what is the name of the group of arteries that enter hilum from broad ligament and supply blood to the ovary?

A

helicine

184
Q

dense connective tissue in the penis?

A

tunica albuginea

185
Q

name for the development of oocytes?

A

oogenesis

186
Q

growth of follicle term?

A

folliculogenesis

187
Q

loss of oogonia and oocytes by apoptosis?

A

atresia

188
Q

what happens to folic if it fails to associate with pregranulosa cells?

A

die

189
Q

what are pregranulosa cells like? what happens to them if the follicle enters growth phase?

A

squamous, become cuboidal

190
Q

what do you call cuboidal granulosa cells?

A

zona granulosa

191
Q

layer of specialised extracellular matrix between oocyte and granolas cells?

A

zona pellucida

192
Q

what cells associate with the outside of the folic?

A

stroma cells

193
Q

what do they go on to become?

A

theca (interna and externa)

194
Q

which layer of the theca secrete oestrogen precursors?

A

inner

195
Q

which cells convert the precursors to esrogen?

A

granulosa cells

196
Q

name of strucure, filled with follicular fluid which starts to form?

A

antrum

197
Q

after ovulation, follicle transforms into?

A

CL

198
Q

which cells of the corpus lute secrete oestrogen and progesterone?

A

theca and granulosa

199
Q

if no implantation, CL becomes?

A

corpus albicans

200
Q

what colour is the corpus albicans?

A

white

201
Q

if implantation occurs, placenta secretes HCG. what is the effect of this?

A

prevents CL degeneration

202
Q

the corpus lute maintains progesterone levels, and so maintains the pregnancy

A

ie corpus lute needs HCG

203
Q

name sites of uterine tubes (fun to as it is)

A

infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, interstital part

204
Q

where does fertilisation usually occur?

A

ampulla

205
Q

in over 40s?

A

mammogram

206
Q

which layer of the endometrium contains 3 layers of smooth muscle, with collagen and elastic tissue?

A

myometrium

207
Q

which layer shed during menstruation?

A

endometrium

208
Q

2 layers of endometrium?

A

striatum basalis and stratum functionalis

209
Q

which part is grown and shed?

A

f

210
Q

during secretory phase, describe the appearance of the glands? what do they secrete?

A

coiled with corkscrew appearance. glycogen

211
Q

what is glycogen converted into in the vagina? by what?

A

lactic acid by commensal bacteria

212
Q

describe mucus in proliferative phase and following ovulation?

A

thin and watery in proliferative phase, thick and viscous following ovulation

213
Q

4 layers of the vagina?

A

NLFA - i hop - non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium, lamina propria, fibromuscular layer, adventitia

214
Q

vagina lubricated by cervical mucous and ?

A

fluid from thin walled vessels in lamina propria

215
Q

contains 2 tubes of erectile vascular tissue?

A

clitoris

216
Q

minora, which has only sebacsous glands, wad which has both sebaceous and apocrine

A

minora only s, majora has s and a

217
Q

what does FSH stimulate?

A

follicle development and granolas cells to produce oestrogen

218
Q

dominant follicles release what substance which inhibits FSH?

A

inhibin

219
Q

decline in FSH causes?

A

atresia of all but dominant follicle

220
Q

term for degeneration of corpus luteum?

A

luteolysis

221
Q

estrogen induced growth of endometrial glands, which phase?

A

proliferative phase

222
Q

what happens in L phase?

A

secretory activity

223
Q

which process inhibits scar formation in menstruation?

A

fibrinolysis (breakdown of clots)

224
Q

how many days does bleeding usually last ?

A

4-6

225
Q

should there be clots?

A

no

226
Q

variation of days in normal cycle?

A

21-35 days

227
Q

menorrhagia?

A

prolonged and increased menstrual flow

228
Q

RAGE PI

A

y

229
Q

metrorrhagia

A

regular intermenstrual bleeding

230
Q

increased bleeding and frequent cycle?

A

polymenorrhagia

231
Q

polymenorrhoea - menses occurring at?

A

less than 21 day intervals

232
Q

menometrorrhagia?

A

prolonged menses and intermenstrual bleeding

233
Q

oligomenorrhoea?

A

menses at intervals of more than 35 days

234
Q

how long do you need absence of periods to be amennorheic?

A

6 months

235
Q

DUBs are all to do with?

A

corpus luteum

236
Q

what percentage of women with abnormal uterine bleeding have DUB?

A

50

237
Q

both anovulatory and ovulatory have a deficiency of?

A

prog

238
Q

85% are an/ov?

A

anovulatory

239
Q

which one more common in obesity?

