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Anything Under The Sun > Animal Science Quiz Bowl Questions > Flashcards

Animal Science Quiz Bowl Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is a cat that is a mix of various breeds?

A

Common House Cat

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2
Q

What is the process of animals being tamed by humans?

A

Domestication

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3
Q

What is the term for being medically put to sleep?

A

Euthanized

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4
Q

What is a rare or unusual animal that is kept as a pet?

A

Exotic Pet

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5
Q

What are dogs that have the instinct to herd other animals?

A

Herding Dogs

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6
Q

What are dogs that have the capability to track either by scent or sight?

A

Hounds

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7
Q

What is the process of preventing male animals from reproducing by removing the reproductive organs?

A

Neutering

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8
Q

What is a diverse breed of dog that ranges in terms of appearance, size, and personality?

A

Non-Sporting

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9
Q

What is a pedigreed feline animal of unmixed lineage?

A

Purebred Cats

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10
Q

What is the process of preventing a female animal from reproducing by removing the reproductive organs?

A

Spaying

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11
Q

What type of dogs are known for their instincts in the woods and water?

A

Sporting Dogs

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12
Q

What type of dog is energetic and feisty?

A

Terriers

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13
Q

What type of dogs are small and known for their companionship?

A

Toy Breeds

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14
Q

What type of dogs have been developed to perform jobs such as protecting property or livestock, or pulling sleds?

A

Working Dogs

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15
Q

What animal is a man’s best friend?

A

Dog

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16
Q

What is any animal not considered livestock that is used as a personal companion?

A

Small Animal

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17
Q

Over time humans have shifted from being hunters to being what?

A

Farmers

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18
Q

What was the first domesticated animal?

A

Dogs

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19
Q

What was the second domesticated animal?

A

Cats

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20
Q

According to one popular theory, whom did dogs evolve from?

A

Wolf Pups

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21
Q

How many years ago do dog fossils date back to?

A

15,000 Years Ago

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22
Q

Approximately how many years ago were cats domesticated?

A

4,000 Years Ago

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23
Q

Who depicted cats in statues and inscriptions?

A

Egyptians

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24
Q

What have cats long been known for their ability to control?

A

Rats and Mice

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25
Q

According to the 2009 National Pet Owners Survey, approximately what percent of U.S. households own a pet?

A

62%

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26
Q

How many dogs and cats are pets in the United States?

A

More than 171 Million

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27
Q

In 2008, how many dollars were spent on pets in the United States?

A

$43.2 Billion

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28
Q

How many birds do pet owners in the United States own?

A

15 Million

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29
Q

How many cats do pet owners in the United States own?

A

93.6 Million

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30
Q

How many dogs do pet owners in the United States own?

A

77.5 Million

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31
Q

How many fish do pet owners in the United States own?

A

182.9 Million

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32
Q

How many reptiles do pet owners in the United States own?

A

13.6 Million

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33
Q

How many dollars are spent in the United States on pet food?

A

16.8 Billion

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34
Q

How many dollars are spent in the United States on pet supplies/OTC medicine?

A

$10 Billion

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35
Q

How many dollars are spent in the United States on veterinary care of pets?

A

11.1 Billion

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36
Q

How many dollars are spent in the United States on live animal purchases?

A

2.1 Billion

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37
Q

How many dollars are spent in the United States on pet services?

A

3.2 Billion

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38
Q

How many breeds of dogs does the American Kennel Club recognize?

A

199

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39
Q

How many groups of breeds of dog division are recognized by the American Kennel Club?

A

7

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40
Q

What are the seven groups that the American Kennel Club divides the breeds of dogs into?

A

Sporting dogs, Hounds, Working dogs, Terriers, Toy dogs, Herding dogs, and non-sporting Dogs

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41
Q

What group of dogs includes pointers, retrievers, setters, and spaniels?

A

Sporting Dogs

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42
Q

What group of dogs includes beagles, bassets, dachshunds, and coonhounds?

A

Hounds

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43
Q

What group of dogs are used by hunters to track game and by law officials to track criminals?

A

Hounds

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44
Q

What group of dogs includes rescue dogs and police dogs?

A

Working Dogs

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45
Q

What group of dogs includes great Pyrenees, German Shepherd, and Siberian Husky?

A

Working Dogs

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46
Q

What were the ancestors of the terriers bred for?

A

Hunt and Kill Vermin

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47
Q

What groups of dogs includes the fox terrier and miniature schnauzer?

A

Terriers

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48
Q

What group of dogs included the chihuahua, pug, shih tzu, and perkingese?

A

Toy Breeds

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49
Q

What groups of dogs are considered great lap dogs?

A

Toy Breeds

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50
Q

What group of dogs have a great ability to control where other animals move?

A

Herding Dogs

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51
Q

What group of dogs included the Australian shepherd, collie, border collie, and old English sheepdog?

A

Herding Dogs

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52
Q

What group of dogs includes the Boston terrier, Dalmatian, poodle, and Bulldog?

