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OMM II > Board Review I > Flashcards

Board Review I Flashcards

1
Q

What is the technical definition of a SD?

A

impaired or altered function of any part of the soma

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2
Q

What is the only way to diagnose SDs?

A

Palpation

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3
Q

What are the components of TART? Which are the two most important?

A

TTP
Asymmetry
Restricted ROM
Tissue texture changes

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4
Q

How many components of TART are needed for a SD diagnosis?

A

2 or more, but if TTP, then need 3

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5
Q

Acute or chronic tissue texture changes:

  • Edema
  • Erythema
  • Cool
  • Dry
  • boggy
  • ropy
  • tension
A
  • Edema (acute)
  • Erythema (acute)
  • Cool (chronic)
  • Dry (chronic)
  • boggy (acute)
  • ropy (chronic)
  • tense (chronic)
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6
Q

How does asymmetry found in acute SDs compare to those found in chronic?

A
  • Acute = single one present

- Chronic = present with other compensatory changes

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7
Q

Which has painful RROM acute or chronic SDs?

A

Acute–chronic has painless RROM

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8
Q

Which has sharp pain, and which has dull/achy pain: acute or chronic SDs?

A 
Sharp = acute
Chronic = dull/achy
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9
Q

When naming vertebrals SDs, how are they named: with respect to the segment above or below?

A

Below

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10
Q

What is elastic deformation?

A

The quality of the tissue to return to its resting state after being deformed

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11
Q

What is hysteresis?

A

The time between elasticity and creep

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12
Q

What is creep?

A

The capacity of fascia to lengthen when subjected to a constant tension load, resulting in less resistance to a second load application

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13
Q

What is an elastic barrier?

A

The difference between anatomic and physiologic

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14
Q

What is a restrictive barrier?

A

the functional limit within the anatomic ROM which abnormally diminishes the normal physiologic ROM

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15
Q

What are the muscles that maintain type I SDs? Type II?

A

Type I = Long restrictors

Type II = Short restrictors

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16
Q

How does rotation occur with type I vs type II SD in regard to the rotation into the convexity/concavity

A

Type I = rotation into the convexity

Type II = rotation into the concavity

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17
Q

Which is caused by postural problems, and which traumatic problems: type I vs Type II SDs?

A

Type I = postural

Type II = traumatic

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18
Q

What is the third law of physiologic motion?

A

Inducing motion in one plane reduces the motion in the other two planes

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19
Q

How are the superior facets oriented in the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar spinal vertebrae?

A

BUM
BUL
BUM

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20
Q

What are the four major CNs that are a part of the PNS?

A

3
7
9
10

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21
Q

True or false: manipulation of the organ will cause nerves to travel back up into the brain

A

True?

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22
Q

What are the components of the plumb line?

A
  • Posterior aspect of the coronal suture
  • External auditory meatus
  • Shoulder joint
  • Posterior aspect of the hip
  • Anterior axis of knee
  • Anterior to lateral malleolus
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23
Q

What sacral axis is being utilized with the walking cycle?

A

Oblique axis on the ipsilateral side of the planted foot

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24
Q

What way does the lumbar spine side bend to with a stride?

A

Ipsilateral to the planted side

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25
Q

What is the goal of the biomechanical model of osteopathic care?

A

Attempt to prevent/relieve pain

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26
Q

What is the goal of the neurological model of osteopathic care?

A

Attempt to normalize the nervous system

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27
Q

What is the goal of the behavioral model of osteopathic care?

A

Attempt to break the pain-anxiety-pain cycle

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28
Q

What is the goal of the bioenergetic (metabolic) model of osteopathic care?

A

Attempt to balance the inherent energies of the body

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29
Q

What is the goal of the RC model of osteopathic care?

A

-Improve thoracic diaphragm and cage motion

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30
Q

Review 12 CCP points

A

Review

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31
Q

What are the components of the V-FIRST mnemonic?

A 
Vascular
Fracture
Infx
Radicular 
Spinal
Tumor
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32
Q

What are indirect techniques?