A

anovulatory

240
Q

what ages do you expect to get anovulatry?

A

extremes of fertility, 20 and 40

241
Q

management of DUB? (pro foo, dan, pillh, NSAID, GnRH analogues, capillary wall stabilisers)

A

PROGESTERONE

242
Q

2 alternatives that release progesterone?

A

IUCD or IUS

243
Q

which hormone converts endometrium to secretory stage to prepare for implantation?

A

pro

244
Q

can also do resection or ablation for DUB

A

y

245
Q

infertility - female should take 0.4mg folic acid for how long before conception?

A

12 weeks

246
Q

mild or moderate endometriosis, what fertility treatment can be offered? also for unexplained fertility?

A

IUI

247
Q

Indications for IVF?

A

unexplained 2 year duration, pelvic disease, anovulatory, male factor infertility

248
Q

which drug used to down regulate GnRH?

A

buretin

249
Q

side effects?

A

hot flushes, mood swings, nasal irritation, headaches

250
Q

what should endometrium look like following this?

A

thin

251
Q

how is ovary stimulated?

A

gnrh

252
Q

side effects of ovarian stimulation?

A

mild allergic reactions and ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)

253
Q

what is injected to mimic LH surge 36 hours before egg collection?

A

HCG

254
Q

no more than 2 embryos to be transferred in women less than 40. however, 3 can be transferred in special circumstances

A

y

255
Q

after the transfter, what hormone is given?

A

prog

256
Q

what complications can arise from sperm aspiration?

A

abdominal pain/bloating/nausea, diarrhoea, breathless

257
Q

what is the chance of success in a woman under 35?

A

37%

258
Q

over 41

A

0.5%

259
Q

pathway of IVF?

A

down regulation using bretin (menopausal symptoms) - ovarian stimulation - scan - oocyte retrieval - embryo transfer - luteal support (progesterone)

260
Q

complications of IVF?

A

ectopic pregnancy, OHSS, multiple pregnancies

261
Q

in breast, i larger ducts, epithelial lining is?

A

columnar

262
Q

in smaller i.e. acini, its?

A

columnar or cuboidal

263
Q

keratinised stratified squamous epithelium with a curve of dense irregular connective tissue mixed with bundles of smooth muscle?

A

nipple

264
Q

in absence of pregnancy, what happens to lumina of ducts and epithelial cells in luteal phase?

A

lamina increases, epithelial cells increase in height

265
Q

if pregnancy occurs, you get elongation and branching of the smaller ducts

A

y

266
Q

also proliferation of the epithelial cells of the glands and the myoepithelial cells

A

y

267
Q

in pregnancy, 2nd trimester, which cells infiltrate the connective tissue?

A

plasma and lymphocytes

268
Q

during pregnancy, E and P stimulate proliferation of secretory tissue. what happens to fibrofatty tissue

A

becomes sparse

269
Q

composition of breast milk?

A

88% water, 7% carb, 3.5% fat, 1.5% protein

270
Q

also contains?

A

vitamins, ions, IgA

271
Q

what sort of secretion for lipids?

A

apocrine, takes a bit of cytoplasm with it

272
Q

proteins in milk made by ?

A

rER

273
Q

packaged in ?

A

the golgi

274
Q

which type of secretion for proteins?

A

merocrine, secretion, merge with the apical membrane

275
Q

following menopause, the secretory cells of TDLU degenerate leaving only ducts. in connective tissue there is reduced ______ and _______? fewer of which cell type

A

collagen and elastic fibres, fibroblasts

276
Q

histopathology - tissue

cytology cells

A

B1-b5

c1 - c5

277
Q

what would you do to establish hormone receptor status?

A

biopsy

278
Q

causes of gynaecomastia?

A

hormones, cannabis, prescription drugs, liver disease, hyperthyroid, renal disease, puberty, idiopathic

279
Q

describe the growth?

A

ductal growth with no lobular growth?

280
Q

lumpy rope like change?

A

fibrocystic change

281
Q

pain, tenderness, lumpiness in pre menopausal woman. sudden pain, both breasts, cyclical pain, smooth discrete lumps?

A

FCC

282
Q

describe cysts?

A

1mm blue domed with pale fluid, sisal multiple. cysts are thin walled but may have fibrotic wall. lined by apocrine epithelium

283
Q

management?

A

exclude malignancy, reassure, excise if necessary (aspirate)

284
Q

what percentage of cysts are associated with malignancy?

A

1-2 percent

285
Q

circumscribed lesion composed of cell types normal to the breast but present in an abnormal proportion or distribtion/

A

hamartoma

286
Q

black woman in 20s, solitary painless firm discrete mobile mass?

