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Assessment And Dx Flashcards

1
Q

MMPI2 validity scale k

A

Measures guardedness and defensiveness

Serves as moderator variable— adjusts for defensiveness

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2
Q

MMPI scale L

A

Naive attempt to present favorably

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3
Q

MMPI F scale

A

Measures infrequently endorses items- used to assess overall distress and pathology, attempts to fake bad or random responding

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4
Q

MMPI VRIN and TRIN

A

Response inconsistency or random responding

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5
Q

Standard error of estimate

A

Direct rel with the SD of criterion

Indirect rel w validity (when validity is high, there should be little error in prediction and vice versa)

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6
Q

Halo effect

A

Being influenced by only 1 attribute when evaluating so

Can be controlled by training, utilizing forced choice, and objective methods like the BARS

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7
Q

Range of standard error of measurement

A

Index of Amt of error expected in obtained score for individuals d/t unreliability of the test

0 to SDx (test)

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8
Q

Range of validity coefficient

A

-1 to 1

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9
Q

Range of reliability coefficient

A

0 to 1

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10
Q

Range of standard error of estimate

A

0 to SDy (criterion)

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11
Q

selection ratio

A

of openings over # of applicants

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12
Q

base rate

A

rate of successful hiring without test

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13
Q

criterion validity

A

correlation between scores on the validity test and scores on the outcome measure of performance production

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14
Q

what effects incremental validity

A

base rate, selection ratio, criterion validity

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15
Q

concordance rates for twins with bipolar

A

75%

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16
Q

adverse impact

A

percentage of minorities hired is less than 4/5 % of non-minorities. Can multiply hiring rate for non minorities by .8

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17
Q

Reliability

A

Consistency.

Correlating the test with itself.

Do items measure what they’re supposed to measure?

Ex. .84 means 84% of variability in scores is due to score differences among examinees and 16% is due to measurement error

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18
Q

Factors that affect reliability

A
  1. Test length- longer is better for rel
  2. Range of scores- unrestricted is best for rel
  3. Guessing - as probability of guessing right increases, rel decreases
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19
Q

Content validity

A

Extent to which a measure represents all facets of a given construct

Ex depression scale may lack content validity if it only measures affect

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20
Q

Construct validity

A

The degree to which a test measures what it claims to be measuring

Do all items measure the same construct?

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21
Q

Criterion validity

A

Extent to which a measure is related to an outcome

Concurrent: compare measure in question and an outcome measured at the same time

Predictive: compares the measure in question with an outcome predicted at a later time

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22
Q

item response theory

A

It is a theory of testing based on the relationship between individuals’ performances on a test item and the test takers’ levels of performance on an overall measure of the ability that item was designed to measure.

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23
Q

criterion keying approach to constructing a personality inventory (i.e., MMPI)

A

discriminate among various criterion groups

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24
Q

primary mental abilities test

A

multifaceted test of intelligence

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25
Q

Tourette’s sx

A

1 or more vocal tic with motor tics.
duration of more than 1 yr
onset before age 18
pds of remission can last up to 3 mo

obsessions/compulsions (40-60%)
hyperactivity, impulsivity, (50%)

tx: antipsychotics: haldol &; pimozide (effective 80%)
excessive dopamine
treat hyperactive not with stimulant but with clonodine or desipramine (antidepressant)

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26
Q

anterograde amnesia

A

loss of ability to create new memories

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27
Q

retrograde amnesia

A

loss of memory of events that took place before amnesia

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28
Q

substance dependence

A 
3sx in 12 mo:
tolerance
withdrawal
larger amounts/longer periods
keep using despite impairment
NOT cravings
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29
Q

nicotine dependence

A

3-4x more likely to have heart attack or stroke. 1-5 yrs after quitting, risk returns to normal. 65% who attempt to uit fail in 3 mo. only 7.5% achieve long term abstinence. 91% quit on their own.

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30
Q

amphetamine or cocaine withdrawal

A

dysphoric mood, fatigue, vivid/unpleasant dreams, insomnia/hypersomnia, increased appetite, psychomotor agitation/retardation

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31
Q

alcohol withdrawal

A

autonomic hyperactivity (sweat, tachycardia), hand tremor, insomnia, nausea/vomiting, transient illusions or hallucinations, anxiety, psychomotor agitation, grand mal seizures

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32
Q

treatments for depression

A

combined tx of meds and therapy is best for severe or recurring

combined not more effecvtive for mild or moderate cases

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33
Q

OCD

A

decrease in serotonin and oversensitivity in right caudate nucleus

increase in activity in orbitofrontal cortex, cingulate cortex and caudate nucleus

= in sexes in adult; kids earlier onset in males so boys are higher than girls

tx: exposure with response prevention; tricyclic clomipramine or SSRI (antidepressants associated with high risk of relapse so rarely used alone)

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34
Q

conversion disorder

A

physical sx with no medical explanation

NOT intentionally produced
primary gain: keep conflict out of consciousness; secondary gain: avoid unpleasant activity or support

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35
Q

malingering

A

physical sxs with no medical explanation but voluntarily produced with goal of gaining a reward

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36
Q

factitious disorder

A

intentionally produced or feigned physical or psychological sx with purpose to adopt sick role
tx: supportive therapy

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37
Q

Factors to consider when evaluating the appropriateness of a psychological test

A
  1. examiner qualifications
  2. examinee characteristics
  3. test characteristics
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38
Q

test characteristics

A
  1. reliability and validity
  2. standardization
  3. types of scores (norm-criterion or self-referenced)
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39
Q

standardization

A
  1. scores collected at different times and places are comparable
  2. has been administered under standard conditions to a representative sample for purpose of establishing norms
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40
Q

types of scores

A
  1. norm referenced
  2. criterion-referenced
  3. self-referenced
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41
Q

norm referenced scores

A

permit comparisons between an examinees test performance and the performance of individuals in the norm group
e.g., percentile rank and standard scores

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42
Q

criterion-referenced scores

A

aka domain referenced scores and content referenced scores

permit interpreting an examinees test performance in terms of what the examinee can do or knows with regard to a clearly defined content domain. e.g., percent - may be compared to a cutoff percentage

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43
Q

self-referenced scores

A

provided by ipsative scales - can compare your scores in one domain to your scores in another domain

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44
Q

types of psychological assessment

A
  1. behavioral assessment
  2. dynamic assessment
  3. computer-assisted assessment
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45
Q

behavioral assessment

A

focuses on overt and covert behaviors that occur in specific circumstances e.g., functional behavioral assessent

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46
Q

dynamic assessment

A

Vygotsky

interactive approach and deliberate deviation from standardized testing procedures to obtain additional info about the examinee and to determine if the examinee is likely to benefit from assistance or instruction

educational assessment and personality and social fxning

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47
Q

testing the limits

A

type of dynamic assessment

providing examinee with additional cues, suggestions, or feedback - done after standard administration of the test