A

Non-Sporting

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53
Q

What happens to many dogs whose owners are not able to care for them and did not realize the responsibility required for them?

A

They are abandoned

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54
Q

How many cats and dogs are euthanized in shelters in the United States?

A

More than 3 Million

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55
Q

What are two methods for controlling the animal population depending on the gender of the pet?

A

Spaying and Neutering

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56
Q

What effect does spaying or neutering a pet have on the animal?

A

Calming

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57
Q

What are two purposes for cats?

A

Companionship and Pest Control

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58
Q

What instinct do cats use for pest control?

A

Hunting Instincts

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59
Q

Why do cats require less care than dogs?

A

They Have a Independent Nature

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60
Q

What two groups are purebred cats divided into?

A

Short Haired and Long Haired Breeds

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61
Q

What is not necessary for short haired cat breeds?

A

Brushing

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62
Q

How many breeds of cat are recognized in the United States?

A

36

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63
Q

What breed of cats are people probably most familiar with?

A

Common House Cats

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64
Q

What is a common house cat?

A

A Mix or Cross of Various Breeds

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65
Q

What two ways are rabbits raised?

A

Commercially or as a Hobby

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66
Q

What are commercially raised rabbits used for?

A

Meat production, fur and wool production, laboratory research, and pets

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67
Q

Where is rabbit meat marketed?

A

Grocery Stores and Restaurants

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68
Q

How is the texture of rabbit meat described?

A

Very Fine Textured

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69
Q

What makes rabbit meat easily digestible?

A

Low Fiber Content

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70
Q

How many estimated pounds of rabbit meat do Americans consume each year?

A

35 Million Pounds

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71
Q

What are the three most common breeds of rabbits used for wool or fur?

A

Rex, Satin, and Angora

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72
Q

Which breed of rabbit used to produce fur or wool produces short fur that is very soft?

A

Rex

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73
Q

Which breed of rabbit used to produce fur or wool produces fur that has an intense color and tends to have a slick, shiny appearance?

A

Satin

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74
Q

Why does the Satin breed of rabbit’s fur have a slick, shiny appearance?

A

The Transparent Outer Shell of the Fur

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75
Q

What breed of rabbits used to produce fur or wool produces a wool that is softer, warmer, and lighter than sheep wool?

A

Angora

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76
Q

Who primarily uses Angora rabbit wool in the United States?

A

Hand Spinners

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77
Q

How many rabbits were used for research in 1991 compared to 240,000 used in 2006?

A

400,000

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78
Q

How many breeds of rabbits does the American Rabbit Association recognize?

A

50

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79
Q

Rabbits range in size from what to what?

A

Dwarf to large

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80
Q

How much will a dwarf rabbit weigh depending on the breed?

A

4 Pounds or Less

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81
Q

How much can a large breed of rabbits weigh?

A

16 Pounds or More

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82
Q

What are pets ranging from a snake or reptile to a hamster or gerbil examples of?

A

Exotic Pets

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83
Q

What is an important fact about the domestication of exotic pets that should be remembered if you chose to own one?

A

Many are not Domesticated but just tamed wild animals.

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84
Q

What type of care is not as readily available for exotic pets as it is for cats and dogs?

A

Veterinary care

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85
Q

What are the four basic needs of small animals?

A

Food, water, shelter, and attention

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86
Q

What should determine the type of pet that a person can care for responsibly?

A

Lifestyle

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87
Q

What are two examples of a pet that would be good for a person who is always away from home a lot?

A

Fish or Hamster

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88
Q

What are the four basic maintenance requirements for all pets?

A

feeding, grooming, bathing, and health care.

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89
Q

What does the health of your pet depend upon?

A

Your willingness to care for it.

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90
Q

What schedule do dogs and cats have that should be followed to ensure the health of the animal?

A

Vaccination

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91
Q

When should a dog receive its Distemper, Measles, Para influenza(CPI), and viviparous vaccination?

A

6-8 Weeks Old

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92
Q

When should a dog receive its DHLPP vaccinations?

A

8-12 Weeks Old

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93
Q

When should a dog receive its rabies vaccinations?

A

12 Weeks Old

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94
Q

When should a dog receive its last DHLPP vaccination?

A

16 Weeks Old

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95
Q

When should a dog receive its last rabies vaccination?

A

12 Months Old

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96
Q

What diseases are vaccinated with the DHLPP vaccine?

A

Distemper, Hepatitis, Leptospirosis,Para Influenza, and Parvovirus

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97
Q

When should a cat receive its Panleukopenia, Pinotracheitis, and Calicivirus vaccinations?

A

6-8 Weeks

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98
Q

When should a cat receive its 2nd FPV, FVR, and FCV and 1st Feline Leukemia vaccinations?

A

12 Weeks

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99
Q

When should a cat have its 1st rabies, 2nd FeLV, 3rd FPV, and FCV vaccinations?

A

16 Weeks

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100
Q

When should a cat receive its FPV, FVR, VCV, FeLV and rabies vaccination?

A

16 Months and each year

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101
Q

What should you provide a cat to urinate and defecate in?