A

fibroadeoma. circumscribed, rubbery, grey white colour.

287
Q

management of fibroadenoma?

A

diagnose, reassure, excise

288
Q

when do you excise it?

A

if it is abnormal shape, enlarging or don’t know what it is

289
Q

type of sclerosis. benign disorderly proliferation of acini and stroma. pain, tenderness, lumpiness, may cause calcification?

A

sclerosing adenosis

290
Q

radial scar - buzzwords?

A

stellate architecture, central puckering, fibroelastic core, radiating, epithelial proliferation, distorted ductules, fibrocystic change

291
Q

what may develop within these lesions?

A

cancer

292
Q

are these types of sclerosis pre malignant?

A

no

293
Q

fat necrosis - path?

A

trauma, damage to adipcytes, foamy macrophage infiltration - scarring and fibrosis

294
Q

duct ectasia - which ducts does it affect?

A

sub areolar

295
Q

pain?

A

yes

296
Q

most common cause of?

A

green discharge

297
Q

acute episodic inflammatory changes

A

y

298
Q

associated with? what can happen to the nipple?

A

smoking, retraction and distortion

299
Q

what happens to the sub areolar ducts?

A

dilation, also become inflamed and fobrosed

300
Q

management?

A

treat infections, exclude maignancy, stop smoking. can excise if necessary

301
Q

2 main aetiologies of abcess/mastitis

A

duct ectasia and breast feeding

302
Q

which bacteria are involved in both?

A

mixed organisms anaerobes in duct

strep pyogenes in breast feeding

303
Q

management

A

CONTINUE BREAST FEEDING, antibiotics (flucloxacillin/amoxixillin) drainage or incision and drainage

304
Q

what is storm of breast?

A

connective tissue and fat, not glandular tissue

305
Q

unilateral breast mass, doesn’t metastasis, benign, prime to local recurrence, leaf shaped?

A

phyllodes tumour

306
Q

papillary lesions, can they cause blood nipple discharge?

A

yes

307
Q

painful?

A

usually no, asymptomatic at screening

308
Q

nodules may be calcified

A

core is fibrovascular, may show proliferative activity, myoepithelium and epithelium

309
Q

pathway of intraduct papilloma?

A

none, usual type hyperplasia, atypical hyperplasia, dcis

310
Q

breast carcinoma arises from which epithelium?

A

glandular

311
Q

metastatic tumours to breast come from?

A

kidneys, lungs, ovaries

312
Q

in situ carcinomas can be lobular or ductal

A

arise in the glandular epithelium of the terminal duct lobular unit

313
Q

2 types of lobular neoplasia?

A

atypical lobular hyperplasia, lobular carc in sit (>50%)

314
Q

describle neoplasia

A

er positive, e cad negative, intracytoplasmic lumens/vaculoes, small/intermediate sized nuclei. MULTIFOCAL AND BILATERAL.

315
Q

DCIS tends to be unicentric

A

involvement of the nipple in DCIS is known as pagets

316
Q

what nipple symptoms do you get in pagets?

A

redness, scaling and flaking of nipple

317
Q

lobular neoplasia, palpable? calcium?

A

not palpable, but visible grossly. may calcify

318
Q

why is lobular neoplasia significant?

A

8 x rr of invasive carcinoma, 15-20 percent when you investigate them they have higher grade lesion than diagnostic biopsy

319
Q

high grade DCIS can extend along the ducts to reach the epidermis of nipple

A

pagets

320
Q

most common invasive breast cancer?

A

ductal 80 percent, lobular 10 percent

321
Q

risk factors for breast cancer/

A

age, age at first menarche, age at first birth, age at menopause, hrt, cocp, alcohol , obesity, smoking, BRACA 1 and 2

322
Q

BRACA 1 and 2 - lifetime risk of breast cancer?

A

45 - 64 percent lifetime risk

323
Q

DCIS management?

A

excise and radiotherapy

324
Q

what staging system is used in breast cancer?

A

TNM t = local invasion

325
Q

pathological assessment breast cancer?

A

TGSPP (prognostic and predictive)

326
Q

well differentiated - good prognosis - cells similar

A

poorly differentiated - cells different - bad prognosis

327
Q

3 grading parts?

A

tubular differentiation 1-3 nuclear polymorphism 1-3 mitotic activiy 1-3

328
Q

drug that blocks oestrogen receptor in breast?

A

tamoxifen

329
Q

how can you reduce amount of oestrogen?

A

gnRH antagonists, aromitast inhibitors (TAG OOPH) also oophrectomy

330
Q

name an aromatase inhibitor?