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48
Q

types of dynamic assessment

A
  1. testing the limits
  2. graduated prompting
  3. test-teach-retest
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49
Q

graduated prompting

A

giving a series of verbal prompts that are graduated in terms of difficulty level

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50
Q

test-teach-retest

A

following initial assessment with intervention designed to modify the examinee’s performance and then re-assessing

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51
Q

computer-assisted assessment

A

used to administer, score, and interpret results

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52
Q

computer adaptive testing

A

tailors the test to an individual examinee

advantages: precision and efficiency

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53
Q

Actuarial (statistical) predictions

A

based on empirically validated relationships between test results and specific criteria

make use of a multiple regression equation or similar statistical technique

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54
Q

clinical predictions

A

based on intuition, experience, and knowledge

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55
Q

which is more accurate? actuarial v clinical predictions

A

actuarial

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56
Q

interviews can be used to obtain reliable and valid data from children as young as

A

6

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57
Q

techniques used to assess children

A
  1. descriptive statements
  2. reflection
  3. labeled praise
  4. avoid critical statements
  5. open ended questions
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58
Q

2 goals when interviewing children

A

establish rapport and maintain child’s cooperation

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59
Q

use of anatomically correct dolls to assess for child sexual abuse

A

children who have been abused are more likely to demonstrate sexual activity when presented with the dolls than nonabused children

do not cause children to act more suggestively

no widely accepted standards

no evidence that anatomical dolls are better than regular dolls

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60
Q

assessing members of culturally diverse populations

A

acculturation
racial/ethnic identity,
language proficiency
availability of appropriate norms
cultural equivalence of the content or construct measured
availability of alternatives that are more appropriate

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61
Q

guidelines for selecting, administering and interpreting assessment procedures for diverse populations

A
  1. be clear about the purpose of the assessment
  2. sensitive to test content
  3. alternative methods when possible
  4. ethnic norms
  5. self-monitor their level of assessment expertise
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62
Q

racial/cultural differences between examinee and examiner

A

no consistent effect of a match or mismatch

rapport and examiner’s attitude may be more critical to test performance

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63
Q

Spearman’s two-factor theory

A

general intellectual factor (g). performance on any cognitive task depends on g plus one or more specific factors (s) unique to the task

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64
Q

Horn & Cattell’s theory of intelligence

A

crystallized v fluid

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65
Q

Crystallized intelligence

A

acquired knowledge and skills, is affected by educational and cultural experiences, and includes reading and numerical skills and factual knowledge

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66
Q

Fluid intelligence

A

does not depend on specific instruction
is culture-free
enables an individual to solve novel problems and perceive relations and similarities

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67
Q

Three-stratum theory of intelligence

A

Carroll

Stratum III is g
stratum II consists of 8 broad abilities including fluid, crystallized, general memory and learning,
Stratum I consists of specific abilities that are each linked to one of the second stratum abilities . e.g., crystallized intelligence is linked to language development, comprehension, spelling, communication

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68
Q

Cattell-Horn-Carroll Theory

A

McGrew

developed on basis of empirical research
serves as framework for KABC-II and WJ IV

distinguishes bt 10 broad-stratum level abilities and over 70 narrow -stratum abilities that are each linked to one of the broad stratum abilities

g does not contribute to psychoeducational assessment practice

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69
Q

Convergent and Divergent Thinking

A

Guilford

structure-of-intellect model

distinguishes between convergent and divergent thinking

convergent: rational, logical reasoning and involves the use of logical judgement and consideration of facts to derive the correct solution
divergent: nonlogical processes and requires creativityy and flexibility to derive multiple solutions

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70
Q

Triarchic theory of intelligence

A

Sternberg

successful intelligence = ability to adapt to, modify, and choose environments that accomplish one’s goals

3 abilities: analytical, creative, and practical

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71
Q

Gardener’s multiple intelligences

A 
8 types of cognitive ability:
linguistic
musical
logical-mathematical
spatial
bodily-kinesthetic
interpersonal
intrapersonal
naturalistic

not static- can be developed by exposure to appropriate learning experiences

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72
Q

Concordance rates for IQ scores:

Identical twins reared together -

A

.85

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73
Q

Concordance rates for IQ scores:

Identical twins reared apart-

A

.67

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74
Q

Concordance rates for IQ scores:

Fraternal twins reared together-

A

.58

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75
Q

Concordance rates for IQ scores:

Bio siblings reared together

A

.45

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76
Q

Concordance rates for IQ scores:

Bio siblings reared apart

A

.24

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77
Q

Concordance rates for IQ scores:

Bio parent and child (together)

A

.39

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78
Q

Concordance rates for IQ scores:

Bio parent and child (apart)

A

.22

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79
Q

Concordance rates for IQ scores:

adoptive parent and child

A

.18

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80
Q

Variability in intelligence due to genetic factors

A

between 32 and 64% in industrialized countries

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81
Q

Role of the environment on IQ scores

A

a. confluence model

b. Flynn effect

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82
Q

Confluence model

A

children’s IQ scores decreasing from the child that is born first to the child that is born last

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83
Q

Flynn effect

A

increase in IQ

d/t increases in fluid intelligence

not explained by genetics. d/t environmental factors

continues in US for individuals with IQs ranging from 70-109 but has reversed for individuals with IQs of 110 and above

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84
Q

IQ scores become consistent after age

A

7

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85
Q

crystallized intelligence increases until age

A

60

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86
Q

fluid intelligence peaks in ___ and then___

A

late adolescence

declines

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87
Q

declines in fluid intelligence are attributed to

A

declines in working memory and processing speed

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88
Q

Seattle Longitudinal Study

A

combined cross-sectional and longitudinal design
(cross-sequential)

cross sectional design is more likely to find early age-related declines in IQ because it is more vulnerable to cohort effects

longitudinal design shows- intelligence remains stable or slightly increases over time until about age 60. only perceptual speed declined before 60

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89
Q

factors related to cognitive decline

A
  1. many items and tasks emphasize speed of information processing
  2. physical health - cardiovascular functioning - which impacts information processing speed and other cognitive functions
  3. disuse - can be reversible
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90
Q

differences in intelligence d/t gender

A

no diff on avg. performance
differences are small and may be declining:
females do better on some measures of verbal ability, esp during school years, and are less likely to have a reading disability

males outperform females on measures of certain spatial and math skills - spatial skills showing the largest gender gap

differences d/t biology and also environment (opportunity)

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91
Q

differences in IQ d/t ethnicity and race

A

Whites outperform AA by one SD on IQ and achievement tests; gap has narrows somewhat since 70s

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92
Q

2 types of IQ test bias

A
  1. slope bias

2. intercept bias

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93
Q

Slope bias

A

differential validity – validity coefficients for a predictor differ for different groups

