Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Principles and Procedures > Bone, Cartilage and Soft Tissue Carcinoma > Flashcards

Bone, Cartilage and Soft Tissue Carcinoma Flashcards

1
Q

Skeletal system consists of?

A

Bone and Cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What function does bone and cartilage provide for the body?

A

Shape, Form and Ability to move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What structure is protected by the skeletal system?

A

Softer tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bones are reservoirs for what?

A

Fats, minerals and blood cell production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does extra-skeletal tissues provide?

A

Connection, Support and Locomotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most common pediatric skeletal malignancies and 2nd most common adult bone tumor?

A

Osteosarcomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common adult bone tumor?

A

Chondrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most commonly seen bone tumor in teenagers and young adults?

A

Ewings Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some suspected causes of bone and cartilage carcinomas?

A

Genetics (Suppressor genes linked to sarcomas), Higher birth weight/greater height (Correlates with osteosarcoma), Areas of prolonged growth and overstimulated metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some conditions that cause an overstimulation of metabolic activity?

A

Paget’s Disease, Hyperparathyroidism and Osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does paget’s disease contribute to bone and cartilage malignancies?

A

Disrupt old bone breakdown, which interferes with new bone formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does hyperparathyroidism contribute to bone and cartilage malignancies?

A

loss of calcium in the bone (Parathyroid regulates calcium in the blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does osteomyelitis contribute to bone and cartilage malignancies?

A

infection of the bone or bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some other etiologic factors contributing to bone and cartilage malignancies?

A

Radiation, Exposure to occupational isotopes, Chromosome defect in Ewing’s Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Radiation as an etiological factor can contribute to which malignancies?

A

Osteosarcomas, Chondrosarcomas, and Fibrosarcomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

With higher incidence occurring in children, the indicates what about these cancers?

A

greater occurrence in areas of rapid growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where are the most common sites for bone and cartilage malignancies?

A

Near growth plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a growth plate?

A

Area of rapid cellular proliferation in long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What two structure contain the largest growth plates?

A

Distal Femur and Proximal Tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Distal Femur and Proximal Tibia are the two most common sites of _______ bone tumors.

A

Primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the diaphysis?

A

Main shaft of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the epiphysis?

A

knoblike portions at either ends of the bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

hard dense covering of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 3 most common sites of osteosarcomas?

A

Distal Femur, Proximal Tibia and Proximal Humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 3 most common sites of chondrosarcomas?

A

Femur, Shoulder and Proximal Humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the most common sites of fibrosarcomas?

A

Tubular bones (Femur and Tibia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the most common sites of Ewing’s Sarcoma?

A

Lower half of the body, most commonly in the diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the most common sites of Multiple Myeloma?

A

Plasma Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the most common sites of Giant Cell tumor?

A

Metaphysis or Epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the most common sites of metastatic disease?

A

Vertebral Bodies, Pelvic Bones, Ribs, and sometimes widespread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most common symptoms of bone and cartilage carcinomas?

A

Pain, Swelling, Neurologic (if spine is involved), Palpable mass, Fever, Weight loss and Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pain in bone cancers usually correlates with what characteristic of the tumor?

A

Tumor Size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is radiograph able to detect about bone cancers?

A

Osteolytic vs Osteoblastic lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What modality is replacing CT and what does this examination display about the malignancy?

A

MRI and shows disease growth and neurovascular structure relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are two other examinations/test that can be done on bone cancers?

A

Bone scan and Technetium-99m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the importance of surgical biopsy in bone and cartilage malignancies?

A

able to determine the radiosensitivity of the cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What grading system is used for bone and cartilage malignancies?

A

AJCC system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In terms of grade, what does a G1 bone cancer mean?

A

Low grade cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In terms of grade, what does a G2 bone cancer mean?

A

High grade cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where do high grade sarcomas typically spread too and by what way?

A

Peripheral lung and hematougenously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Osteosarcomas spread to which structure and at what rate?

A

Lungs about 80% chance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the upsides to low grade sarcomas?

A

slow growing and easier to control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the downsides to low grade sarcomas?

A

can reoccur and become high grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Skip mets can occur in the spread on bone cancers. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What percentage of primary skeletal malignancies are osteosarcomas?

A

35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Osteosarcomas are sensitive and resistant to which type of treatments?

