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Pharmacology > Antibiotics > Flashcards

Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

DOC for Syphilis

A

Penicillin G

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2
Q

Methicillin was withdrawn due to the incidence of?

A

Interstitial nephritis

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3
Q

Anti-staphylococcal penicillins?

A
  1. Methicillin
  2. Nafcillin
  3. Oxacillin
  4. Cloxacillin
  5. Dicloxacillin
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4
Q

Azlocillin and Mezlocillin were withdrawn due to the incidence of ?

A

Blood dyscrasia : any condition that affects the blood, bone marrow, or lymph tissue.

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5
Q

Extended spectrum penicillins

A

Ampicillin
Amoxicillin

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6
Q

Piperacillin , Ticarcillin, Carbenicillin are for infections due to?

A

Pseudomonas
Enterobacter
Klebsiella

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7
Q

Spectrum of activity of 1st gen cephalosporins

A

“PEcK FIRST “
Proteus mirabilis
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae

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8
Q

Spectrum of activity of 2ng gen cephalosporins?

A

“HEN PEcKS”
H influenzae
Enterobacter aerogenes
Neisseria spp.
Proteus mirabilis
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pneumonia
Serratia marcescens

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9
Q

Cephalosporins causing a disulfiram-like reaction?

A

“ I MET a MAN who FOUGHT for TONS of MONEY and DIED SOON (Disulfiram)
Cefometazole
Cefamandole
Cefotetan
Cefoperazone

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10
Q

Anti-psedomonal cephalosporins?

A

Ceftazidime
Cefepime
Cefoperazone

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11
Q

Antipsedomonal Cephalosporins

A

Ceftazidime
Cefepime
Cefoperazone

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12
Q

All third gen cephalosporins penetrate the BBB except?

A

Cefoperazone
Cefixime

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13
Q

DOC for gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone

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14
Q

Effective drug for treatment of soft chancre / chancroid ?

A

Ceftriaxone

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15
Q

Antibiotic that may be given for both proteus & pseudomonas?

A

Cefepime

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16
Q

Empiric treatment for septic arthritis

A

Vancomycin

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17
Q

Drugs may be given in the treatment of MRSA

A

Vancomycin
Ceftaroline
Linezolid
Clindamycin

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18
Q

Cephalosporin used for MRSA infections

A

Ceftaroline

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19
Q

Aztreonam uses

A

Infections resistant to btea-lactamases produced by gram negative rods, including Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, Serratia.

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20
Q

Carbapenems are active against Pseudomonas and Acinetobacter except?

A

Ertapenem ( kasi ma Arte sya)

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21
Q

Reversible inhibitor of Xanthine oxidase?

A

Febuxostat

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22
Q

Irreversible inhibitor of Xanthine oxidase?

A

Allopurinol

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23
Q

Empiric treatment considered for an adult patient with fever, joint pain, and restricted range of morion.

A

Vancomycin + Ceftriaxone

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24
Q

Moa of Relebactam, Vabrobactam?

A

Carbapenamase inhibitors ( novel)

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25
Q

Antibiotic causing Red Man Syndrome?

A

Vancomycin

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26
Q

Antibiotic causing gray baby syndrome?

A

Chloramphenicol

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27
Q

Bacitracin is reserved for topical use only due to?

A

Marked nephrotoxicity

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28
Q

DOC for shigella infection?

A

Quinolones: first line
Azithromycin

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29
Q

Adverse effects associated with Streptomycin?

A

Nephrotoxicity
Ototoxicity
Neuromuscular blockage

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30
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitors : 30s 50s

A

30s
Tetracycline
Aminoglycosides

50s
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Lincosamides
Linezolid

“buy AT 30s CELL at 50s”

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31
Q

All bacterial protein synthesis inhibitors are bacteriostatic except?

A

Aminoglycosides
Streptogramins
Chloramphenicol
( to Neisseria, Hemophilus, Bacteroides, S. Pneumoniae)

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32
Q

Antibiotic also used for SIADH

A

Demeclocycline

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33
Q

The macrolide witha good pharmacokinetic profile and is neither an inhibitor or inducer.

A

Azithromycin

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34
Q

Antibiotic also used for SIADH

A

Demeclocycline

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35
Q

Azithromycin advantages over Erythromycin?

A
  1. Longer duration of action
  2. Higher volume of distribution in the body
  3. No inhibition on CYP450
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36
Q

Antibiotic that has activity against treponema, chlamydia and neisseria?

A

Doxycycline

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37
Q

Antibiotics that most commonly cause pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clindamycin
Ampicillin

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38
Q

Treatment for pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Metronidazole
Oral vancomycin
Fidaxomycin

39
Q

DOC for community acquired MRSA

A

Clindamycin

40
Q

DOC for Hospital Acquired MRSA

A

Vancomycin

41
Q

Treatment for VRSA

A

Linezolid
Quinupristin - Dalfopristin

42
Q

Most ototoxic aminoglycosides

A

Kanamycin
Amikacyn
“Toxic KA”

43
Q

Used for drug resistant gonorrhea?

A

Spectinomycin

44
Q

Combining a sulfonamide + trimethoprim produces what kind of drug interaction?