A

Litter Box

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102
Q

Why should cats not be fed dog food?

A

Dog food has less protein.

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103
Q

What is one of the most important aspects to routine maintenance?

A

Feeding

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104
Q

How much can a puppy cost during its first year of ownership?

A

$500-$1000

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105
Q

How much should you expect a kitten to cost for the first year of care?

A

$400-$800

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106
Q

How much should a small bird such as a finch approximately cost for its first year of care?

A

$250

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107
Q

Why should you have more cost the first year you own a pet?

A

The need to purchase new equipment.

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108
Q

What are three costs that should be expected yearly when owning an animal?

A

Feed, vaccinations, and veterinary expenses

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109
Q

What species makes up the most total number of pets owned in the United States?

A

Fish

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110
Q

What age does a cat require its first vaccinations?

A

6-8 Weeks Old

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111
Q

What age does a dog require its first vaccinations?

A

6-8 Weeks Old

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112
Q

What is the protein that makes the white of the egg?

A

Albumen

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113
Q

What is a term that represents small sized breeds of chickens?

A

Bantams

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114
Q

What are young meat chickens?

A

Broilers

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115
Q

What is specialized care of chickens during the first few weeks of life?

A

Brooding

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116
Q

What is a castrated male chicken?

A

Capon

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117
Q

What is a young immature chicken?

A

Chick

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118
Q

What is a mature male chicken that has not been castrated or canonized and is also called a rooster?

A

Cock

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119
Q

What is a young male chicken under one year of age?

A

Cockerel

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120
Q

What is to discard from a flock or herd?

A

Cull

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121
Q

What is removal of the beak tip on young chickens called?

A

Debeaking

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122
Q

What is a mature male duck?

A

Drake

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123
Q

What are animals used for more than one purpose such as milk, eggs, and fiber called?

A

Dual-Purpose

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124
Q

What is a young duck weighing 6 to 7 pounds?

A

Duckling

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125
Q

What is a group of chickens?

A

Flock

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126
Q

What is a group of geese?

A

Gaggle

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127
Q

What is a term for a male goose?

A

Gander

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128
Q

What are specially poultry meats such as heart, gizzard and livers called?

A

Giblets

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129
Q

what is a specific term for a female goose?

A

Goose

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130
Q

What is an uncastrated male goat?

A

Buck

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131
Q

What is a young male or female goose?

A

Gosling

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132
Q

What is a mature female chicken, duck, or turkey?

A

Hen

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133
Q

What is a device that regulates the environment so chicken embryos can develop properly?

A

Incubator

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134
Q

What are egg-producing chickens?

A

Layers

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135
Q

What are parts of an animal that are inedible by humans after slaughter?

A

Offal

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136
Q

What is the reproductive tract of a female chicken?

A

Oviduct

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137
Q

What is a young male or female turkey?

A

Poult

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138
Q

What is a young female chicken under one year of age?

A

Pullet

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139
Q

What is a mature male chicken that has not been castrated or canonized and is also called a cock?

A

Rooster

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140
Q

What is a hen that no longer produces eggs?

A

Spent Hen

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141
Q

What is a male turkey that is past one year of age?

A

Tom

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142
Q

How much money does the poultry industry contribute to the Oklahoma economy each year?

A

More than $400 Million

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143
Q

Where are broiler producers mostly located in Oklahoma?

A

Eastern Part of the State

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144
Q

How many birds per year can broiler producers raise?

A

More then $80,000

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145
Q

What is a term used to describe domesticated birds that are kept for eggs and meat?

A

Poultry

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146
Q

Which bird dominates the United States poultry industry?

A

Chickens

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147
Q

Who were some of the earliest people known to have used clay incubators to hatch eggs?

A

Ancient Egyptians

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148
Q

Who were some of the earliest known people to have raised poultry for eggs and meat?

A

Ancient Egyptians

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149
Q

When were the first chickens brought to the United States?

A

Early 1600’

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150
Q

The first chickens brought to the United States in the early 1600’ arrived at what colony?

A

Jamestown colony

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151
Q

When did the first commercial hatchery open in the United States?

A

1870

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152
Q

When was the American Poultry Association founded?

A

1873

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153
Q

What year did the American Poultry Association first publish the American Standard of Perfection?

A

1874

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154
Q

What does the American Standard of Perfection describe?

A

Various Poultry Breeds

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155
Q

What is battery raised chicken mean?

A

The use of a series of stacked cages to house the birds.

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156
Q

When did the USDA begin inspecting poultry products for wholesomeness through the Federal Poultry Inspection Service?

A

Between 1926 and 1928

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157
Q

Between 1926 and 1928, the USDA began inspecting poultry products for wholesomeness through what?

A

The Federal Poultry Inspection service

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158
Q

When was mechanical poultry dressing first used?

A

1940

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159
Q

What happened in 1940 that led to the current large scale, highly mechanized style of poultry processing used today?

A

Mechanical Poultry dressing was first used.

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160
Q

When did Colonel Sanders first begin his Kentucky Fried Chicken franchise business?