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94
Q

intercept bias

A

unfairness – validity coefficients and criterion performance for different groups are the same but their mean scores on the predictor differ. so the predictor consistently over- or under- predicts performance on the criterion for members of one of the groups

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95
Q

Standford Binet (SB5) age range

A

2 - 85+

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96
Q

SB5 goals

A
  1. general cognitive ability
  2. psychoeductational evaluation
  3. diagnosis of developmental disabilities
  4. forensic career
  5. neuropsych
  6. early childhood assessment
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97
Q

development of the SB5

A

hierarchical g model
incorporates 5 cognitive factors from CHC model: fluid reasoning, knowledge, quantitative reasoning, visual-spatial processing, working memory

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98
Q

administration of the SB5

A

tailored to level of cognitive fxn thru routing and functional subtests

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99
Q

Scoring and interpretation of the SB5

A

subtest scores (M =10, SD =3 ) combined to obtain 4 composite scores (M= 100, SD = 15): FSIQ, Factor Index (FR, KN, QR, VS, WM), Domain (verbal, nonverbal), and abbreviated battery IQ

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100
Q

WAIS-IV age range

A

16-90:11

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101
Q

Wechsler’s view of IQ

A

global ability comprised of numerous and interrelated functions that allow the individual to “act purposefully, think rationally, and deal effectively with environment”

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102
Q

goals of recent revision to WAIS

A
  1. enhance user friendliness
  2. increase test’s clinical utility
  3. improve psychometric properties - update norms, reduce item bias, and improve test’s floor and ceiling (now 40-160)
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103
Q

WAIS IV indexes

A

WMI (digit span, arithmetic)
VCI (vocal, similarities, information)
PSI (symbol search, coding)
PRI (block design, MR, visual puzzles)

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104
Q

when to interpret WAIS IV with caution

A

when a diff of 1.5 SD or more between any 2 index scores bt any 2 subtest scores that comprise an index

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105
Q

when to obtain GAI on WAIS IV

A

minimize impact of WMI and PSI

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106
Q

composite score range on WAIS IV for:

mild cognitive impairment

A

93+

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107
Q

composite score range on WAIS IV for:

Alzheimer’s (mild)

A

76-86

PSI = 76

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108
Q

composite score range on WAIS IV for:

MDD

A

95+

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109
Q

composite score range on WAIS IV for:

ADHD

A

94+

WMI and PSI lowest

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110
Q

composite score range on WAIS IV for:

TBI

A

80-86

PSI lowest

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111
Q

WISC-V age range

A

6-16:11

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112
Q

WISC-V domains

A

FSIQ, VCI, VSI, FR, WMI, PSI

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113
Q

WPPSI-IV age range

A

2:6-7:7

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114
Q

WPPSI-IV domains for children 2:6-3:11

A

FSIQ, Verbal Comp, VSI, and WMI

ancillary: Vocab Acquisition, Nonverbal, and GA

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115
Q

WPPSI-IV domains for children 4+

A

FSIQ, Verbal comprehension, VSI, FR, WMI, PS

ancillary: Vocal acquisition, nonverbal, cognitive proficiency, and GA

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116
Q

KABC-II age range

A

3-18:11

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117
Q

KABC-II goals

A

culture fair test by minimizing verbal instructions and responses

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118
Q

KABC-II scales

A

Simultaneous, Sequential, Planning, Learning, Knowledge

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119
Q

KABC-II Interpretation is based on

A

CHC model or Luria’s neuropsychologist processing model (recommended when performance on measures of crystallized ability would be negatively impacted by a non-mainstream cultural background, language, or hearing impairment, autism, or other factor

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120
Q

KBIT -2 age range and domains

A

4-90+

crystallized and nonverbal (fluid) ability

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121
Q

KAIT age range and domains

A

11-85+

fluid, crystallized, and composite IQ

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122
Q

Cognitive Assessment System (CAS2) measures __ and is designed to assist with ___

A

cognitive processing abilities that are central to learning

Differential diagnosis, determining eligibility for special ed, instructional planning

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123
Q

CAS2 is based on ++++ model of intelligence, which ___

A

PASS

distinguishes bt 4 cognitive functions- planning, attention, simultaneous processing, sequential processing

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124
Q

SIT-P-1 goal

A

obtain quick estimate of mental ability and identify children at risk for educational failure or who require more extensive testing

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125
Q

Slosson Intelligence Test-Revised 3rd Edition for Children and Adults (SIT-R3-1) : age range and goal

A

4- 65:11
screening test for crystallized (verbal) IQ
* may be used to test those with visual impairments
IQs between 36-164

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126
Q

Woodcock Johnson tests: ___; based on ___ theory of IQ

A

WJ-IV tests of cognitive abilities
WJ-IV tests of oral language
WJ-IV tests of Achievement

CHC

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127
Q

WJ-IV age range

A

2-80+

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128
Q

Denver Developmental Screening Test (Denver II)

A

brief assessment device for developmental delays
birth -6yo
4 domains: personal-social, fine motor adaptive, language, gross motor
developmental delay: fail on an item that 90% of children pass
an be administered by a para with only a few hours of training

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129
Q

Bayley (Bayley-III)

A

current developmental status of infants and toddlers ages 1-42 mo
subtests: cognitive, motor, language, social-emotional, and adaptive

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130
Q

Fagan Test of Infant Intelligence (FTII)

A

based on research indicating that measures of information processing administered during infancy are good predictors of IQ in childhood

assesses selective attention to novel stimuli - ability to abstract and retain information
score: amount of time spent looking at pictures of new vs. familiar faces

infants 3-12 mo

identify infants with cognitive impairments

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131
Q

ADA and assessment

A

any test administered to a job applicant with a disability must accurately measure the skills and abilities the test was designed to measure rather than reflect their disability

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132
Q

Columbia Mental Maturity Scale - Third Edition (CMMS)

A

test of general reasoning for children ages 3:6-9:11

no verbal responses or fine motor skills

92 cards - have to pick the drawing that does not belong

children with CP, brain damage, ID, speech impairments, hearing loss, limited English proficiency

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133
Q

Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT-4)

A

measures receptive vocab - estimate of verbal intelligence

2:6-90+

ppl with motor or speech impairment

134
Q

Haptic Intelligence Scale for the Adult Blind

A

16+ who are blind or partially sighted

tactile stimuli; 6 subtests: digit symbol, object assembly, block design, object completion, pattern board, bead arithmetic

135
Q

Hiskey-Nebraska Test of Learning Aptitude

A

3-17:6

learning ability when you have hearing or language impairments

administered verbally or in pantomime

consists of 12 nonverbal subtests that measure broad range of IQ

136
Q

culture fair tests

A

reduced cultural content
nonverbal format

may be just as culturally loaded; discrepancies in test performance may be d/t diff in test-taking motivation, interest, problem solving, cognitive styles, and attitudes toward standardized tests