A

Synergism ( cidal together, static alone)

45
Q

DOC for toxoplasmosis?

A

Sulfadiazine - Pyremethamine

46
Q

MOA of Quinolones

A

Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase ) inhibitors in gram negative .
Topoisomerase IV inhibitors in gram-positive

47
Q

Quinolone with a high rate for development of resistance?

A

Nalidixic acid

48
Q

Most active quinolone against gram negative organism esp pseudomonas?

A

Ciprofloxacin

49
Q

Grepafloxacin was withdrawn due to the incidence of?

A

Cardiotoxicity/ Arrhythmia

50
Q

Gatifloxacin was withdrawn due to incidence of?

A

Diabetes mellitus ( Gatamis)

51
Q

Most hepatotoxic Anti-TB drugs?

A

Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol

52
Q

Anti-TB drugs need dose adjustment when GFR <30

A

Pyrazinamide

53
Q

Anti-TB drug that causes asymptomatichyperuricemia

A

Pyrazinamide

54
Q

Hepatoxicity of Anti-TB deugs?

A

Isoniazid < Rifampin < Pyrazinamide

55
Q

Responsible for tingling sensation of hands among TB medicatons

A

Isoniazid

56
Q

Ocular manifestation of toxicity associated with Ethambutol?

A

Red green color blindness

57
Q

Anti - TB drugs side effects?

A

Rifampicin: red orange body fluids
Isoniazid: Hepatitis, neurotoxicity (B6)
Ethambutol: visual disturbances

58
Q

Sterilizing agent used the first 2 months of TB treatment

A

Pyrazinamide

59
Q

Most active drug against M. leprae

A

Dapsone

60
Q

Moa of terbinafine

A

Interfere with ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting fungal squalene oxidase

61
Q

Moa of amphothericin B

A

Binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, forming artificial pores

62
Q

Adverse effect associated with aminoglycosides?

A

Hypersensitivity
Ototoxicity
Neurotoxicity

63
Q

Combining amphotericin B and Aminoglycosides increases the risk for?

A

Nephrotoxicity

64
Q

Examples of Triazoles ?

A

Posaconazole
Itraconazole
Voriconazole
Fluconazole

“Pak, Impaktang Veki Forever”

65
Q

Drug used for influenza A only

A

Uncoating inhibitors
Amantadine ( also for Parkinsons)
Rimantadine

66
Q

DOC for uncomplicated chloroquine resistant P. falciparum

A

Artemether + Lumefantrine ( CoArtem)

67
Q

Side effects of the deug Quinine and Quinidine?

A

Blackwater fever, Cinchonism

68
Q

Luminal amebicides

A

Diloxanide furoate
Iodoquinol
Paromomycin

“ take a DIP in the lumen”

69
Q

DOC for early West African sleeping sickness?

A

Pentamidine

70
Q

DOC for early West African sleeping sickness with CNS involvement ?

A

Eflornithine

71
Q

DOC for early East African sleeping sickness?

A

Suramin

72
Q

DOC for early East African sleeping sickness with CNS involvement ?

A

Melarsoprol

73
Q

DOC for trematodes and cestodes

A

Praziquantel

74
Q

DOC for Whipworm

A

Mebendazole ( Me bending a Whip)

75
Q

DOC of Strongyloides

A

Ivermectin
“ Ivan is so Strong”

76
Q

Drugs that may result to a Mazzotti reaction?

A

Diethylcarbamazine , Ivermectin

77
Q

Treatment of chronic paronychia

A

Topical azole

78
Q

Antibiotic of choice for trichomoniasis

A

Metronidazole

79
Q

Treatment for beef tapeworm?

A

Praziquantel m Niclosamide

80
Q

Side effects of Metronidazole

A

GI irritation
Metallic taste
Dark urine
Leukopenia
Disulfiram reaction

81
Q

MOA of Albendazole?

A

Inhibits microtubule assembly

82
Q

Anthelmentics that can be used for strongyloidiasis?

A

Ivermectin
Thiabendazole
Albendazole

83
Q

Antifungal limited to topical preparation?

A

Ketoconazole

84
Q

Drug that can be used to treat pinworm?

A

Pyrantel pamoate
Albendazole
Mebendazole

85
Q

Anti-pseudomonal penicillin that may given alone, without a beta lactamase inhibitor?

A

Carbenicillin

86
Q

Drugs with anti-folate activity

A

Methotrexate
Sulfa drugs
Trimethoprim

87
Q

Treatment of infections with HPV

A

Trichloroacetic acid
Podophyllin
Imiquimod

88
Q

Virus susceptible to Acyclovir

A

Varicella zoster
CMV infection
HSV infection

89
Q

Drug of choice for Influenza

A

Oseltamivir

90
Q

Virus susceptible to Acyclovir?

A

Varicella zooster
CMV infection
HSV infection

91
Q

Treatment of choice for Acyclovir - resistant HSV infection and can be used as substitute for CMV retinitis

A

Foscarnet

92
Q

Treatment for pregnant patient at 25 wks AOG diagnosed with Lymphgranuloma venereum

A

Erythromycin

93
Q

Anti-fungal drug with good CSF penetration

A

Fluconazole

Pharmacology (12 decks)

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