Block 31 Pharmacology Flashcards

Question

dabigatran CI?

Answer 1

- Antiphospholipid syndrome - active bleeding - do not use for prosthetic heart valve

Answer 2

- haemorrhage - abn hepatic function - nausea, diarrhoea, GI discomfort

Answer 3

- anti-phospholipid syndrome - bleeding/ risk of bleeding - prosthetic HV

Answer 4

- anemia - haemorrhage - nausea - skin reacrions

Answer 5

- hypotension - menorrhagia - oedema - renal impairment

Answer 6

- Furosemide - Bumetanide

Answer 7

- Acute pulmonary oedema, - chronic heart failure, - diuretic resistant oedema, - resistant hypertension

Answer 8

- reduce sodium chloride reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. - This is achieved by inhibiting the Na-K-2Cl carrier

Answer 9

- anuria - severe hypokalaemia - severe hyponatreamia

Answer 10

- dangerous in severe CV disease and in patients also being treated w cardiac glycosides

Answer 11

- metabolic alkalosis - dizziness - muscle spasms

Answer 12

- Amiloride - Spironolactone

Answer 13

- Amiloride blocks the epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) in the late distal tubule, - > reduced sodium abs and reduced potassium excretion

Answer 14

- addisons - anuria - hyperkalaemia

Answer 15

- angina - arrythmia - AV block exacerbation - gout

Answer 16

- Prevention of hypokalaema alongside a loop or thiazide diuretic [e.g. amiloride] - oedema in cirrhosis of liver, - severe heart failure,

Answer 17

aldosterone antagonists

Answer 18

- aldosterone antagonist - promotes sodium and water excretion and potassium retention.

Answer 19

- AKI - agranulocytosis - breast neoplasm benign - hyperkalaemia - discontinue

Answer 20

"Atenolol Propranolol Bisoprolol"

Answer 21

- Angina - hypertension - myocardial infarction - arrhythmias - heart failure, -symptomatic relief of thyrotoxicosis, - prophylaxis of migraine

Answer 22

- ASTHMA - hypotension - bradycardia - prinzmetal's angina - AV block and SSS - PAD

Answer 23

- bradycardia - ED - heart failure - PVD

Answer 24

- atenolol - bisoprolol

Answer 25

- propanolol - timolol

Answer 26

- Amlodipine - Felodipine - Diltiazem - Verapamil

Answer 27

- binds to and blocks L type calcium channels - calcium can't enter cells -> vasodilation and decreased BP

Answer 28

- anti-hypertensive properties - potent vasodilaor - amlodepine

Answer 29

- verapamil - diltiazem

Answer 30

- Headache - Flushing - Dizziness - Peripheral oedema - Reduced cardiac contractility - Constipation

Answer 31

- Hypertension, arrhythmias [e.g. verapamil] - angina

Answer 32

- Cardiogenic shock - sig AS - unstable angina - hypotension - AV block

Answer 33

- Chronic heart failure, - hypertension, - diabetic nephropathy, - prophylaxis of cardiovascular events

Answer 34

- reduced aldosterone secretion - reduced Na+ and water retention - reduced ADH - reduced water reabs - reduced vasoconstriction - reduced sympathetic activity

Answer 35

- dry cough - due to increase in bradykinin within the lungs (ACE breaks down bradykinin).

Answer 36

- Headache - Postural hypotension - Rashes - Angio-oedema - Strongly teratogenic

Answer 37

- angioedema - AKI - First dose hypertension

Answer 38

Losartan & Candesartan

Answer 39

- prevention of angiotensin II binding causes vascular smooth muscle relaxation, lowering blood pressure

Answer 40

- Chronic heart failure, - hypertension, - diabetic nephropathy

Answer 41

- with aliskiren for AKI and DM

Answer 42

- abd pain - cough - hyperkalaemia - postural hypertension

Answer 43

- Doxazosin - Tamsulosin (benign prostatic hyperplasia)"

Answer 44

- blockage of alpha 1 receptors - Reduced arteriolar tone - lowering peripheral vascular resistance. - Venous dilation - reducing venous return and cardiac output.