A

1952

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161
Q

Who began the Kentucky Fried Chicken franchise business?

A

Colonel Sanders

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162
Q

How many pounds of chicken do Kentucky Fried Chicken restaurants serve every year?

A

900 Million pounds

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163
Q

What year did Congress pass the Poultry Products Inspection Act?

A

1957

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164
Q

What did Congress pass in 1957 related to the poultry industry?

A

Poultry Products Inspection Act

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165
Q

What did Congress pass in 1968?

A

Wholesome Poultry Products Act

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166
Q

When did Congress pass the wholesome Poultry Products Act?

A

1968

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167
Q

In what years did cash receipts for poultry sales begin to exceed those for hogs?

A

Early 1980’s

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168
Q

when did chicken consumption increase to the point that it began to equal or exceed that of beef?

A

1990’s

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169
Q

Until the 1990s, what was America’s most consumed meat?

A

Beef

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170
Q

What contents of chicken tend to be generally lower then that of beef or pork?

A

Fat and Cholesterol

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171
Q

What is the most nutritionally complete foods?

A

Eggs

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172
Q

What is considered to be superior to other protein sources including cow’s milk, fish and beef?

A

Protein quality in eggs

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173
Q

What are domestic turkeys descended from?

A

Wild Turkey of North America

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174
Q

Who wanted the wild turkey as the national bird because it is considered to be highly intelligent, respectable, and courageous?

A

Ben Franklin

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175
Q

What is the most common breed of turkey for commercial production?

A

Broad Breasted White

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176
Q

At what weight is the broad breasted white turkey marketed?

A

17-30 Pounds

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177
Q

What breeding method is used in commercial turkey production?

A

Artificial Insemination

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178
Q

What are the third most important types of commercial poultry?

A

Ducks

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179
Q

What three breeds of duck are the best for meat production?

A

Aylesbury, Muscovy, and white Pekin

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180
Q

At what weight are ducks generally marketed?

A

6-7 Pounds

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181
Q

What are the three most popular breeds of geese for commercial production?

A

Toulouse, Emden, and African

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182
Q

At what weights are geese generally marketed?

A

18-26 Pounds

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183
Q

What occupies the largest portion of the poultry industry?

A

Chickens

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184
Q

What two types of chickens are used in commercial production?

A

Broilers and layers

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185
Q

What two breeds of chicken are most commonly crossed in commercial chicken production?

A

Cornish and White Plymouth Rock

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186
Q

What are the genetic strains that result from crossing commercial chicken breeds named after?

A

The company that developed them

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187
Q

What color are the shells of the majority of eggs sold in the United States?

A

White

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188
Q

Commercial strains of white egg-laying hens are usually developed from what?

A

White Leghorn

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189
Q

What is a popular strain of brown egg-laying hens called?

A

Production Red

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190
Q

What breed of chickens are Production Red hens developed from?

A

Rhode Island Red

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191
Q

What range do large chicken breeds’ reach mature weight?

A

From 5 up to 12 pounds

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192
Q

How are chicken breed categorized?

A

Size

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193
Q

What are the two categories chicken breeds are broken into?

A

Large breeds and Bantams

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194
Q

How many classes are large chicken breeds broken into?

A

6

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195
Q

What are the 6 classes of large chicken breeds based on?

A

Their origin

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196
Q

What are the 6 classes of large chicken breeds?

A

American, Asiatic, English, Mediterranean, Continental, and other

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197
Q

The Langshan, Plymouth Rock, and Orpington breeds of large chickens are examples of what?

A

Dual-Purpose Breeds

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198
Q

What are some breeds of large chickens and all breeds of Bantams considered to be due to their unusual plumage or coloring?

A

Ornamental Breeds

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199
Q

How much do Bantam breeds of chickens generally weigh when they are mature?

A

1 or 2 Pounds

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200
Q

Bantams have sub-classifications based on what?

A

Their physical characteristics

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201
Q

What is the process of young birds learning by interacting with others of their own species called?

A

Imprinting

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202
Q

What should you do if you find an egg in a nest in the wild?

A

Leave it alone

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203
Q

What parts are the chickens well known for?

A

Combs and Wattles

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204
Q

Where are the wattles on a chicken found?

A

Below the beak

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205
Q

What are three things that distinguish a rooster from a hen?

A

Larger in size, cape of feathers around the neck, and spurs on the back of its legs

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206
Q

What are two characteristics that differentiate a hen from a rooster?

A

Shorter tail feathers and smaller wattle

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207
Q

How long does a chicken need to complete an egg?

A

Slightly more than 24 hours

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208
Q

How many days in a row does a hen usually lay eggs before skipping a day?

A

4

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209
Q

How many eggs per year do production layers average?

A

250

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210
Q

What does an egg begin as within the hen’s body?

A

Ovum

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211
Q

What does the ovum develop into?

A

Yolk

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212
Q

What is the portion of the egg that takes the longest to develop?

A

Shell

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213
Q

Approximately how long does the shell take to be completed?

A

21 hours

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214
Q

What is the shell primarily made up of?

