Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

DOC for Syphilis

A

Penicillin G

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2
Q

Methicillin was withdrawn due to the incidence of?

A

Interstitial nephritis

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3
Q

Anti-staphylococcal penicillins?

A
  1. Methicillin
  2. Nafcillin
  3. Oxacillin
  4. Cloxacillin
  5. Dicloxacillin
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4
Q

Azlocillin and Mezlocillin were withdrawn due to the incidence of ?

A

Blood dyscrasia : any condition that affects the blood, bone marrow, or lymph tissue.

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5
Q

Extended spectrum penicillins

A

Ampicillin
Amoxicillin

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6
Q

Piperacillin , Ticarcillin, Carbenicillin are for infections due to?

A

Pseudomonas
Enterobacter
Klebsiella

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7
Q

Spectrum of activity of 1st gen cephalosporins

A

“PEcK FIRST “
Proteus mirabilis
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae

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8
Q

Spectrum of activity of 2ng gen cephalosporins?

A

“HEN PEcKS”
H influenzae
Enterobacter aerogenes
Neisseria spp.
Proteus mirabilis
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pneumonia
Serratia marcescens

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9
Q

Cephalosporins causing a disulfiram-like reaction?

A

“ I MET a MAN who FOUGHT for TONS of MONEY and DIED SOON (Disulfiram)
Cefometazole
Cefamandole
Cefotetan
Cefoperazone

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10
Q

Anti-psedomonal cephalosporins?

A

Ceftazidime
Cefepime
Cefoperazone

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11
Q

Antipsedomonal Cephalosporins

A

Ceftazidime
Cefepime
Cefoperazone

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12
Q

All third gen cephalosporins penetrate the BBB except?

A

Cefoperazone
Cefixime

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13
Q

DOC for gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone

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14
Q

Effective drug for treatment of soft chancre / chancroid ?

A

Ceftriaxone

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15
Q

Antibiotic that may be given for both proteus & pseudomonas?

A

Cefepime

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16
Q

Empiric treatment for septic arthritis

A

Vancomycin

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17
Q

Drugs may be given in the treatment of MRSA

A

Vancomycin
Ceftaroline
Linezolid
Clindamycin

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18
Q

Cephalosporin used for MRSA infections

A

Ceftaroline

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19
Q

Aztreonam uses

A

Infections resistant to btea-lactamases produced by gram negative rods, including Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, Serratia.

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20
Q

Carbapenems are active against Pseudomonas and Acinetobacter except?

A

Ertapenem ( kasi ma Arte sya)

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21
Q

Reversible inhibitor of Xanthine oxidase?

A

Febuxostat

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22
Q

Irreversible inhibitor of Xanthine oxidase?

A

Allopurinol

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23
Q

Empiric treatment considered for an adult patient with fever, joint pain, and restricted range of morion.

A

Vancomycin + Ceftriaxone

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24
Q

Moa of Relebactam, Vabrobactam?

A

Carbapenamase inhibitors ( novel)