Answer 45

- Postural hypotension - Headaches - Dizziness - Nausea - Rhinitis - Urinary frequency

Answer 46

- micturition syncope (in patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy); - postural hypotension - doxasocin: overflow bladder or anuria

Answer 47

- Resistant hypertension, - prostatic hyperplasia

Answer 48

reduction of CV risk

Answer 49

"Simvastatin Atorvastatin Rosuvastatin"

Answer 50

- competitively inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase - reduction of LDL cholestrol

Answer 51

Risk factors for muscle toxicity, including myopathy or rhabdomyolysis

Answer 52

- arthralgia - GI discomfort - thrombocytopenia - muscle complaints

Answer 53

- Bezafibrate - Fenofibrate

Answer 54

reduction of CV risk

Answer 55

- Activating PPARs induces the transcription of a number of genes that facilitate lipid metabolism. - inhibit hepatic synthesis of triglycerides

Answer 56

- GB disease - hypoalbuminaemia - nephrotic syndrome

Answer 57

- decreased appetite - GI disorder

Answer 58

reduction of CV risk

Answer 59

- blocks NPC1L1 receptor - cholesterol abs inhibitor - reduces total cholesterol, LDL, Ao-B

Answer 60

- asthenia - GI discomfort

Answer 61

- Unfractionated heparin - Dalteparin - Fondaparinux

Answer 62

- Prevention of venous thromboembolism, -treatment of DVT and PE, - myocardial infarction, - unstable coronary disease

Answer 63

- forms a complex wth AT preventing fibrin formation - inhibition of several activated blood coagulation factors: thrombin (factor IIa), factor IXa, Xa, XIa and XIIa

Answer 64

- inc antithombin III activity - which inhibits factor 2A, and 10A

Answer 65

- selectively INHIBITS FACTOR 10 - Inhibits thrombin formation

Answer 66

active bleeding and bacterial endocarditis

Answer 67

anemia and haemorrhage

Answer 68

- bac endocarditis - haemophilia/ other haemorrhagic disorders - recent surgery - thrombocytopenia

Answer 69

- Haemorrhage - heparin-induced thrombocytopenia - skin reactions

Answer 70

- Ischaemic heart disease, - angina, - hypertension, - myocardial infarction, - arrhythmias, heart failure, - anxiety conditions, - symptomatic relief of thyrotoxicosis, -prophylaxis of migraine

Answer 71

- beta 2 blockage -> decreased peripheral resistance - reduces occular pressure by decreases AH secretion

Answer 72

- Bisoprolol and Carvedilol

Answer 73

- BBs - CCBs - nitrates - nicronadil - ivabradine - ransolazine

Answer 74

- Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) - Isosorbide dinitrate

Answer 75

- relaxation of vascular SM -> vasodilation - converted to NO

Answer 76

- aortic stenosis - constrictive pericarditis - hypertrophic cardiomyopathy - mitral stenosis - raised ICP

Answer 77

toxic pulmonary oedema

Answer 78

- arrhythmias - flushing - cerebral ischaemia - hypotension

Answer 79

- relaxes vascular SM by increasing CGMP levels - activates potassium channels causing hyperpolarization -> vasodilation

Answer 80

- acute Pulm oedema - LV dysfunction - severe hypotension - shock and hypovolaemia

Answer 81

- vasodilation - headache - espec on initation - Flushing - Anal ulceration

Answer 82

- lowers heart rate and reduces oxygen demand in the heart - selectively inhibits funny channel pacemaker current in SAN

Answer 83

- acute MI - second and third degree AV block, SSS - severe hypotension - unstable angina - acute HF

Answer 84

* visual effects, particular luminous phenomena, are common * headache * bradycardia, heart block

Answer 85

- inhibits sodium and potassium ion channel currents. - vasodilator

Answer 86

- severe congestive hF - QT interval prolongation

Answer 87

- asthenia - constipation - headache - vomiting

Answer 88

- Aspirin - Clopidogrel - Ticagrelor - Dipyridamole - Tirofiban

Answer 89

- Secondary prevention of cardiovascular events, - prevention of atherothrombotic events post PCI

Answer 90

- irreversible inhibition of COX-1 - which is needed to make precursors of thromboxane within platelets - thromboxane needed for platelet aggregation

Answer 91

- acute PUD - bleeding - under 16s - risk of Reye's syndrome - severe cardiac failure - analgesic dose

Answer 92

- dyspepsia - haemorrhage

Answer 93

hyperventilation, tinnitus, deafness, vasodilatation, and sweating

Answer 94

- inhibition of P12Y12 ADP receptors on platelets preventing aggregation - ticagrelor reversibly inhibits

Answer 95

- diarrhoea - GI discomfory - haemorrhage - skin reactions

Answer 96

****- gout and hyperuricaemia**** - hypotension - syncope - dysponea

Answer 97

- inhibits function of phosphodiesterase and adenosine deaminase - prevents cAMP degradation - which is an inhibitor of platelet function