A

Calcium Carbonate

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215
Q

What body part is the finished egg from a chicken expelled?

A

Vent

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216
Q

What are small spots of blood on the yolk?

A

Blood spots

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217
Q

What are brown spots of tissue on the yolk?

A

Meat spots

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218
Q

What occurs if the hen’s ovulation cycle in not properly synchronized?

A

Double yolk

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219
Q

When manufacturing the influenza vaccine, what part of the egg contains the virus?

A

Egg white

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220
Q

How many eggs are needed to produce the influenza vaccine for one season?

A

Approximately 90 million

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221
Q

How many months does it take to produce a flu vaccine from fertilized eggs?

A

6-9 months

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222
Q

How come grocery store eggs will not work for producing flu vaccines?

A

They are not fertilized

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223
Q

What is the correct temperature for eggs to be incubated?

A

100 degrees F

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224
Q

What should the relative humidity be inside an incubator?

A

60-70 percent

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225
Q

What end of the egg should be up when inside an incubator?

A

Large end up

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226
Q

How long does a chicken egg incubate?

A

21 days

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227
Q

What is shining a bright light through the egg to view its contents called?

A

Candling

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228
Q

What happens to eggs after they are candled if they are developing improperly?

A

They are discarded

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229
Q

What does a chick use to break out of its shell?

A

egg tooth

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230
Q

What should the temperature be inside a brooder the first week?

A

90-95 degrees F

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231
Q

What happens to the temperature inside a brooder each week after the first week?

A

Drops five degrees each week?

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232
Q

How much space should be given for each chick during the first week after hatching?

A

10 square inches

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233
Q

How does the United States rack in the poultry production?

A

Number 1

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234
Q

How does the United States rank in egg production?

A

Number 2

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235
Q

How does the Unites States rank in poultry meat exports?

A

Number 2

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236
Q

What has happened to the per capita consumption of chicken and turkey since 1970?

A

More then doubled

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237
Q

What type of eggs are most of the eggs sold for consumption in the Unites States?

A

Chicken

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238
Q

What are three quality grades for eggs?

A

A, AA, and B

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239
Q

What is the highest quality grade for an egg?

A

AA

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240
Q

Why did the per capita consumption of eggs drop 25 percent from 1970-1990?

A

Cholesterol Concerns

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241
Q

What two types of eggs are often carved to make beautiful decorations?

A

Ostrich and Emu

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242
Q

What bird provided a fine leather often made into boots?

A

Ostrich

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243
Q

What poultry product is a natural anti-inflammatory agent?

A

Emu oli

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244
Q

What two social phenomena have been better understood by humans due to the research of poultry birds?

A

Peaking order and imprinting

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245
Q

What is meat from a goat under 40 pounds live weight and not yet removed from the mother?

A

Cabrito

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246
Q

What is fiber taken from the undercoat of any goat breed other then the Angora?

A

Cashmere

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247
Q

What is goat cheese?

A

Chevre

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248
Q

What is meat from an older goat?

A

Chevon

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249
Q

What is a female goat?

A

Doe

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250
Q

What is a process or state in which small particles are uniform and evenly distributed?

A

Homogenized

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251
Q

What is the process of goats giving birth?

A

Kidding

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252
Q

What are goat’s offspring?

A

Kids

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253
Q

What is fiber produced by Angora goats?

A

Mohair

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254
Q

What is a male sheep or goat that has been castrated?

A

Wether

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255
Q

What are three uses for goats around the world?

A

Meat, dairy products, and fiber

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256
Q

What has the number of goats in the United States slaughtered for meat done in the past decade?

A

More then doubled

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257
Q

What is the scientific name for goats?

A

Capra Hircus

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258
Q

Where did the ancestors of the domestic goat originate?

A

Arid area of Asia and the Mediterranean

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259
Q

What was the world’s first livestock registry?

A

Goats

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260
Q

When did the first registry for goats start?

A

1600s

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261
Q

Where did the first registry for goats start in the 1600s?

A

Switzerland

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262
Q

If silage is fed to milking does, how long should you wait to milk?

A

5 hours

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263
Q

When placed in a pasture setting, what would goats prefer to eat?

A

Weeds

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264
Q

Why is cashmere softer to the touch than mohair?

A

Cashmere fibers are finer

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265
Q

How much mohair fiber is produced per year by a goat?

A

10.5 pounds

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266
Q

How much cashmere fiber is produced per year by a goat?

A

Less than one pound

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267
Q

What is the approximate staple length of mohair?

A

6 inches

268
Q

What is the staple length of cashmere?

A

1 1/4 to 3 inches

269
Q

What is the diameter of mohair fibers?

A

23-38 microns

270
Q

What is the unit of measurement used for the diameter of cashmere and mohair fibers?

A

Microns

271
Q

What is the diameter of cashmere fibers?

A

Less than 19 microns

272
Q

Which fiber produced by goats is not crimped and high in luster?

A

Mohair

273
Q

Which fiber produced by goats is crimped and has low luster?