137
Q

culture fair tests - examples

A

CMMS, KABC-II, Leiter, Raven’s Progressive Matrices

138
Q

Leiter Internal Performance Scale-Third Edition (Leiter-3)

A

culture fair measure of cognitive abilities for individuals aged 3-75+
no verbal instruction

also useful for those with language problems or hearing impairment

match a set of response cards to corresponding illustrations

emphases: fluid intelligence and 4 domains: visualization, reasoning, memory, attention

139
Q

Raven’s Progressive Matrices:

A

nonverbal measures of g

culturally independent

used with indiv who are hearing/language impaired, or physical disability

solve problems involving abstract figures and designs by indicating which of several alternatives complete a matrix

140
Q

most commonly used version of Raven’s Progressive Matrices

A

Standard Progressive Matrices (SPM) - 60 matrices that require examinee to choose missing section from 6 alternatives
6+

141
Q

shorter, easier version of Raven’s Progressive Matrices

A

Colored Progressive Matrices (CPM)

5-11:0, older adults, and individuals with mental or physical impairments

142
Q

Group Intelligence Tests for School and Industry

A

Kuhlmann-Anderson
Cognitive Abilities Test
Wonderlic Test

143
Q

Kuhlmann-Anderson Test

A

grades K-12
evaluates school learning ability
Verbal, quantitative, and total scores

less dep on language than other individual and group IQ tests

144
Q

Cognitive Abilities Test

A

reasoning abilities in 3 areas that are linked to academic success- verbal, quantitative, and nonverbal
K-12

used to predict school grades and determine eligibility in GAT

145
Q

Wonderlic Personel Test (WPT-R)

A

12 min. test of cognitive abilities for adults
50 verbal, numerical, spatial items

used by employers for hiring decisions

146
Q

Wonderlic Basic Skills Tests (WBST)

A

40 min test that assesses job related verbal and math skills and is used by educational institutions and employers to evaluate employability for entry level career position

147
Q

Instructional Assessments

A
  1. Curriculum Based measurement (CBM)

2. Performance Based Assessment (PBA)

148
Q

Curriculum Based Measurement (CBM)

A

periodic assessment of school aged children with brief standardized and validated measures of basic academic skills e.g., Diagnostic Dynamic Indicators of Basic Literacy Skills (DIBELS)

149
Q

Curriculum Based Measurement (CBM) v Curriculum Based Assessment (CBA)

A

some do not distinguish.

others say CBA= teacher made tests

150
Q

Performance Based Assessment (PBA) aka; centerpiece of ____

A

Authentic assessment

Goals 2000 - proposed by Clinton admin

151
Q

Performance Based Assessment (PBA)

A

observing and judging a student’s skill in actually carrying out a physical activity (giving a speech)

+better for assessing kids from culturally and + linguistically diverse populations
- might be based on prior knowledge than what was learned

152
Q

Tests for identifying learning disabilities

A
  1. Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities (ITPA-3)
  2. Wide-Range Achievement Test (WRAT4)
  3. Wechsler Individual Achievement Test (WIAT-III)
153
Q

Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities (ITPA-3)

A

age range: 5-12:11

evaluate a child’s strengths and weaknesses in linguistic abilities, assist in dx of dyslexia and problems re: phonological coding, and track a child’s progress

Based on Osgood’s communication model

154
Q

Wide Range Achievement Test (WRAT-4)

A

age range 5-94:11

rapid screening device for assessing reading, spelling and math skills

155
Q

WIAT-III

A

age range 4-50:11

assesses 8 areas of achievement identified by the IDEA as important for identifying learning disabilities

156
Q

Admission Tests

A
  1. SAT

2. GRE

157
Q

SAT best predictor of first year college GPA

A

writing subtest

best combo: SAT scores + high school GPA

less accurate for predicting college GPA for those scoring in the middle

related to SES and ethnicity

coaching produces avg. increase of 25-35 points for students whose skills are rusty of nonexistent

158
Q

Aptitude Tests measure

A

potential for learning a specific skill but overlap with achievement tests

159
Q

Aptitude Tests examples

A
  1. Multiple Aptitude Test Batteries (poor differential validity)
  2. Occupational Tests of Specific Aptitude (low predictive validity- better when predicting training program performance v on the job success)
160
Q

Validity of interest inventories

A

good predictors of : occupational choice, satisfaction, and persistence
less valid than IQ tests for predicting academic and occupational success

better predictors when combined with measures of self-confidence, self-efficacy, and personality

161
Q

Types of interest inventories

A
  1. Strong Interest Inventory
  2. Kuder Tests
  3. Self-Directed Search
162
Q

Holland’s Theory of Career Choice emphasizes

A

the importance of matching a person’s preferences to the characteristics of the job

163
Q

Holland’s 6 themes

A

RIASEC

Realistic 
Investigative 
Artistic
Social
Enterprising
Conventional
164
Q

Holland’s themes - Realistic

A

technical, physical, mechanical and outdoor (occupations- engineer, mechanic, etc.)

165
Q

Holland’s themes- Investigative

A

Preferences are scientific, mathematical, analytical (occupations - biologist, veterinarian, mathematician, professor)

166
Q

Holland’s themes- Artistic

A

music, art, writing, drama (occupations - artist, actor, musician, writer, interior designer, )

167
Q

Holland’s themes- Social

A

working with and helping others (occupations - teacher, psychologist, SW, nurse, minister, personnel manager)

168
Q

Holland’s themes - Enterprising

A

competition, management, sales, public speaking (occupations - sales manager, realtor, stockbroker, financial planner, buyer)

169
Q

Holland’s Themes - Conventional

A

structured, unambiguous activities that involve organizing data, attending to detail and following through on other’s instructions (occupations - accountant, admin asst, actuary, technical writer, paralegal, banker)

170
Q

Self-Directed Search based on

A

Holland’s theory of career choice

171
Q

Self-Directed Search (SDS) appropriate for___; provides ___

A

Hs students, college students, adults

compare 3 letter summary code (3 highest scores) to profiles that correspond to 1300 occupations, 750 postsecondary fields of study, 700 leisure activities

172
Q

factors that Holland believed affect a person’s readiness for career decision-making

A
  1. congruence - degree of consistency between expressed interests and the summary code
  2. Coherence - expressed interest belong to the same RIASEC categories
  3. Consistency - similarity of the 2 strongest measured interests
  4. Differntiation - distinctiveness of interests (high score on one, low on all others)
  5. commonness - frequency that summary code appears in normative groups
173
Q

Ways to construct a personality test

A
  1. logical content method - reason and deductive logic
  2. theoretical method- e.g., ayers-briggs type based on Jung’s personality theory
  3. Empirical Criterion Keying- e.g., MMPI
  4. Factor Analysis - e.g., Cattell’s 16 personality factor questionnaire and NEO personality inventory
174
Q