Answer 98

- lV outflow obst - HF - myasthenia gravis - recent MI

Answer 99

- angina - myalgia - vomiting - skin reactions

Answer 100

- reversible, competitive inhibitor of GP IIb/IIIa receptors, - exerting its effects via the prevention of the binding of fibrinogen

Answer 101

- Abn bleeding, haemorrhagic stroke - inc INR - thrombocytopenia - severe HTN

Answer 102

- ecchymosis - fever - haemorrhage - thrombocytopenia

Answer 103

Thrombolysis in STEMI and massive pulmonary embolism

Answer 104

- Alteplase - Tenecteplase

Answer 105

- converts plasminogen to the proteolytic enzyme plasmin, which lyses fibrin as well as fibrinogen

Answer 106

- Acute panc - bacterial endocarditis - recent surgery - severe HTN

Answer 107

- anaphylactic reactions - angina - cardiac arrest - ecchymosis - pericarditis - pulm oedema

Answer 108

Heart failure, supraventricular arrhythmias [AF and atrial flutter]

Answer 109

- increase force of contraction - by reversibly inhibiting Na-K ATPase pump - causes inc in IC sodium which causes influx of calcium - increases contractility and cardiac output

Answer 110

- vagomimetic effects - stimulates PSNS slowing electrical conduction, decreasing HR

Answer 111

- constrictive pericarditis - hypertrophic cardiomyopathy - complete HB, second degree block - SV arrhythmias like WPW, ventricular tachycardias or fibrillaion

Answer 112

- arrythmias - cerbebral impairment - vision disorders - gynaenomastia

Answer 113

- Amiodarone - Lidocaine - Flecainide - Sotalol - Adenosine - Atropine

Answer 114

- Salbutamol - Terbutaline - Salmeterol - Formoterol

Answer 115

asthma, copd

Answer 116

- short acting b2 agonist - potent SM relaxant properities -> inhibits bronchial SM contraction

Answer 117

- QT prolongation - diabetes - hyperglycaemia and ketoacidosis - CV disease - hyperthyroidism

Answer 118

hypokalaemia - Particular caution is required in severe asthma or COPD, because this effect may be potentiated by concomitant treatment with theophylline, corticosteroids, diuretics, and by hypoxia.

Answer 119

- arrhythmias - headache - palpitations - tremor

Answer 120

- beta 2 agonist - bronchodilator | SABA

Answer 121

- hypokalaemia - hypotension - muscle spasms - MI: rarely

Answer 122

- hypokalaemia w asthma - In patients with diabetes, monitor blood glucose (risk of hyperglycaemia and ketoacidosis, especially when beta2 agonist given intravenously).

Answer 123

- Ipratropium - Tiotropium

Answer 124

- ACh antagonist - muscarinic - SM relaxation in airways - SAMA

Answer 125

- bladder outflow obst - paradoxical bronchospasm - prostatic hyperplasia - susceptibility to angle closure glaucoma

Answer 126

Acute angle-closure glaucoma has been reported with nebulised ipratropium, particularly when given with nebulised salbutamol (and possibly other beta2 agonists); care needed to protect the patient's eyes from nebulised drug or from drug powder.

Answer 127

clozapine - both have antimuscarinic effects

Answer 128

- arrhythmias - constipation - cough - dizziness - dry mouth

Answer 129

- Aminophylline - Modified release theophylline - Asthma and COPD

Answer 130

- inhibits phosphodiesterase - PDE - results in bronchodilation - Theophylline also binds to the adenosine A2B receptor and blocks adenosine mediated bronchoconstriction.

Answer 131

- arrhythmias following rapid IV injection - elderly - epilepsy - peptic ulcer - risk of hypokalaemia

Answer 132

- abd pain - arrhythmia (more common when given too rapidly by intravenous injection) - delirium - confusion - hypotension - mania

Answer 133

- Theophylline drugs in overdose can cause vomiting (which may be severe and intractable), agitation, restlessness, dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, and hyperglycaemia. - More serious effects are haematemesis, convulsions, and supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias. - Severe hypokalaemia may develop rapidly.