A

barrier is disengaged and moved to a point of balance

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33
Q

Direct or indirect: HVLA

A

Direct

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34
Q

Direct or indirect: ME

35
Q

Direct or indirect: S/CS

36
Q

Direct or indirect: articulatory

37
Q

Direct or indirect: LVMA

38
Q

Direct or indirect: Cranial

39
Q

Direct or indirect: Still

40
Q

Direct or indirect: BLT

41
Q

Direct or indirect: Visceral

42
Q

Direct or indirect: FPR

43
Q

Direct or indirect: soft tissue

44
Q

Intrinsic or extrinsic: HV/LA

45
Q

Intrinsic or extrinsic: ME

46
Q

Intrinsic or extrinsic: Still

47
Q

Intrinsic or extrinsic: S/CS

48
Q

Intrinsic or extrinsic: Cranial

49
Q

Intrinsic or extrinsic: Myofascial

50
Q

Intrinsic or extrinsic: Springing

51
Q

Intrinsic or extrinsic: articulatory

52
Q

What is the only technique that is has no passive component to it?

53
Q

True or false: there are specific joint corrections with soft tissue techniques

54
Q

What is Dalyrmple treatment?

A

lymphatic pumping

55
Q

What is the technique that uses: stroking movement to move fluids

A

Effleurage

56
Q

What is the technique that uses: deep kneading or squeezing to express swelling

A

Petrissage

57
Q

What is the technique that uses: striking of a belly muscle to increase its tone/arterial perfusion

A

tapotement

58
Q

What is the technique that uses: Striking of the skin with cupped hands to loosen material

59
Q

What is the part of the ME technique that actually corrects the SD: the active part of the patient, or the passive part of the osteopath

A

Passive part of the osteopath

60
Q

What is isometric, isotonic, and isolytic ME?

A
  • Isometric= same length
  • Isotonic = same tension
  • Isolytic = Broken
61
Q

What is concentric contraction?

A

Contraction where the O and I of a muscle approximate

62
Q

What is eccentric contraction?

A

Contraction where the O and I of a muscle separate or lengthen

63
Q

What is the oculocephalogyric reflex?

A

Functional muscle groups are contracted in response to the voluntary eye motion to reflexively affect the cervical and truncal musculature

64
Q

Why is OMT contraindicated with Down syndrome pts?

A

Laxity of the transverse alar ligaments of the atlas

65
Q

What area should not have HV/LA performed on in with RA pts?

66
Q

Why is it that ribs tender points need to be held for 120 seconds, as opposed to the usual 90 seconds for everyone else?

A

Ribs are never truly fully relaxed d/t need to breathe

67
Q

What is the general S/CS movement that is done with the cervicals?

A

Flex, SARA

68
Q

What is the purpose of treating Chapman’s points?

A

Reduce adverse sympathetic influences on particular organs

69
Q

Are the collateral ganglia a part of the SNS or the PNS?

70
Q

Which abdominal ganglion does the pancreas belong to: celiac, superior, or inferior mesenteric ganglion?

A

Celiac and the superior

71
Q

What is the definition of a Myofascial trigger points?

A

Hypersensitive area of focus

72
Q

Flexion of the SBS causes what movement of the sacrum?

A

Base moves posterior/superior

73
Q

Extension of the SBS causes what movement of the sacrum?

A

Base moves anterior/inferior

74
Q

Inhalation is paired with flexion or extension of the midline cranial bones? What happens to the paired bones with this?

A

Flexion

External rotation

75
Q

Does flexion or extension increase the transverse diameter of the skull?

76
Q

Does flexion or extension increase the A-P diameter of the skull?

77
Q

What are the 5 components of the PRI?

A
  1. Inherent motility of the CNS
  2. Fluctuation of the CSF
  3. Mobility of the reciprocal tension membrane
  4. Articular mobility of the cranial bones
  5. Mobility of the sacrum between the ilia
78
Q

Where is the 2nd and 5th finger in the vault hold?

A

2nd = greater wing of the sphenoid

5th = lateral angle of the occiput

79
Q

High pitched and low pitched tinnitus is paired with which type or rotation respectively?

A 
High = internal 
Low = external
80
Q

HAs are generally on which side of the head compared to the wing of the sphenoid?

A

Low wing of the sphenoid

81
Q

What is the Wagon-=tongue vomer used to treat?

82
Q

What is the “core link” of cranial?

A

Dural connection of occiput and sacrum

83
Q

What is the Galbreath technique?

A

Lymphatic drainage technique for facial sinus pressure where direct stroking of the frontonasal, maxillary, zygomatic bones and TMJ

OMM II (43 decks)

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