MMPI-2 age range and reading level

A

18+

at least 5,6,or 8 th grade

175
Q

scoring and interpretation of MMPI-2

A

raw scores converted to T scores (mean of 50 and sd of 10)

65 + is clinically significant

176
Q

Scores on the L, f, K scales assume V-shaped pattern

A

attempt to “fake good.” common for child custody litigants

177
Q

extremely elevated F scale with a high value on F-K

A

symptom exaggeration “fake bad”- linked to malingering

178
Q

L and K are around 50; F is slightly elevated; clinical score profile is “saw toothed”

A

malingering

179
Q

very elevated F and high scores T >65

A

random responding

180
Q

L and K are below 50, and F and clinical scores on the right side of the profile (6-9) are very elevated

A

“true” to all items

181
Q

“false” to all items

A

scores on all 3 validity scales and clinical scale scores on the left side (1-5) are elevated

182
Q

MMPI2 most commonly used for

A

assessing personality and behavior through profile analysis.

not good for differntial diagnosis

183
Q

neurotic triad of conversion V

A

1-2-3 code with scale 1 and 3 higher than 2

somatization of psychological problems, lack of insight, and chronic pain that has an organic basis

184
Q

paranoid valley or psychotic v

A

6-7-8 with 6 and 8 higher than 7

delusions, hallucinations, disordered thought

185
Q

one problem with standardization sample for MMPI-2

A

mostly college graduates

186
Q

multicultural assessment of MMPI2

A

AA tend to score higher on F and scales 4, 8, 9 than Whites but some think this is not clinically significant

appropriate for use with diverse groups when SES, education, acculturation taken into account

187
Q

Edwards Personal Preference Schedule (EPPS)

A

based on Murray’s personality theory - distinguishes 15 basic needs

forced choice format:

  1. controls for social desirability
  2. permits comparison of relative strengths but not absolute strengths
188
Q

Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire

A

based on Cattell

factor analysis

Can compare profile with profiles associated with certain groups (e..g, delinquents)

189
Q

NEO Personality Inventory -3

A

Costa and McCrae

assess Big Five Personality traits - extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism, and openness to experience

190
Q

original identification of Big 5 traits based on

A

theoretical lexical approach - all socially relevant traits are encoded in language

Allport

replicable across cultures with exception of openness and asians

E, A, and O lowest in East Asian nations; A and C highest in African nations

191
Q

Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

A

Jung

4 bipolar dimensions: Introversion-Extraversion (I-E), Sensing-Intuition (S. N), Thinking-Feeling (T, F), Judging -Perceiving (J, P)

Forced choice items

often used for career counseling but validity has mixed results

192
Q

Projective Tests share 3 characteristics

A
  1. ambiguous and unstructured stimuli can elicit meaningful info (projective hypothesis)
  2. less susceptible to faking
  3. reveal unconscious, global aspects of personality
193
Q

Rorschach age range and phases

A

ages 2+

  1. free association - presents 10 cards in order, keeps track of what subject says
  2. inquiry phase - examiner questions examinee about features of the inkblot
194
Q

Scoring the Rorschach based on

A
  1. location - whole or detail?
  2. determinants - what determined the response? color?
  3. form quality - how similar perception is to actual shape
  4. content - human, animal, nature
  5. popularity - how often a response is elicited
195
Q

psychometric properties of Rorschach

A

originally: no good for clinical use; ok for research

later tests show: better validity than we thought

196
Q

Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)

A

Henry Murray’s theory of needs

make up a story about each picture

little utility for assigning specific diagnoses; may be useful for gross diagnostic distinctions (schizophrenia v neurosis)

197
Q

2 most common NP batteries

A
  1. halstead-reitan

2. Luria-Nebraska

198
Q

Halstead-Reitan (H-R) NP Battery

A

used to detect presence of brain damage and determine severity and possible location

15+

Halstead Impairment Index (HII) ranges from 0 to 1: 0 to .2 suggests normal fxn; 0.3 to 0.4 mild impairment; .5 to .7 moderate impairment; 0.8 to 1 severe impairment

199
Q

Luria-Nebraska NP battery (LBNB)

A

11 content scales that assess various aspects of NP fxn: motor, visual spatial, memory, language

raw score 0 to 2; 0 = normal, 2 = brain injury

converted to T scores

children 8-12 and adults 13+

200
Q

How is LBNB is different from HR

A
  1. less time to administer
  2. more standardized
  3. provides complete coverage of deficits and more precise identification of brain damage
201
Q

Individual NP tests

A
  1. Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test
  2. Benton Visual Retention Test
  3. Beery-Buktenica Developmental test of Visual-Motor Integration
  4. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
  5. Stroop Color-Word Association
  6. Tower of London
  7. Wechsler Memory Scale-IV
  8. Mini Mental Status Exam
  9. Glasgow Coma Scale
  10. Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning Revised
202
Q

Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test (Bender-Gestalt II)

A

visual motor integration
3+
copy and recall phase
screening for brain damage; should use with other measures
school readiness in first graders, academic achievement, and emotional problems and learning disabilities
up to age 10- scores correlate with IQ

203
Q

Benton Visual Retention Test (BVRT)

A

visual memory, visual perception, visual-motor skills to identify brain damage in 8+

204
Q

Beery VMI

A

visual motor integration
ages 2 +
id deficits associated with neurological impairments or might lead to learning and behavior problems

205
Q

Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST)

A

ages 6:6 to 80:11
form abstract concepts and shift cognitive strategies in response to feedback
sensitive to frontal lobe damage; impaired performance is linked to alcoholism, autism, schizophrenia, depression, and malingering

206
Q

Stroop

A

can you suppress a prepotent (habitual) response in favor of an unusual one
measures cognitive flexibility, selective attention, and response inhibition

sensitive to frontal lobe damage; poor performance associated with ADHD, mania, depression, and schizophrenia

207
Q

Tower of London

A

measures attention, memory, and EF

frontal lobe damage, ADHD, autism, depression

208
Q

Wechsler Memory Scale-IV

A

older adolescents and adults

Auditory memory, Visual memory, Visual working memory, Immediate memory, and Delayed memory

209
Q

Mini Mental Status Exam (MMSE)

A

screening tool for cog impairment in older adults

sometimes used for dementia but should not be solely used for that purpose

Scores below 23/24 meaning cognitive impairment

relies heavily on verbal responses - use with caution for those with communication disorder, limited english, etc.