Answer 134

- anx - diarrhoea - hyperuricaemia - palpitations - urinary disoeders

Answer 135

- plasma monitoring required - Plasma-theophylline concentration is measured 5 days after starting oral treatment and at least 3 days after any dose adjustment. - A blood sample should usually be taken 4–6 hours after an oral dose of a modified-release preparation

Answer 136

- Beclometasone - Fluticasone - COPD and asthma

Answer 137

- avoid live virus vaccines in those receiving immunosuppressive doses (serum antibody response diminished) - systemic infection (unless specific therapy given)

Answer 138

- amiodarone - amphotericin B - apiprazole

Answer 139

- headache - oral candidasis - pneumonia in COPD patients - altered taste - voice alteration

Answer 140

- use spacer device - rinsing the mouth with water after inhalation of a dose

Answer 141

throat irritation

Answer 142

- inc transcription of IL10 - Supress inflammatory gene activation by promoting histone deacetylation -> tighter coiling of DNA -> reduced transcription

Answer 143

- Mild bronchospasm may be prevented by inhalation of a short-acting beta2 agonist beforehand (or by transfer from an aerosol inhalation to a dry powder inhalation).

Answer 144

- arthralgia - nausea - rash

Answer 145

- inhibits degranulation of mast cells - preventing release of histamine and mediators of type 1 allergic reactions - reduces inflammatory leukotrienes

Answer 146

- leukotriene receptor antagonist - asthma

Answer 147

- neuropsychiatric reactions - speech impairmenet - OCD

Answer 148

clopidogrel

Answer 149

- diarrhoea - GI discomfort - skin reactions - URTI

Answer 150

- Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome) has occurred very rarely in association with the use of montelukast; in many of the reported cases the reaction followed the reduction or withdrawal of oral corticosteroid therapy. - development of eosinophilia, vasculitic rash, worsening pulmonary symptoms, cardiac complications, or peripheral neuropathy.

Answer 151

- Amoxicillin - Co-amoxiclav - Clarithromycin - Doxycycline - Cefuroxime

Answer 152

- comp inhibition of PBP-1 - Which are resp for cross linkage of subunits in the cell wall

Answer 153

- allergy - lymphocytic leukemia - cytomeg virus - glandular fever - inc risk of rashes w these ^

Answer 154

- methotrexate - warfarin

Answer 155

- diarrhoea - hypersenitivity - thrombocytopenia - vomitinh - nausea

Answer 156

- agranulocytosis - angioedema - haemolytic anemia - nephritis

Answer 157

Diarrhoea frequently occurs during oral penicillin therapy. It is most common with broad-spectrum penicillins, which can cause antibiotic-associated colitis.

Answer 158

- clavanic acid is a beta lactamase inhibitor used to enhance effectiveness of beta lactam ab

Answer 159

- history of C-A associated jaundice or hepatoc dysfunction - history of penicillin assoc jaundice/ dysfunction

Answer 160

- inc infection risk - dyspepsia - dizziness

Answer 161

- macrolide - 50s inhibitors

Answer 162

- Electrolyte disturbances (predisposition to QT interval prolongation) - may aggravate myasthenia gravis - predisposition to QT interval prolongation

Answer 163

- atorvastatin: rhabdo - betamethasone - bromocriptine - buspirone - carbamazepine

Answer 164

- dec appetite - dizziness - hearing imp - pancreatitis - vasodilation - vision disorders

Answer 165

- burping - dry mouth - muscle complaints - oral disorders - tremor - tooth and urine discoloration

Answer 166

- agranulocytosis - depersonalisation - depression - mania - psychotic disorder

Answer 167

- alc dependence - 8 -11 yrs kids bc it deposits in growing bone and teeth, by binding to calcium, causes staining and occasionally dental hypoplas

Answer 168

- alcohol - ciclosporin - dalteparin - lithium

Answer 169

- panc - angiodema - pericaritis - photosensitivity reactions

Answer 170

- hypotension - tachy - dyspnoea - peripheral oedema - tooth discoloration

Answer 171

- 30s inhibition - tetracyclne

Answer 172

- cephlasporin (beta lactam) - broad spectrum - binds to PBPs, prevents cell wall synthesis -> autolysins destroy the cell wall

Answer 173

- abd pain - eosinophilia - leucopenia - pseudomembranous enterocolitis;

Answer 174

inc risk of infection

Answer 175

- Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) - Isosorbide dinitrate

Answer 176

Off loading in severe heart failure with significant hypertension

Answer 177

- aortic stenosis - cardiac tamponade - hypotension - hypovolaemia - raised ICP - pulm oedema

Answer 178

- HF due to obstruction - cardioversion - recent MI - hypothermia - hypothyroidism - tolerance

