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OMM II > Board Review II > Flashcards

Board Review II Flashcards

1
Q

What happens to sidebending and rotation as you move down the C-spine?

A

Sidebending increases

Rotation decreases

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2
Q

What is the “Yes joint”?

A

OA

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3
Q

True or false: there is no disc between C1 and C2

A

True

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4
Q

What is the body of the axis (C2)?

A

Odontoid process (Dens)

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5
Q

What is the uncovertebral joint of Luschka? What is the clinical significance of these?

A

Lateral portion of vertebral bodies

Place of osteophyte formation

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6
Q

What are zygapophyseal joints?

A

Joint between the pillars

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7
Q

True or false: there are no type I SD in the cervical spine

A

True

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8
Q

True or false: since the OA has sidebending and rotational components in opposite directions, it is a type I SD

A

False

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9
Q

Why is the sidebending and rotational components to the same side with the C-spine?

A

Zygapophyseal joints

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10
Q

What is Spurling’s test?

A

Rotate and side bend to assess for nerve root impingement

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11
Q

What is the Wallenberg test?

A
  • Test for vertebral artery insufficiency

- Head and neck are held in extension-rotation for 30 seconds

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12
Q

Spine of scapula = what T level?

A

T3

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13
Q

Spinous process of T7 is found at what landmark?

A

Inferior angle of the scapula

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14
Q

8th rib is found by what landmark?

A

Inferior angle of the scapula points to it

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15
Q

Jugular notch = which spinal level?

A

T2

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16
Q

Angle of louis = which spinal level? Rib?

A

T4 (second rib)

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17
Q

What is the nipple dermatome?

A

T4

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18
Q

What is the umbilicus dermatome?

A

T10

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19
Q

What is the greatest amount of motion in the thoracic spine? Least?

A 
Greatest = rotation
Least = extension
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20
Q

What is the order of motions of the thoracic spine?

A

Rotation, side bending, flexion, extension

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21
Q

What vertebrae should be treated first with scoliosis?

A

The apex one

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22
Q

What is the difference between structural and functional scoliosis?

A

Structural = fixed

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23
Q

What is the Cobb angle?

A

Measure of the curvature of the spine

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24
Q

What is a moderate Cobb angle?

A

20-45 degrees

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25
Q

At what Cobb angle is respiratory function compromised? CV function?

A

Respiratory = 50

CV = 75

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26
Q

What are the true ribs? What makes them “true”?

A

1-7

Ribs with a direct attachment to the sternum

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27
Q

What are the false ribs? What makes them “false”?

A

8-12

Connect to the sternum through cartilage

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28
Q

What are the atypical ribs? What makes them “atypical”?

A

1, 2, 11-12

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29
Q

hat are the atypical ribs? What makes them “typical”?

A

3-9

Ribs that have 2 facets that articulate with the transverse process and the body of the vertebrae

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30
Q

What are the pump handle ribs?

A

1-5

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31
Q

What are the bucket handle ribs?

A

6-10

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32
Q

Bucket handle ribs increase what measurement of the rib cage with inhalation?

A

Transverse diameter

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33
Q

What is the muscle that is used in ME for rib 1?

A

Anterior/middle scalene

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34
Q

What is the muscle that is used in ME for rib 2?

A

Posterior scalene

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35
Q

What is the muscle that is used in ME for ribs 3-5?

A

Pec minor

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36
Q

What is the muscle that is used in ME for ribs 6-9?

A

Serratus anterior

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37
Q

What is the muscle that is used in ME for rib 10-12?

A

Lat dorsi if locked down

QL if locked up

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38
Q

What are the attachments of the diaphragm? (4)

A
  • lower 6 ribs
  • L1-3 on the right
  • L1-L2 on the left
  • XIphoid process
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39
Q

Which spinal vertebrae is the most commonly deformed? What deformity is most common?

A
  • L5

- Facet tropism (asymmetry of the facet joints)

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40
Q

What is the batwing deformity?

A

Sacralization of L5

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41
Q

What is Ferguson’s angle?

A

The lumbosacral angle

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42
Q

A ferguson’s angle over what leads to increased pain in the lumbar spine?

A

30 degrees

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43
Q

What is the nerve that is tested with heel walk?

44
Q

What is the nerve root that is tested with the toe walk?

45
Q

What is psoas syndrome?

A

Tight psoas causes the pelvis to sideshift to opposite side of the contracture

46
Q

Where do SDs manifest with psoas syndrome?

47
Q

What is the thomas test?

A

Test for psoas contracture

-Patient supine, flexes hip so knee and anterior thigh touches the abdomen. Contracture will cause contralateral leg to lift off the table

48
Q

What is the hip drop test?

A

The hip that drops the least is the side to which the lumbar spine is sidebent

49
Q

What is the innervation of the gluteus medius/minimus?

A

Superior gluteal nerve (L5, L4, S1)

50
Q

A posterior innominate rotation will cause an apparent deep sacral sulcus on the contralateral or ipsilateral side?

A

Ipsilateral

51
Q

An anterior innominate rotation will cause an apparent deep sacral sulcus on the contralateral or ipsilateral side?

A

Ipsilateral

52
Q

Where do all the important things happen in the sacrum?

53
Q

What is sacral nutation? Counternutation?

A 
Nutation = flexion
Counter = extension
54
Q

The seated flexion test will be positive on the same or opposite side the that the SI joint is “stuck”?

55
Q

What determines a positive seated flexion, the side that moves first, or the side that moves farthest?

56
Q

A positive seated flexion test is alway the same or opposite the sacral axis?