A

Cashmere

274
Q

What type of wool is mohair similar to in size and strength

A

Course sheep wool

275
Q

How is mohair different from course sheep wool?

A

It is smoother

276
Q

Why do mohair fibers lack the felting properties of wool?

A

Mohair fibers have a much thinner, smoother type of scale

277
Q

What type of mohair fiber has a lock, which is usually wavy and more bulky?

A

Type B

278
Q

What type of mohair fiber grows hair in tight ringlets and is a finer mohair?

A

Type C

279
Q

What are two important factors for profitable mohair production?

A

Goat selection and genetics

280
Q

In order to grow better quality fleeces, what must be adequate in the diet for an Angora goat?

A

Protein

281
Q

What do some producers put on their goats in order to have a cleaner and therefore more valuable fleece?

A

Coats

282
Q

Why were goats brought on many ship voyages to the new world?

A

A source of fresh milk

283
Q

What year were Angora goats first imported to the United States?

A

1849

284
Q

What breed of goats was imported into the United States in 1849?

A

Angora

285
Q

What are two products derived from Angora goats?

A

Mohair fiber and meat

286
Q

What year were Toggenburg goats imported into the United States?

A

1893

287
Q

What is the primary purpose for the Toggenburg breed of goats?

A

Dairy

288
Q

What breed was the first purebred dairy goat imported into the United States in 1893?

A

Toggenburg

289
Q

What country did Toggenburg goats come from?

A

Switzerland

290
Q

Where is the E( Kika ) de la Garza American Institute for goat research located?

A

Langston University, Langston, Oklahoma

291
Q

What is the name of the institute who conducts scientific research and results to benefit the goat industry throughout the world located at Langston University?

A

The E( Kika ) de la Garza American Institute for goat research

292
Q

How many meat goats are in the United States?

A

3.2 Million

293
Q

How many dairy goats are in the United States?

A

370,000

294
Q

What is one of the most popular meat goats in the United States?

A

Boer

295
Q

In what arena have Boer goats gained in popularity?

A

Livestock Show Arena

296
Q

Where did the Boer goat originate?

A

Africa

297
Q

What is a common color pattern for the Boer breed of goats?

A

White with a dark colored head

298
Q

What are two advantages to the Boer breed of goats?

A

Docile temperament and can breed year round

299
Q

What dairy breed of goats originated in the french Alps?

A

Alpine

300
Q

What type of goat is the Alpine breed of goats?

A

Dairy

301
Q

What are small clumps of hair covered skin on either side at the base of the neck on a goat?

A

Wattles

302
Q

What are Alpine dairy goats known for?

A

Excellent milk production and well-shaped udders

303
Q

What breed of goats originated in Africa and was developed in England by crossing the African imports with smaller local goats?

A

Nubian

304
Q

Where was the Nubian breed of goats developed?

A

England

305
Q

What are the three most common colors of the Nubian breed of goat?

A

Black, Red, or Tan

306
Q

What is Nubian goat milk high in?

A

Butter-fat content

307
Q

Why is the Nubian breed of goat considered a dual-purpose breed?

A

Its large size

308
Q

What is the dual-purpose of the Nubian breed of goats?

A

Raised for meat and milk

309
Q

What breed of goats is long-legged with a roman nose, pendulous ears, and a short sleek hair coat?

A

Nubian

310
Q

What is the Toggenburg of goats often called?

A

Togg

311
Q

What is the oldest known dairy breed of goat?

A

Toggenburg

312
Q

Where did the Toggenburg originate?

A

Swiss Alps

313
Q

What is the Toggenburg breed of goat known for?

A

Excellent milkers

314
Q

What breed of goats is any shade of brown with distinct white markings on the legs, around the tail, and in strips down either side of the face?

A

Toggenburg

315
Q

Where was the LaMancha breed of goats developed?

A

America

316
Q

When was the LaMancha breed of goats developed in America?

A

mid-1900s

317
Q

What type of ears does the LaMancha breed of goats have?

A

Tiny external “Gopher” ears

318
Q

Where did the Saanen breed originate?

A

Saanen valley in Switzerland

319
Q

What is the purpose for the Saanen breed of goats?

A

Dairy

320
Q

What color is the Saanen breed of goats typically colored?

A

White

321
Q

What is a colored variation of the Saanen breed of goats called?

A

Sable

322
Q

What two other names might the Oberhasli breed of goat be called?

A

Ober or Obi

323
Q

What would you describe the color chamois?

A

Light or dark red-brown

324
Q

What breed of goat is colored chamois with black on the face, legs, belly, udder, and dorsal stripe?

A

Oberhasli

325
Q

What are Angora goats raised for?

A

Fiber

326
Q

What is the fiber produced by Angora goats called?

A

Mohair

327
Q

Where does Angora fiber come from?

A

Rabbits

328
Q

Where did the Angora breed of goat originate?

A

Turkey

329
Q

How often is mohair sheared from Angora goats?

A

Twice per year

330
Q

What breed of goat has a white coat that hangs in long curly locks all over their body?