Answer 179

- usually long acting/ transdermal nitrates

Answer 180

slidenafil - hypotension risk

Answer 181

- asthenia - cerebral ischemia - headache - flushing - nausea - vomiting - hypotension

Answer 182

- converted to NO - potent vasodilator - relazation of SM in blood vessels

Answer 183

peripheral oedema

Answer 184

- Amiodarone - Lidocaine - Flecainide - Sotalol - Adenosine - Atropine

Answer 185

- Amiodarone - Lidocaine - Flecainide - Sotalol - Adenosine - Atropine

Answer 186

Ventricular arrhythmias, supraventricular arrhythmias

Answer 187

- class 3 antiarrythmic - blocks potassium currents preventing repolasirsation - inc duration of AP as well as refractory period - reduced cardiac excitability

Answer 188

- vent fib or pulseless VT - arrythmias

Answer 189

- severe conduction disorders - SAN disease - iodine sensitivity - sinus bradycardia unless in cardiac arrest - thryoid dysfunction

Answer 190

- arrhytmias - hepatic disorders - hyperthyroidism - resp disorders

Answer 191

- CP resus as an alt to amiodarone - vent arrythmias - anaesthesia

Answer 192

- severe myocardial dispression - SAN disorders - AV block

Answer 193

- AV block - cardiac arrest - methamoglobinaemia

Answer 194

- blocks sodium channels prolonging refractory period and shortening duration of potentials - prevents potassium channels from opening

Answer 195

- SVT - vent arrhytmias

Answer 196

- BBB - abn function - history of mI - heart failure

Answer 197

- BB - amiodarone

Answer 198

- arrhythmias - dizziness - fever - oedema - QT prolongation

Answer 199

- QT prolongation - avoid hypokalaemia and hypomag

Answer 200

- tachyarrythmias - Life-threatening arrhythmias including ventricular tachyarrhythmias

Answer 201

- Asthma - cardiogenic shock - hypotension - PAD

Answer 202

long QT and torsades de pointes

Answer 203

- chest pain - arrhythmia - sexual dysfunction - torsades - inc risk in females

Answer 204

- B1 blockage - blocks K channels slowing repolarisation and lengthening QT interval -> class three agent

Answer 205

- asthma - COPD - long QT - AV block

Answer 206

- abd discomfort - AV block - chest pain - discontinue - hypotension - discontinue

Answer 207

- agonism of adenosine A1 and A2 receptors reduces conduction time in the AVN - by inducing potassium efflux and inhibiting calcium influx - dec condution time -> antiarrythmic effecr

Answer 208

muscarinic antagonist

Answer 209

- bradycardia- overdose of BB - Bradycardia

Answer 210

- anhidrosis - arrythmias - hallucination - hyperthermia

Answer 211

- Adrenaline - Amiodarone - Atropine (bradycardia) - 8.4% sodium bicarbonate (hyperkalaemia) - Calcium chloride (hyperkalaemia) - Magnesium sulfate (hypomagnesaemia, Torsades de pointe, digoxin toxicity)

Answer 212

- alpha and beta receptor and inc HR contractility - causes peripheral vasodilation - beta -2 effect - vasoconstriction - alpha effect

Answer 213

- CP resus - acute hypotension - anaphylaxis

Answer 214

- angina - anx - CNS haemorrhage - metabolic acidosis - pulm oedema - excess dose or extreme sensitivity

Answer 215

hyperkalaemia

Answer 216

- Hypokal - salt restricted diet

Answer 217

- anx - dizziness - fluid retention - metabolic alkalosis - pulm oedema

Answer 218

- raise blood pH and shift EC potassium unto cells

Answer 219

hyperkalaemia

Answer 220

- acute hypocalcaemia - acute severe hyperkalaemia

Answer 221

- constipation - diarrhoea - hypercal - nausea

Answer 222

- hypomagnesaemia - Torsades de pointe, - digoxin toxicity

Answer 223

- hypomag - prevention and treatment of seizures - serious arrhythmias

Answer 224

In rapid bowel evacuation—acute gastro-intestinal conditions

Answer 225

- paralytic ileus - bone demineralisation - diarrhoea

Answer 226

nausea, vomiting, flushing, thirst, hypotension, drowsiness, confusion, reflexes absent (due to neuromuscular blockade), respiratory depression, speech slurred, diplopia, muscle weakness, arrhythmias, coma, and cardiac arrest.

Block 31 Pharmacology Flashcards

(261 cards)