A

Chemosensitive and Radioresistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the preferred methods of treatment for osteosarcomas?

A

Chemotherapy and surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What percentage of patients receive amputations in the case of osteosarcomas?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the 5 year survival rate of osteosarcoma?

A

60-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Why is XRT an uncommon treatment method for Osteosarcomas?

A

Not effective cause they are radioresistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When is XRT used for osteosarcomas?

A

adjuvant for chemo for cancers that are unresectable, partial resected or positive margins

52
Q

What is the dosage given for osteosarcoma?

A

Post-op 55 Gy, but boost to 64-68 Gy

53
Q

What is the dosage given for unresectable osteosarcoma?

A

60-70 Gy

54
Q

What should be included in the treatment field for osteosarcomas?

A

include scar in the treatment and leave 1-3 cm of skin margin

55
Q

What is the purpose of the 1-3 cm margin on the skin?

A

To prevent edema and constrictive fibrosis

56
Q

Osteosarcomas are most commonly prevalent in what demographic?

A

<35 YO, tall people, 1:1 in children, 2:1 more common in males than female older than 15

57
Q

XRT is used in the treatment of osteosarcomas to contain the tumor and prevent lung mets. True or false?

A

True

58
Q

Chondrosarcomas arise from what element of the bones?

A

Mesenchymal

59
Q

Chondrosarcomas can occur in any cartilage forming bone. True or False?

A

True

60
Q

What are important prognostic factors for Chondrosarcomas?

A

Location and Grade

61
Q

Chondrosarcomas are radiosensitive and less aggressive. True or false?

A

False. Chondrosarcomas are radioresistant and also aggressive malignancies

62
Q

What is the treatment of choice for chondrosarcomas?

A

Surgery

63
Q

What are the dosages for chondrosarcomas?

A

20-50 Gy pre-op, 70-78 Gy post op

64
Q

What are the dosages for

unresectable chondrosarcomas?

A

70 Gy

65
Q

What type of tissues do fibrosarcomas typically occur in? Soft or Hard.

A

Soft tissue

66
Q

What percentage of primary bone tumors are fibrosarcomas?

A

less than 6%

67
Q

What is the preferred choice of treatment for fibrosarcoma’s?

A

aggressive surgery

68
Q

What is the doses given for fibrosarcoma’s?

A

66-70 Gy

69
Q

Fibrosarcoma’s are apart of what classification system?

A

Malignant Fibrous histiocytoma (MFH) Classification

70
Q

Malignant Fibrous histiocytoma (MFH) Classification categorizes what types of tumors?

A

tumors that affect bone and soft tissue

71
Q

What are giant cell tumors?

A

Tumors in the epiphysis of long bones

72
Q

What are characteristics of giant cell tumors?

A

Aggressive, benign, and destructive

73
Q

Giant cell tumors usually met. True or False?

A

False but they do recur

74
Q

What are the two treatment methods used for giant cell tumors?

A

Surgery and XRT

75
Q

What are the typical dosages for Giant cell tumors?

A

50-60 Gy

76
Q

What percentage of bone tumors are Ewing’s Sarcomas?

A

16%

77
Q

What structures are Ewing’s sarcomas most likely to occur?

A

bone and soft tissue

78
Q

Ewing’s sarcomas are chemo sensitive. True or false?

A

True

79
Q

What methods are used to treat Ewing’s Sarcomas?

A

Surgery, Chemotherapy and Radiation Therapy

80
Q

What is the goal in the treatment of Ewing’s Sarcomas?

A

Complete removal of disease and preservation of function

81
Q

When is XRT the typical treatment of Ewing’s Sarcomas?

A

For inoperable Ewing’s Sarcomas

82
Q

What is the dosage of Ewing’s Sarcomas XRT?

A

55-60 Gy, 45 Gy with surgery

83
Q

What margins are placed around the Ewing

Sarcoma during treatment?

A

2 cm margin around soft tissue, but entire bone are in the treatment volume

84
Q

Post-surgery for Ewing’s Sarcoma, what are the primary treatment considerations?

A

Scar and Prosthesis Seeding

85
Q

Soft tissue sarcomas are what type of tumor?

A

Malignant Extraskeletal Tumors

86
Q

What is the cell origin of Soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Mesenchymal

87
Q

What are the three properties that mesenchymal tissues provide?