A

Angora

331
Q

How much mohair does the average Angora goat produce in one year?

A

11 pounds

332
Q

Until recently, what type were most meat goats in the United States?

A

Spanish goats

333
Q

What is another name for the Myotonic breed of goats?

A

Tennessee fainting goat

334
Q

What is the recessive gene present in Tennessee fainting goats that cause them to faint when they are excited or frightened?

A

Myotonia

335
Q

What is goat manure used for?

A

Fertilizer

336
Q

What parts of the United States is Chevron in highest demand?

A

Eastern and Southwestern

337
Q

What cultures frequently eat Chevon?

A

Greek, Muslim, Arabic, and Mexican

338
Q

Why is the greatest demand for Chevon concentrated in the Eastern and Southwestern United States

A

This is where there is a higher population of Greek, Muslim, Arabic, and Mexican communities can be found.

339
Q

How is the supply in relation to the demand for Chevon in the United States?

A

Demand is greater than supply

340
Q

What causes there to be peak demand times for Chevon in the United States?

A

Chevon is required by some cultures for certain religious and celebratory events

341
Q

What is cabriro commonly used for?

A

Barbecue

342
Q

What is the maximum live weight for a goat to be slaughtered and the meat be considered cabrito?

A

40 pounds

343
Q

How is a large portion of the goat meat sold in the United States?

A

Privately or on-farm sales

344
Q

What type of breeders are goats?

A

Seasonal

345
Q

What is a popular myth in regard to goat’s milk?

A

It tastes bad

346
Q

Properly produced goat’s milk taste the same as what?

A

Cow’s milk

347
Q

What is one difference between goat and cow’s milk?

A

Goat milk is naturally homogenized

348
Q

What is used to separate the cream from goats’milk?

A

Mechanical separator

349
Q

Why are products such as butter and ice cream not commonly produced from goat milk?

A

Greater labor is needed to separate the cream from the goat’s milk.

350
Q

What product is goats milk often an ingredient for?

A

Soaps

351
Q

What is goat cheese called?

A

Chevre

352
Q

Where in recent years has chevre seen a gain in popularity?

A

Gourmet Market

353
Q

How is chevre generally known in the United States?

A

A soft, white cheese with a mild tangy flavor

354
Q

What is the most common type of fiber taken from goats?

A

Mohair

355
Q

Mohair is similar to sheep wool but lacks what?

A

Crimp

356
Q

What are the two types of fiber taken from goats?

A

Cashmere and mohair

357
Q

How does cashmere fiber grow on goats?

A

As a soft winter undercoat

358
Q

Where does most of the cashmere sold today come from?

A

Middle Eastern countries, Australia, and New Zealand

359
Q

What is an advantage of goat milk when compared to cow milk?

A

Easier to digest

360
Q

Why is goat milk whiter than cow milk?

A

It does not contain beta-carotene.

361
Q

What is goat milk higher in when compared to cow milk?

A

Vitamins A and B-6, Thiamin, Niacin, and Mineral content

362
Q

What is goat milk lower in when compared to cow milk?

A

Riboflavin, vitamin B-12, and folic acid

363
Q

What are two important nutrients that neither goat nor cow milk have significant amounts of?

A

Zinc and Iron

364
Q

What must be done to goat milk before it is offered for sale?

A

It must be pasteurized

365
Q

What are two vital factors for both the safety of goat milk?

A

Herd management and hygiene

366
Q

What makes goat milk more susceptible than cow milk in picking up off-flavors?

A

The composition of the fat

367
Q

Why should you keep bucks away from milking does’?

A

Buck odor will be picked up in the milk

368
Q

Mohair fleece is evaluated essentially the same way as what?

A

Wool

369
Q

When was the cashmere breed of goats first imported in the United States?

A

1980’s

370
Q

Where was the cashmere breed of goats imported into the United States from?

A

Australia and New Zealand

371
Q

What four factors determine the quality of a cashmere fleece?

A

Color, Crimp, Diameter, and Length

372
Q

What determines the use of cashmere?

A

Staple length

373
Q

What are shorter cashmere fibers used for?

A

Woven Fabrics

374
Q

What are longer cashmere fibers used for?

A

Knitted Fabrics

375
Q

When should cashmere be harvested?

A

Early part of the year

376
Q

The goat’s undercoat grown in response to what?

A

Day length

377
Q

How is cashmere usually harvested from the goat in the United States?

A

Sheared

378
Q

What is the difference between Chevon and Cabrito?

A

Chevon is meat from an old goat and Cabrito is meat from a young goat not weaned and weighing less than 40 pounds live weight.

379
Q

What are the important parts of a meat goat?

A

Loin and rump

380
Q

What are the important parts of a dairy goat?

A

Teat placement and udder attachments

381
Q

What is a male horse younger than three years old?

A

Colt

382
Q

What is the dark stripe along the spine of an animal?

A

Dorsal Stripe

383
Q

What is a horse that is taller than 17 hands and used for heavy work?

A

Draft horse

384
Q

What are long fine hairs covering the lower legs of some animal breeds such as the Clydesdale horse?