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25
Antibiotic causing Red Man Syndrome?
Vancomycin
26
Antibiotic causing gray baby syndrome?
Chloramphenicol
27
Bacitracin is reserved for topical use only due to?
Marked nephrotoxicity
28
DOC for shigella infection?
Quinolones: first line Azithromycin
29
Adverse effects associated with Streptomycin?
Nephrotoxicity Ototoxicity Neuromuscular blockage
30
Protein synthesis inhibitors : 30s 50s
30s Tetracycline Aminoglycosides 50s Chloramphenicol Erythromycin Lincosamides Linezolid “buy AT 30s CELL at 50s”
31
All bacterial protein synthesis inhibitors are bacteriostatic except?
Aminoglycosides Streptogramins Chloramphenicol ( to Neisseria, Hemophilus, Bacteroides, S. Pneumoniae)
32
Antibiotic also used for SIADH
Demeclocycline
33
The macrolide witha good pharmacokinetic profile and is neither an inhibitor or inducer.
Azithromycin
34
Antibiotic also used for SIADH
Demeclocycline
35
Azithromycin advantages over Erythromycin?
1. Longer duration of action 2. Higher volume of distribution in the body 3. No inhibition on CYP450
36
Antibiotic that has activity against treponema, chlamydia and neisseria?
Doxycycline
37
Antibiotics that most commonly cause pseudomembranous colitis
Clindamycin Ampicillin
38
Treatment for pseudomembranous colitis?
Metronidazole Oral vancomycin Fidaxomycin
39
DOC for community acquired MRSA
Clindamycin
40
DOC for Hospital Acquired MRSA
Vancomycin
41
Treatment for VRSA
Linezolid Quinupristin - Dalfopristin
42
Most ototoxic aminoglycosides
Kanamycin Amikacyn “Toxic KA”
43
Used for drug resistant gonorrhea?
Spectinomycin
44
Combining a sulfonamide + trimethoprim produces what kind of drug interaction?
Synergism ( cidal together, static alone)
45
DOC for toxoplasmosis?
Sulfadiazine - Pyremethamine
46
MOA of Quinolones
Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase ) inhibitors in gram negative . Topoisomerase IV inhibitors in gram-positive
47
Quinolone with a high rate for development of resistance?
Nalidixic acid
48
Most active quinolone against gram negative organism esp pseudomonas?
Ciprofloxacin
49
Grepafloxacin was withdrawn due to the incidence of?
Cardiotoxicity/ Arrhythmia
50
Gatifloxacin was withdrawn due to incidence of?
Diabetes mellitus ( Gatamis)
51
Most hepatotoxic Anti-TB drugs?
Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol
52
Anti-TB drugs need dose adjustment when GFR <30
Pyrazinamide
53
Anti-TB drug that causes asymptomatichyperuricemia
Pyrazinamide
54
Hepatoxicity of Anti-TB deugs?
Isoniazid < Rifampin < Pyrazinamide
55
Responsible for tingling sensation of hands among TB medicatons
Isoniazid
56
Ocular manifestation of toxicity associated with Ethambutol?
Red green color blindness
57
Anti - TB drugs side effects?
Rifampicin: red orange body fluids Isoniazid: Hepatitis, neurotoxicity (B6) Ethambutol: visual disturbances
58
Sterilizing agent used the first 2 months of TB treatment
Pyrazinamide
59
Most active drug against M. leprae
Dapsone
60
Moa of terbinafine
Interfere with ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting fungal squalene oxidase
61
Moa of amphothericin B
Binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, forming artificial pores
62
Adverse effect associated with aminoglycosides?
Hypersensitivity Ototoxicity Neurotoxicity
63
Combining amphotericin B and Aminoglycosides increases the risk for?
Nephrotoxicity
64
Examples of Triazoles ?
Posaconazole Itraconazole Voriconazole Fluconazole “Pak, Impaktang Veki Forever”
65
Drug used for influenza A only
Uncoating inhibitors Amantadine ( also for Parkinsons) Rimantadine
66
DOC for uncomplicated chloroquine resistant P. falciparum
Artemether + Lumefantrine ( CoArtem)
67
Side effects of the deug Quinine and Quinidine?
Blackwater fever, Cinchonism
68
Luminal amebicides
Diloxanide furoate Iodoquinol Paromomycin “ take a DIP in the lumen”
69
DOC for early West African sleeping sickness?
Pentamidine
70
DOC for early West African sleeping sickness with CNS involvement ?
Eflornithine
71
DOC for early East African sleeping sickness?
Suramin
72
DOC for early East African sleeping sickness with CNS involvement ?
Melarsoprol
73
DOC for trematodes and cestodes
Praziquantel
74
DOC for Whipworm
Mebendazole ( Me bending a Whip)
75
DOC of Strongyloides
Ivermectin “ Ivan is so Strong”
76
Drugs that may result to a Mazzotti reaction?
Diethylcarbamazine , Ivermectin
77
Treatment of chronic paronychia
Topical azole
78
Antibiotic of choice for trichomoniasis
Metronidazole
79
Treatment for beef tapeworm?
Praziquantel m Niclosamide
80
Side effects of Metronidazole
GI irritation Metallic taste Dark urine Leukopenia Disulfiram reaction
81
MOA of Albendazole?
Inhibits microtubule assembly
82
Anthelmentics that can be used for strongyloidiasis?
Ivermectin Thiabendazole Albendazole
83
Antifungal limited to topical preparation?
Ketoconazole
84
Drug that can be used to treat pinworm?
Pyrantel pamoate Albendazole Mebendazole
85
Anti-pseudomonal penicillin that may given alone, without a beta lactamase inhibitor?
Carbenicillin
86
Drugs with anti-folate activity
Methotrexate Sulfa drugs Trimethoprim
87
Treatment of infections with HPV
Trichloroacetic acid Podophyllin Imiquimod
88
Virus susceptible to Acyclovir
Varicella zoster CMV infection HSV infection
89
Drug of choice for Influenza
Oseltamivir
90
Virus susceptible to Acyclovir?
Varicella zooster CMV infection HSV infection
91
Treatment of choice for Acyclovir - resistant HSV infection and can be used as substitute for CMV retinitis
Foscarnet
92
Treatment for pregnant patient at 25 wks AOG diagnosed with Lymphgranuloma venereum
Erythromycin
93
Anti-fungal drug with good CSF penetration
Fluconazole