210
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale

A

assess level of consciousness following brain injury

visual response (eye opening), best motor response, best verbal response

scores from 3-15; lower score indicating more severe brain injury. 3-8= unconscious state

211
Q

Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning Revised

A

measure of cognitive recovery during first weeks to months following head injury

rate pt on 10 levels ranging from I- no response to 10= purposeful, appropriate: modified independent

212
Q

Beck Depression Inventory (BDI-II)

A

21 items assessing mood, cognitive, behavioral, and physical aspects of depression
0-13= minimal; 14-19= mild; 20-28= moderate; 29-63= severe

213
Q

Assessment for ADHD

A
  1. broad-band scale to assess general behavioral and psych functioning
  2. narrow-band scale to get detailed info on sx of ADHD
214
Q

Assessment for Autism

A

CARS2, ABC, ADI-R

children with autism tend to find embedded figures faster than peers without the disorder on the Embedded Figures Test

215
Q

Assessment of ID per IDEA

A
  1. all disabled persons from infancy to 21 yo must be evaluated by a team of specialists
  2. an IEP must be developed; least restrictive environment
  3. assignment to special ed classes can not be made on basis of IQ only
216
Q

Vineland

A

birth to 90 yo

evaluate personal and social skills for those with ID, ASD, aDHD, brain injury, dementia

217
Q

AAMR Adaptive Behavior Scales

A

assesses 5 areas: personal self-sufficiency, community self-sufficiency, personal-social responsibility, social adjustment, and personal adjustment

ABS school - 3-18:11 yo
ABS-Residential and Community - 18+

218
Q

measuring malingering

A

validity scales on MMPI-2

symptom validity tests - less than 50% suggests deliberately choosing wrong answers

219
Q

diagnostic uncertainty is indicated by

A

1) other specified disorder (clinician lists reason why symptoms don’t meet criteria)
2) unspecified disorder (doesn’t list reason)
3) provisional (not enough info to make dx)

220
Q

level 1 cross cutting symptom measures assess

A

identifying areas that require additional evaluation (broad)

221
Q

level 2 cross-cutting symptom measures assess

A

in-depth info. on specific domains to help guide diagnosis

222
Q

assessment measures available in DSM or online

A

1) cross cutting symptom measures (in text)
2) disorder-specific severity measures (mostly online except for psychosis symptom severity measure in text)
3) World Health Org. Disability Assessment Schedule -2
4) Personality Inventories (online)

223
Q

DSM tools to help with cultural formulation

A

1) outline for cultural formulation
2) cultural formulation interview
3) cultural concepts of distress

224
Q

cultural concepts of distress

A

cultural syndromes
cultural idioms of distress
cultural explanations

225
Q

cultural syndromes

A

clusters of symptoms that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture

226
Q

cultural idioms of distress

A

used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking

227
Q

cultural explanations

A

explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms

228
Q

Neurodevelopmental Disorders

A 
ID
ASD
ADHD
LD
Tourette's
Behavioral Pediatrics
229
Q

Intellectual Disability

A

1) deficits in intellectual functioning - confirmed by testing
2) deficits in adaptive functioning
3) onset during developmental period

4 stages of severity based on adaptive functioning

230
Q

Course of Intellectual Disability

A

mild - may not be lifelong with intervention

231
Q

Etiology of Intellectual Disability

A

1 risk factor for etiology unknown = low birth weight

30% d/t chromosomal changes and exposure to toxins during prenatal development (down syndrome)
30% etiology is unknown
15-20% to environmental factors and predisposing mental disorders
10% d/t pregnancy and perinatal problems
5% d/t acquired medical conditions during infancy (lead poisoning)
5% d/t heredity

232
Q

Childhood-onset fluency disorder

A

stuttering

disturbance in normal fluency and patterning of speech that is inappropriate for person’s age

233
Q

course/prognosis for childhood onset fluency disorder

A

begins between ages 2-7
worse when pressure to communicate
65-85% of children recover with severity of disfluency at age 8 being a good predictor of prognosis

234
Q

treatment for childhood onset fluency disorder

A

reduce stress
relaxation for young children

older children and adults = habit reversal

235
Q

ASD

A

1) deficits in social communication across multiple contexts
2) restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, and activities
3) sx during early developmental period
4) impairments

3 levels of severity: 1 requiring support; 2 requiring substantial support; 3 requiring very substantial support

236
Q

associated features of ASD

A

language abnormalities
uneven cognitive profile
motor deficits

237
Q

prognosis - ASD

A

1/3 with partial independence as adults

best prognosis: communicate verbally by age 5 or 6, IQ over 70, and later onset of symptoms

238
Q

etiology ASD

A

1) unusually rapid head growth during first year
2) brain abnormalities in amygdala and cerebellum; serotonin, dopamine, and other neurotransmitters
3) genetic - rates higher for bio sibs

239
Q

treatment - ASD

A

behavioral- shaping and discrimination training

240
Q

ADHD

A

pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity that has persisted for at least 6 mo., onset prior to age 12, is present in at least 2 settings, and interferes with functioning; must have 6 symptoms in a domain

sx fluctuate depending on setting

241
Q

Associated features- ADHD

A

test lower on IQ tests even though IQ is generally average
exhibit academic difficulties
social problems
comorbidities: CD, LD, ODD, anxiety, MDD

adults - low self esteem, social problems, poorer health outcomes and lower educational and occupational achievement. at risk for bipolar, depression, anxiety, antisocial behavior, substance abuse

242
Q

prevalence ADHD

A

5% children

2.5% adults

243
Q

Gender and ADHD

A

children: 2:1 boys:girls
adults: 1.6:1

combined = more common for boys; inattentive = more common for girls

244
Q

course/prognosis for ADHD

A

65-85% continue to meet dx criteria in adolescence
15% continue to meet as young adults; 60% meet in partial remission

gross motor activity in childhood declines; hyperactivity in adults looks like fidgeting, excessive talking, inner sense of restless
impulsivey in adults looks like patience, irritability, problems related to management of time and money, impulsive sexuality

inatention predominates symptom profile

245
Q

etiology of ADHD

A

genetic component

lower than normal activity and smaller in size caudate nucleus, globes pallid us and prefrontal cortex

246
Q

behavioral disinhibition hypothesis

A

core features of ADHD is inability to regulate behavior to fit situational demands

247
Q

treatment of ADHD

A

methylphenidate (Ritlin) and other stimulants have beneficial effect on 75%

behavioral interventions

248
Q

National Institute of Mental Health Multimodal Treatment Study of ADHD (MTA)

A

initially: medication alone and combined tx were best compared to behavioral intervention alone

longitudinal follow up: results above didn’t persist and outcomes wre comparable to behavioral tx or community care

249
Q

Specific LD

A

difficulties re: academic skills (Reading, writing, math)

1) at least 1 characteristic symptom that persists for at least 6 mo despite intervention
2) academic skills are substantially below those expected for age, interfere with performance or ADLs
3) begin during school age

250
Q

associated features of LD

A

IQ is average to above
higher than normal rates of other problems - language delays, attention deficits, low self esteem

most frequent comorbidity: ADHD (20-30%)
also at higher risk for antisocial bx

251
Q

course /prognosis for ADHD

A

continue through adolescence and adulthood esp when severe

1/3 of children with reading disorders have psychosocial problems as adults

252
Q

gender and LD

A

2:1 -3:1 males:females

253
Q

etiology of LD

A

cerebellar- vestibular dysfunction; incomplete dominance and other hemispheric abnormalities; exposure to toxins (lead), genetics