A

Opposite

e.g. left on left = left rotation on a left axis

57
Q

Which part of the sacral diagnosis identifies the axis that the sacrum moves about?

A

The second part (e.g. left on left = left rotation on a left axis)

58
Q

What side is the seated flexion test in a unilateral flexion?

59
Q

What side is the seated flexion test in a L on L FST?

60
Q

What side is the seated flexion test in a L on R FST?

61
Q

If the sphinx test is positive, what does this mean?

A

The sacral base if posterior

62
Q

If the sphinx test is negative, what does this mean?

A

Sacral base is anterior

63
Q

If there is a FST, what happens to L5?

64
Q

If there is a BST, what happens to L5?

A

Flex or extends

65
Q

Bother ILA posterior,both sulci deep = ?

A

Bilateral sacral flexion, or sacral base anterior

66
Q

Bother ILA anterior ,both sulci shallow = ?

A

Bilateral sacral extension

67
Q

What is the order of the 7 stages of spencer?

A
  • Extension
  • Flexion
  • Circumduction w/o traction
  • Circumduction w/ traction
  • Abduction/adduction
  • Internal rotation
  • Abduction with traction
68
Q

Why are the 7 stages of spencer in the order that they’re in?

A

Goes from easiest to hardest in terms of shoulder movements, to help isolate the problems with the shoulder

69
Q

What does the arm drop test assess for?

A

Rotator cuff tear

70
Q

What does Yergason’s test assess for?

A

Bicep tendonitis or to check for the stability of the biceps tendon in the groove

71
Q

What is the Speed’s test for?

A

Biceps tendonitis

72
Q

What is the apprehension test?

A

Chronic shoulder dislocations

73
Q

What does the first motion of the Apley scratch test assess?

A

Flexion
Adduction
Internal rotation

74
Q

What does the second motion of the Apley scratch test assess?

A

Flexion
Abduction
External rotation

75
Q

What does the third motion of the Apley scratch test assess?

A

Extension
Adduction
Internal rotation

76
Q

What is the innervation of the serratus anterior?

A

Long thoracic nerve

77
Q

What is the scapulo-humeral rhythm?

A

2:1 movement of the glenohumeral joint:scapular rotation

78
Q

What is the test for anterior/middle scalene syndrome?

A

Adson’s test–The loss of the radial pulse in the arm by rotating head to the ipsilateral side with extended neck following deep inspiration. It is sometimes used as a sign of thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS).

79
Q

What is the test for pectoralis minor outlet syndrome?

A

Hyperabduction test

80
Q

What is the test for a cervical rib causing thoracic outlet syndrome?

81
Q

What is the test for a 1st rib and clavicle caused thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

Military test

82
Q

What is the carrying angles for men and women respectively? What is the significance of this?

A 
Men = 5 degrees
Women = 10-15 degrees

Women more likely to get a posterior radial head

83
Q

Posterior fat pad at the elbow = ?

A

Intraarticular fracture

84
Q

Hand adduction causes what motion at the ulna?

A

Ulnar abduction

85
Q

Hand abduction causes what motion at the ulna?

A

Ulnar adduction

86
Q

What does Finkelstein’s test assess for?

A

Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis inflammation (deQuervain’s tenosynovitis)

87
Q

What is the most commonly fractured bone in the hand? What is the test for this?

A

Scaphoid

Snuffbox TTP

88
Q

What is the most commonly dislocated bone in the wrist?

89
Q

The term glide refers to what?

A

The freedom of motion in a joint

90
Q

What are the three muscles that insert at the pes anserine?

A

Sartorius
Gracilis
SemiTendinosus
(SGT)

91
Q

Is the knee more stable in extension or flexion?

92
Q

What are the components of the terrible (O’Donoghue’s) triad?

A

MCL
ACL
Medial meniscus

93
Q

What is the ME treatment for a posterior fibular head? What is the muscle that is utilized to treat this?

A
  • Have patient dorsiflex and evert the foot
  • Peroneal

(PED)

94
Q

What is the ME treatment for an anterior fibular head?

A
  • Have pt plantarflex and evert the foot
  • Soleus

(APE)

95
Q

What is the Q angle?

A

Line measured from the ASIS to the patella, and then from the patella through the midline of the tibia

96
Q

What is a normal Q angle?

A

10-12 degrees

97
Q

What is the bone that is present in both the medial and lateral arches?

98
Q

What is Morton’s syndrome?

A

Short 1st metatarsal

99
Q

What is Morton’s neuroma?

A

Nerve impingement usually between the 3rd and 4th metatarsals

100
Q

What is the spring ligament in the foot?

A

Calcaneonavicular ligament

101
Q

What are the s/sx of cuboid SDs?

A

Decreased motion of the 4th and 5th metatarsal

102
Q

What are the s/sx of navicular SDs?

A
  • Decreased motion of the 1st and 2nd toes

- Dropped medial arch

103
Q

What is/are the ligament(s) that are damaged in a grade 1 ankle sprain?

A

Anterior talofibular

104
Q

What is/are the ligament(s) that are damaged in a grade 2 ankle sprain?

A

ATF and calcaneofibular

105
Q

What is/are the ligament(s) that are damaged in a grade 3 ankle sprain?

A

ATF
CF
Posterior talofibular

106
Q

What is a high ankle sprain?

A

Involves the syndesmosis between the tibia and the fibula

107
Q

What is the Thompson test?

A

Absence of the foot-plantar flexion motion with contraction of the soleus–indicates a ruptured achilles tendon

OMM II (43 decks)

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