A

Connection, Support and Locomotion

88
Q

Soft tissue sarcomas are less frequent that primary bone tumors. True or False?

A

False, they are more frequent

89
Q

What path do STS grow along?

A

Longitudinal axis, along the path of least resistance

90
Q

As STS grow, what occurs?

A

a pseudocapsule forms

91
Q

For intermediate and high grade STS, what is the most commonly seen method of spread?

A

Hematogenous spread

92
Q

Aside from hematogenous spread, what other spread is to be considered with STS in the abdominal region?

A

Retroperitoneal spread to the lung, liver and other abdominal structures

93
Q

Soft tissues sarcomas have high mortality rates. True or false?

A

True

94
Q

What is the age range which STS are most prevalent?

A

50-60s

95
Q

What are the four most common areas of the body in which STS are seen?

A

Extremities, Trunk, Retroperitoneum, and H&N

96
Q

What portion of the body has the highest occurrence of Soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Extremities, 60%

97
Q

What are 6 etiological factors that are associated with soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Genetic, Environmental, Viral infections, Neurofibromatosis, Industrial toxins, Agent Orange

98
Q

What is neurofibromatosis?

A

a genetic disorder that affects cell growth, causing tumors to grow on nerves

99
Q

STS can be linked to what?

A

Primitive Mesoderm

100
Q

How do Soft tissue sarcomas present clinically?

A

symptoms and diagnosis time period are site specific

101
Q

How many types of soft tissue sarcomas are there?

A

Over 50

102
Q

What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma?

A

(MLH) Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma, 28%

103
Q

What are the four other types of soft tissue sarcomas besides MFH?

A

Liposarcoma, Leiomyosarcoma, Synovial Sarcoma, Rhabdomyosarcoma

104
Q

What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma found in children?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

105
Q

What is the staging system used for soft tissue sarcomas?

A

FNCLCC

106
Q

What does the FNCLLS stand for?

A

French Federation of Cancer Centers Sarcoma Group

107
Q

What are three factors utilized in the FNCLSS staging process?

A

Differentiation, Mitotic Count and Necrosis; all factors are added together

108
Q

Where are STS most commonly aggressive in terms of site?

A

Aggressive along anatomically defined planes

109
Q

Aside from Hematologic spread, what is the other way of spread for STS?

A

Lymphatics

110
Q

What is the primary treatment of choice for STS?

A

Surgery, however it can be combined with chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy

111
Q

What are the types of radiotherapy that can be utilized for STS?

A

EBRT, IORT, Brachy and Combination methods

112
Q

Smaller soft tissue sarcomas tumors are typically candidates for radiotherapy. True or false?

A

False, larger tumors are typically common candidates for radiotherapy

113
Q

Aside from radiotherapy being utilized for larger tumors, what other characteristic of the tumor is also utilized for that criteria?

A

Tumors that incomplete resections

114
Q

What is the pre-op dosages for Soft tissue sarcomas?

A

50 Gy

115
Q

What is the post-op dosages for soft tissue sarcomas?

A

up to 70 Gy, usually only high grade tumors

116
Q

What is the in-op dosages for soft tissue sarcomas?

A

74-82 Gy IMRT or Protons

117
Q

What is common age range of occurrence for liposarcoma’s?

A

40-70 Yo

118
Q

Where are liposarcoma’s commonly prevalent?

A

Lower extremeties

119
Q

Where are Leiomyosarcoma commonly prevalent?

A

Uterus, Pelvis and Abdomen

120
Q

Synovial Sarcoma are commonly prevalent in what demographic of patients?

A

Young adults

121
Q

Rhabdomyosarcomas are one of the most common STS in children, where are they most commonly seen anatomically?

A

Extremities

122
Q

What other areas can rhabdomyosarcoma prevale?

A

H&N (around the eye), GU tract, Trunk

123
Q

Rhabdomyosarcomas are NOT aggressive tumors. True or False?

A

False, they are aggressive

124
Q

What methods are used for treatment in Rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

XRT, Chemo and Surgery

125
Q

What is the surgical procedure for Rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

Enucleation

126
Q

What is enucleation?

A

removal of the eye that leave the eye muscles and remain orbital contents intact

Principles and Procedures (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions