Beta lactams Flashcards

1
Q

T/F approx. 70% of antibiotics in the 40s and 50s were from soil bacteria (actinomycetes)

A

true

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2
Q

how do B-lactams effect bacteria?

A

they inhibit bacterial cell wall biosynthesis

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3
Q

what is the main structural component of the bacterial cell wall?

A

peptidoglycan

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4
Q

stage 3 of peptidoglycan biosynthesis involves which two enzymes?

A

transglycosylase and transpeptidase

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5
Q

B-lactam antibiotics inactivate which of the stage 3 enzymes?

A

transpeptidase

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6
Q

transpeptidase belongs to what family of enzymes?

A

Penicillin Binding Proteins

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7
Q

which form of penicillin can be taken orally?

A

Penicillin V

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8
Q

which of the following is NOT a B-Lactamase resistant penicillin?

a. Methicillin
b. Nafcillin
c. Oxacillin
d. Cloxacillin
e. polycillin
f. dicloxacillin

A

e

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9
Q

T/F only Penicillin G and V are used clinically

A

True

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10
Q

cephalosporins could cure what type of fever?

A

typhoid fever

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11
Q

which bacterium are first generation cephalosporins not resistant to?

A

S. aureus and S. epidermidis

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12
Q

Second generation of cephalosporins are usually active against organisms susceptible to first generation cephalosporins. In addition, they are also active against:

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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13
Q

what’s different about third generation of cephalosporins compared to first and second?

A

some exhibit antipseudomonal activity

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14
Q

name the first generation cephalosporins:

A

cephalothin, cefazolin, and cephalexin

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15
Q

first generation cephalosporins activity vs. gram + and gram -?

A

good vs most gram +, moderate vs most gram -

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16
Q

name the second generation cephalosporins:

A

cefprozil, cefuroxime, cefoxitin

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17
Q

name the third generation cephalosporins:

A

cefdinir, ceftriaxone

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18
Q

T/F cephalothin is most effective when given orally

A

False, not orally active

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19
Q

cephalexin is good for treating which infection?

A

UTI

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20
Q

T/F cephalexin is only given parenterally

A

False

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21
Q

T/F second generation cephalosporins are more active towards gram - than first generation

A

True

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22
Q

T/F Haemophilus

influenzae can cause upper respiratory infections, ear infection, eye infection, sinusitis, and meningitis

A

True

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23
Q

T/F cefprozil has two active isomers

A

True

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24
Q

T/F cefprozil has more concentration of the trans isomer than the cis isomer

A

False, over 90% is cis

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25
Q

T/F cefprozil can be given orally

A

True

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26
Q

Which second generation cephalosporin would be best to treat H. influenzae meningitis?

A

Cefuroxime

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27
Q

T/F Cefoxitin is a non-competitive inhibitor of many B-lactamases

A

False, it is a competitive inhibitor

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28
Q

T/F cefdinir is considered broad spectrum

A

True

29
Q

which two classes of bacterium is cefdinir mainly used to treat?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

Streptococcus pneumoniae

30
Q

which two classes of bacterium is cefdinir mainly used to treat?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

Streptococcus pneumoniae

31
Q

T/F ceftriaxone is considered broad spectrum

A

True

32
Q

T/F ceftriaxone can be given parenterally

A

True

33
Q

Ceftriaxone is used to treat?

A

gonorrhea

34
Q

T/F Fourth Generation Cephalosporins have gram + activity similar to 1st gen and gram - activity similar to 3rd gen including pseudomonas

A

True

35
Q

T/F Fourth Generation Cephalosporins are used primarily for nosocomial infections

A

True

36
Q

name the fourth generation cephalosporins

A

cefepime

37
Q

T/F cefepime is only given parenterally

A

True

38
Q

what is cefepime an effective treatment for?

A

bacterial meningitis

39
Q

name the fifth generation cephalosporins

A

ceftaroline fosamil

40
Q

T/F Fifth Generation Cephalosporins are considered broad spectrum antibiotics

A

true

41
Q

T/F Fifth Generation Cephalosporins have gram + activity similar to 1st gen and gram - activity less than 4th gen

A

True

42
Q

T/F Fifth Generation Cephalosporins are active against MRSA and VRE

A

True

43
Q

T/F ceftaroline fosamil is a prodrug

A

True

44
Q

what is ceftaroline fosamil used to treat?

A

community-acquired bacterial pneumonia (CAPB) and acute bacterial
skin infections

45
Q

how is ceftaroline fosamil administered?

A

parentally

46
Q

the First monobactam discovered was?

A

sulfazecin

47
Q

sulfazecin was produced by a soil microbe called?

A

Ps. acidophila

48
Q

T/F Aztreonam is the only monobactam available in the US

A

True

49
Q

T/F Aztreonam is considered narrow spectrum

A

true

50
Q

T/F Aztreonam has no gram - activity and high activity towards gram +

A

False, has aerobic gram - activity and no acitivty towards anaerobes and Gram +

51
Q

how is Aztreonam administered?

A

only injected

52
Q

clavulanic acid is considered what drug class?

A

Class I B-lactamase inhibitor

53
Q

T/F clavulanic acid is considered weak broad spectrum

A

true

54
Q

what is the purpose of using clavulanic acid?

A

extend the life of penicillin

55
Q

sulbactam is considered what drug class?

A

Class I B-lactamase inhibitor

56
Q

tazobactam is considered what drug class?

A

Class I B-lactamase inhibitor

57
Q

sulbactam is good against which infections?

it is not good against which bacteria?

A

staphs and enterobacteria

pseudomonas

58
Q

tazobactam is good against which bacteria?

A

many gram + and - and pseudomonas

59
Q

Thienamycin is considered what drug class?

A

Class II B-lactamase inhibitor

60
Q

imipenem is considered what drug class?

A

Carbapenem antibiotics

61
Q

T/F imipenem is extremely broad spectrum

A

True

62
Q

T/F imipenem inhibits many gram - B-lactamases

A

true

63
Q

meropenem is considered what drug class?

A

Carbapenem antibiotics

64
Q

T/F meropenem is extremely broad spectrum

A

true

65
Q

T/F meropenem is effective against MRSA

A

false

66
Q

ertapenem is considered what drug class?

A

Carbapenem antibiotics

67
Q

T/F ertapenem is effective against Ps. aeruginosa and Acinetobacter sp.

A

false

68
Q

doripenem is considered what drug class?

A

Carbapenem antibiotics

69
Q

how is doripenem administered?

A

IV