A

letrozole (aroma to let)

331
Q

gnrh antagonists

A

go zo

332
Q

percentage of breast cancers that are er positive?

A

80

333
Q

HER 2?

A

14

334
Q

scoring used in prognostic/predict?

A

nottingham

335
Q

nottingham eqn?

A

0.2 x tumour diameter x grade x lymph node status

336
Q

first degree relative with breast cancer doubles risk

A

why does obesity predispose to breast cancer? adipocytes convert androgens to oestrogens

337
Q

radiotherapy treatment for what pre disposes to breast cancer

A

hodgkins lymphoma

338
Q

presentation of breast cancer ?

A

LMNN - lump, mastalgia, nipple pain, nipple changes

339
Q

why sensitivity of mamography reduced in young women?

A

presence of more glandular tissue

340
Q

us good to differentiate between ?

A

solid and cystic lumps

341
Q

which t would a tumour be if it was over 5 cm?

A

t3

342
Q

distant mets of breast cancer?

A

other breast, liver, lungs, bone

343
Q

benefits of chemo better in who?

A

young women

344
Q

3 chemos?

A

taxane, CMF, anthra cycline CAT

345
Q

who gets radiotherapy after excision?

A

WLE, mastectomy if local spread, large tumour, lymph node mets

346
Q

side effects of radio?

A

telangactasia, pneumonitis, dysphagia, osteonecrosis

347
Q

tamoxifen - action?

A

blocks estrogen receptor in breast

348
Q

effective in what age group?

A

all

349
Q

less or more effective in her 2 positive?

A

less

350
Q

more effective when?

A

when given after chemo

351
Q

aromatase inhibitors - name 1

A

letrozole

352
Q

action?

A

inhibit estrogen synthesis

353
Q

more effective in which group?

A

her 2 positive

354
Q

side effect?

A

osteoperosis

355
Q

premenopausal, discomfort, fulness, cyclical pain, classically outer half of breast?

A

cyclical pain

356
Q

does cycle pain have to be bilateral?

A

no can be unilateral

357
Q

older woman, post m, burning pain, can arise from chest wall, breast or outside breast?

A

non cyclical

358
Q

management of duct papilloma?

A

microdochectomy or full duct excision

359
Q

mastalgia initial management?

A

reassure, well fitted bra, nsaids

360
Q

if severe?

A

consider primrose oil, gamolenic acid, or DANAZOL - best

361
Q

side effects of danazol?

A

weight gain, acne and hirsutism. can also use bromocriptine and tamoxifen

362
Q

if bilateral milky discharge?

A

galactorrhoea, chceck prolactin levels for pituitary tumour

363
Q

what can cause symtomatic improvement in gynaecomastia?

A

tamixifen and danazol

364
Q

persistent breast access?

A

incise and drain

365
Q

periductal mastitis - hot to the touch, skin may appear reddened, breast is tender. treatment?

A

aspirate and antibiotics or incision and drainage

366
Q

common in who?

A

female smokers

367
Q

breasts lie between which ribs?

A

2 and 6

368
Q

lower part of breast overlies?

A

serratus anterior

369
Q

only technique that reliably shows micro calcifications?

A

mamography

370
Q

mamography - maximal contrast with minimal radiation dose

A

digital is much clearer, also better for dense breasts

371
Q

how should lymph nodes look?

A

oval/horseshoe with fatty hilum

372
Q

craniocaudal?

A

horizontal

373
Q

MLO, magnification views fr?

A

microcalcification

374
Q

scoring system used for fat in breasts?

A

BIRADS

375
Q

internal echo suggestive of?

A

malignancy

376
Q

hypoechoic - malignant cells absorb the radiation and there are no echoes back

A

benign can be hypo or hyper echoic

377
Q

wider than tall, well circumscribed, homogenous, no vascularity?

A

benign

378
Q

malignant?

A

poorly circumscribed, heterozygous, fat/oedema, speculated, hypoechoic

379
Q

why is MRI good?

A

no ionising radiation

380
Q

what imaging is used for screening in high risk?

A

MRI

381
Q

in younger women what is best imaging?

A

US

382
Q

in over 40s?

A

mammogram

383
Q

chemo can shrink tumour, some overall survival advantage for younger patients if chemo pre surgery

A

y

384
Q

radiotherapy reduces risk of local recurrence by?

A

2/3

385
Q

cardiac damage can be a late effect of radio)

A

chemo side effects - nausea and vomiting, infertility, alopecia, neutopaenia, mouth ulcers, lassitude (tired, no energy)

386
Q

what can be given in her 2 positive?

A

trastuzamab

387
Q

bony mets?

A

biphosphonates