254
Q

persistent (chronic) motor or vocal tic disorder

A

one or more motor OR vocal tics that have persisted for more than one year and began before age 18

255
Q

provisional tic disorder

A

one or more motor and/or vocal tics that have been present for less than one year and began before age 18

256
Q

treatment for medical procedures based on what theory

A

based on Meichenbaum’s stress inoculation model

257
Q

children ages __ have hardest time with hospitalizations

A

1-4

d/t separation from family

258
Q

risk of psychopathology is greatest for children with ___ medical condition

A

neurologic disorder (e.g., CP)

259
Q

CNS irradiation and intrathecal chemotherapy are associated with

A

impaired neuro cognitive functioning and LDs

260
Q

noncompliance in adolescence is often related to

A

concerns about peer acceptance, reduced conformity to rules, questioning of the credibility of health care provider, reduced parental supervision

261
Q

delusions common in schizophrenia

A

persecutory
referential (passages from books are directed at you)
bizarre

262
Q

most frequent hallucination

A

auditory

263
Q

Delusional disorder

A

presence of 1 or more delusions that last at least 1 mo.
not marked impairments in functioning

a) erotomanic (someone in love with you)
b) grandiose
c) jealous
d) persecutory
e) somatic

264
Q

Schizophrenia

A

at least 2 active phase sx (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, negative symptoms) for at least 1 month

at least 1 symptom has to be delusion, hallucination, or disorganized speech

continuous signs for 6 mo.

265
Q

associated features of schizophrenia

A 
inappropriate affect
dysphoric mood
disturbed sleep
no interest in eating
anosognosia (poor insight into illness) - predictor of relapse

substance use disorder (esp tobacco)
NOT violent behavior

266
Q

prevalence for schizophrenia

A

0.3 - 0.7%

slightly lower for females

267
Q

culture and schizophrenia

A

AA are often misdiagnosed d/t the fact they are more likely to experience hallucinations and delusions as symptoms of depression

developing countries: acute onset, shorter course, complete remission

268
Q

course/prognosis for schizophrenia

A

peak onset for males: mid-20s
peak onset for females: late 20s

better prognosis is associated with good premorbid adjustment, acute and late onset, female gender, presence of a precipitating event, brief duration of active phase symptoms, insight into illness, family history of mood disorder, no family history of schizophrenia

269
Q

etiology for schizophrenia

A

genetic component
brain abnormalities: enlarged ventricles, smaller hippocampus, amygdala, globes pallidus
lower activity in prefrontal cortex

Northern hemisphere - born in late winter or early spring (higher rate of infectious disease?)

270
Q

dopamine hypothesis for schizophrenia

A

elevated levels of dopamine

271
Q

differentiating schizophrenia from schizoaffective disorder, MDD, and bipolar with psychotic features

A

1) mood symptoms are brief relative to duration of the disorder
2) mood symptoms do not occur in active phase
3) do not meet full criteria for mood episode

272
Q

schizoaffective disorder v schizophrenia

A

schizoaffective disorder: prominent mood(depression or manic) symptoms occur concurrently with psychotic symptoms but there is also a period of at least 2 weeks with only psychotic symptoms.

273
Q

MDD and bipolar with psychotic features

A

psychotic sx only occur during mood disturbance

274
Q

treatment for schizophrenia

A

traditional (first gen) antipsychotics: haloperidol and fluphenazine: treat mostly positive sx. down side: tardive dyskinesia

atypical (second geo) antipsychotics: clozapine and risperidone - treat positive and neg sx. less likely to cause TD

best when combined with CBT, education, social skills, supported employment

family based interventions are best when they target high levels of expressed emotion among family members – linked to high relapse and rehospitalization

275
Q

Schizophreniform

A

same as schizophrenia EXCEPT present for at least one month but less than 6 mo.; impairments may occur but not necessarily

276
Q

Brief psychotic disorder

A

presence of at least one (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized behavior)

one sx has to be delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized. speech

sx present for one day but less than 1 month

277
Q

concordance rates for schizophrenia

A

bio sib - 10%
fraternal twin - 17%
identical twin - 48%
child of 2 parents with schizophrenia - 46%

278
Q

Bipolar I

A

at least 1 manic episode (at least one week) with at least 3 sx: inflated self-esteem or grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, excessive talkativeness, flight of ideas

MAY include hypomania or depression

279
Q

associated features of Bipolar I

A

anxiety and substance use

completed suicide is 15x more likely

280
Q

prevalence of Bipolar I

A

12 mo. prev = 0.6%

lifetime male: female = 1.1:1

281
Q

course of Bipolar I

A

average age for first episode is 18 yo

90% who experience 1 episode have others

282
Q

etiology of bipolar I

A

of psychiatric disorders, genetic factors have been most linked to bipolar disorders : twin studies show concordance rates from .67-1.0 for monozygotic twins

283
Q

treatment for bipolar I

A

lithium in 60-90% of cases

for poor lithium compliance or response - try anti-seizure drug: carbamazepine or divalproex sodium

drugs best when combined with psychosocial intervention (CBT, Family focused treatment, and interpersonal and social rhythm therapy)

284
Q

Bipolar II

A

1 hypomanic episode and 1 major depressive episode

hypomanic: lasts 4 days, not severe enough to cause impairment

MDD has to last 2 weeks

285
Q

Cyclothmic Disorder

A

numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms that don’t meet criteria for hypomanic episode; numerous periods of depressive symptoms that don’t meet criteria for MDD

cause sig distress or impairment

2 years in adults or 1 year in children. can’t be sx free for more than 2 mo.

286
Q

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

A

1) severe recurrent temper outbursts
2) chronic, persistently irritable mood on most days

sx for at least 12 mo; at least 2 settings
between 6 and 18. age of onset must be before 10 yo

287
Q

Major Depressive Disorder

A

at least 5 sx nearly every day for at least 2 weeks:
depressed mood, loss of interest, weight gain/loss or change in appetite, insomnia/hypersomnia, psychomotor agitation/retardation, fatigue or loss of energy, feeling worthless/guilty, poor concentration, SI

288
Q

peripartum onset

A

MDD, BP I, BP II when onset is during pregnancy or within 4 weeks postpartum

anxiety and preoccupation with infant’s well being

10-20% of women
only 0.1 to 0.2% develop postpartum psychosis

80% develop “baby blues” which is mild and transitory

289
Q

associated features of MDD

A

40-60% with EEG abnormalities in sleep

60% with anxiety - poorer prognosis, increased risk for suicide

290
Q

Prevalence of MDD

A

12 mo = 7%
18-29 yo 3x more likely than 60+
prior to puberty, rates are = for males and females; in early adolescence rate for females is 1.5 to 3 x rate for males

291
Q

course of MDD

A

peak age of onset is mid 20s

as number of episodes increases, risk of new episodes is related more to prior episodes than life stressor

292
Q

etiology of MDD

A

strong genetic component = .50 for MZ twins and .20 for DZ twins

MDD and neuroticism

cortisol and shrinkage in hippocampus

293
Q

catecholamine hypothesis

A

some forms of depression are due to deficiency in norepinephrine

294
Q

indolamine hypothesis

A

result of low levels of serotonin

  • now thought to be number and sensitivity of receptors, not neurotransmitter itself
295
Q

Lewinsohn’s behavioral theory of depression

A

based on operant conditioning

low rate of response-contingent reinforcement for social and other behaviors

296
Q

treatment for MDD

A

tricyclics (TCAs)- classic “vegetative”
SSRIs- first line tx for moderate to severe; fewer side effects than TCAs
MAOIs- do not respond to TCAs or SSRIs or who have atypical sx

meds and therapy best together than alone; CBT associated with lower risk of relapse than drugs

297
Q

Risk factors for suicide

A

Age: 45-54 for females; 75+ for males
Gender: 4x males as females commit suicide; females attempt 2-3x more
Race/ethnicity: highest for Whites except Indians ages 15-34
Marital Status: divorced, separated, widowed and then single
Previous Suicidal Thoughts and Behavior: 60-80% have made at least 1 previous attempt and about 80% give a warning
Early Warning Signs: self-harm, writing, talking about, making preparations
Life Stress: failure at work, rejection, living alone; adolescents – rejection by boyfriend or girlfriend or argument with parent
Psychiatric Disorders: mood disorder 15-20% more likely , esp when combined with ADHD, conduct, or substance use (with depression- most likely to occur 3mo after depression sx get better)
Personality: hopelessness, perfectionism
Biology: low levels of serotonin

298
Q

separation anxiety often manifests as

A

school refusal - esp during times of transition in school - MS and HS associated with social phobia

299
Q

etiology of separation anxiety

A

warm, close families; often precipitated by major life stressor

300
Q

treatment for separation anxiety

A

systematic desensitization or other behavioral intervention

older children - cognitive therapy

301
Q

Mower’s two-factor theory

A

attributes phobias to avoidance conditioning - involves a combination of classical and operant conditioning

302
Q

treatment for specific phobia

A

exposure with response prevention

303
Q

etiology of social anxiety

A

behavioral inhibition
info processing bias - attend selectively to socially threatening situations and overestimate likelihood of negative outcomes

304
Q

prevalence of panic disorders

A

2-3% for adolescents and adults
females 2x more likely than males
very unusual in children

305
Q

treatment for panic disorder

A

CBT with exposure

306
Q

agoraphobia v specific phobia v social anxiety

A

agoraphobia is fear of at least 2 situations compared to specific phobia - could be 1 situation
social anxiety - fear of being scrutinized by others

307
Q

treatment for agoraphobia

A

in vivo exposure with response prevention

some evidence that intensive (starting with most feared sit) has better long term effects

308
Q

of anxiety disorders __ is associated with highest comorbidity rates

A

GAD; 90%

309
Q

RAD onset

A

evident before age 5, must have developmental age of at least 9 mo

310
Q

disinhibited social engagement disorder

A

must have experienced extreme insufficient care

311
Q

PTSD

A
  1. exposure to trauma
  2. 1 intrusive sx
  3. avoidance
  4. negative changes in mood and cognition
  5. marked changes in arousal and reactivity associated with the event

sx for more than 1 mo

312
Q

treatment for PTSD

A

CBT; can have SSRI to treat comorbid anxiety/dep but risk of relapse is high when drug is discontinued

Cognitive Incident stress debriefing (CISD) - may worsen syptoms

EMDR - works but likely d/t exposure

313
Q

OCD v OCPD

A

OCPD - no obsessions or compulsions; preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, control

314
Q

anorexia etiology

A

90% female
genetic contribution
higher serotonin
research on family factors is inconsistent

315
Q

anorexia treatment

A

CBT

family therapy; when EE is high, separated FT is best

316
Q

treatment for BN

A

nutritional counseling and CBT

317
Q

treatment for insomnia

A

CBT

sleep hygiene, stimulus control, relaxation training, cognitive therapy

318
Q

non-rapid eye movement sleep arousal disorders

A

episodes of incomplete awakening that occur during first third of major sleep episode, usually during stage 3 or 4 sleep with sleepwalking or sleep terror

319
Q

Frotteuristic Disorder

A

intense sexual arousal from touching a non consenting adult

320
Q

treatment for paraphilias

A

used to be in vivo aversion

now: CBT including covert sensitization or orgasmic reconditioning

321
Q

diagnosis of substance use disorder can be applied to all drugs except

A

caffeine

322
Q

Conger’s tension-reduction hypothesis

A

alcohol reduces anxiety, fear, and other tension; addiction is result of negative reinforcement

323
Q

Marlatt & Gordon - Relapse Prevention Therapy (RPT)

A

addictive behaviors are acquired - overlearned, maladaptive habit pattern

relapse is a mistake resulting from specific, external, and controllable factors

identify what increases risk for relapse - implement C and B strategies to prevent future lapses

324
Q

predictive factors to quit smoking

A 
male
35 +
college edu
smoke free home, smoke free at work
married or partenred
started smoking at a later age
low level of nicotine dependence 
abstained for longer than 5 days in previous attempts to quit
325
Q

smoking cessation intervention increases long term abstinence when

A

1) nicotine replacement therapy
2) multicomponent behavioral therapy
3) support and assistance from a clinician

326
Q

Korsakoff Syndrome

A

anterograde and retrograde amnesia and confabulation - linked to thiamine deficiency

327
Q

opioid withdrawal

A

dysphoric mood, nausea/vomitting, muscle aches, lacrimation or rhinorrhea, pupillary dilation, piloerection, sweating, diarrhea, yawning, fever, insomnia

328
Q

tobacco withdrwal

A

iritability, anger, anxiety, impaired concentration, increased appetite, restlessness, depressed mood, insomnia

329
Q

neurocognitive disorder d/t alzheimers

A

major or minor neurocognitive disorder
insidious onset of symptoms
gradual progression of impairment in one or more cognitive domains

accounts for 60-90% of dementia cases

330
Q

course of alzheimer’s

A

stage 1 (1-3 yrs): anterograde amnesia, wandering, indifference, irritability, sadness

stage 2 (2-10 yrs): retrograde amnesia, flat or labile mood, restlessness and agitation, delusions, fluent aphasia, can’t translate idea into movement

stage 3 (8-12 yrs): severely deteriorated intellectual functioning, apathy, limb rigidity, urinary and fecal incontinence

331
Q

course of BPD

A

most chronic and severe when YA

75% no longer meet all diagnostic criteria by age 40

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