A

Feathers

385
Q

What is a type of animal that descended from domestic animals now living in undomesticated areas?

A

Feral

386
Q

What is a female horse younger than three years old?

A

Filly

387
Q

What is a male or female horse younger than one year of age?

A

Foal

388
Q

What is a male horse older than three years of age that has been castrated?

A

Gelding

389
Q

What is a measurement of horses equal to four inches?

A

Hands

390
Q

What is a horse between 14.2 and 17 hands in height?

A

Light horse

391
Q

What is a female horse older than three years of age?

A

Mare

392
Q

What are parts of an animal that are typically white; used to describe areas such as ears, nose, tail, and legs on some animals?

A

Points

393
Q

What is a horse shorter than 14.2 hands?

A

Pony

394
Q

What is a male horse older than three years of age that has been castrated?

A

Stallion

395
Q

What is the highest point on a horse’s shoulder; point of height measurement?

A

Withers

396
Q

What is the scientific name for the modern domestication horse?

A

Equus Caballus

397
Q

How many years has the horse been in existence?

A

2 Million Years

398
Q

Where does fossil evidence suggest that horses originated?

A

North America

399
Q

When was the horse first domesticated?

A

5,000 Year Ago

400
Q

Where was the horse first domesticated?

A

Europe and Asia

401
Q

What were horses first used for?

A

Pulling chariots

402
Q

What conquests that occurred throughout history would not have been possible without the horse?

A

Military

403
Q

During what century did Spanish explorers bring horses with them as they sailed to the new world?

A

16th Century

404
Q

What are the wild horses of this continent called?

A

Mustangs

405
Q

What culture used horses for buffalo hunts, transportation, and in a battle?

A

Native American

406
Q

What two economically important roles have horses become a part of today?

A

Recreation and sports

407
Q

How are horses categorized?

A

By their size

408
Q

What three sizes are horses categorized by?

A

Light horse, Draft horse, and ponies

409
Q

How many inches is a hand when measuring a horse?

A

Four inches

410
Q

What is a light horse suitable for?

A

Riding

411
Q

What is the primary purpose for draft horses?

A

Work

412
Q

What breed of horse is considered the oldest purebred horse in the world?

A

Arabian

413
Q

Where was the Arabian breed of horse developed?

A

Deserts of the Middle East

414
Q

What breed of horse has a high set tail, the neck is arched and the back is shorter than most breeds, and a dished profile, prominent eye, large nostrils, and small muzzle characterize the head?

A

Arabian

415
Q

What breed of horse got its name because of its speed at short distance?

A

Quarter horse

416
Q

Where was the Quarter horse developed?

A

United States

417
Q

What year was the Quarter horse official breed registry established?

A

1940

418
Q

What breed of horse is known for its ability to outmaneuver cattle?

A

Quarter horse

419
Q

Where was the Thoroughbred of horse developed?

A

England

420
Q

When was the thoroughbred breed of horse developed?

A

Trun of the 17th century

421
Q

What was the original purpose for the Thoroughbred breed of horse?

A

Carry weight with sustained speed over extended distances.

422
Q

Who manages the Thoroughbred registry today?

A

The Jockey club

423
Q

How many foundation sires does the Thoroughbred breed of horse trace back to?

A

3

424
Q

How fast is the Thoroughbred breed of horse capable of running?

A

35 to 40 mph

425
Q

What is the most easily recognized characteristic of the Appaloosa breed of horses?

A

Its distinctive spotted coat

426
Q

What must be done to verify the parentage of a horse that does not display the distinct spotted coat of the Appaloosa breed of horse?

A

Blood typed

427
Q

The wild Mustang horse is often visualized as a symbol of what?

A

The American West

428
Q

What is the word mustang derived from?

A

Spanish word meaning wild or stray

429
Q

How many Mustang horses roamed the Western ranges of the United States at the beginning of the 20th century?

A

More than 2 Million

430
Q

How many mustang horses existed in the middle of the 20th century?

A

Several Thousand

431
Q

What caused a decline in numbers for Mustangs during the 20th century?

A

Farmers and ranchers saw them as competition for the rangeland grazed by their cattle and killed them.

432
Q

What bill offered the Mustang breed of horse protection from the slaughter they had experienced?

A

Wild Free Roaming Horses and Burros Act

433
Q

What year was The Wild Free Roaming Horses and Burros Act passed?

A

1971

434
Q

Who is in charge of controlling the numbers of Mustangs that roam wild on public lands today?

A

Bureau of Land Management

435
Q

How does the Bureau of land management control the number of Mustangs roaming on public lands today?

A

Routinely capture them and offer them for adoption through the Adopt-a-horse program.

436
Q

What are the two most common types of riding?

A

English and Western

437
Q

What type of riding is involved in combined training?

A

English

438
Q

What are three areas that test the fitness, ability, and training of both the horse and rider in combined training?

A

Cross-country riding, dressage, and show jumping

439
Q

What type of riding events are cutting and team penning?

A

Western

440
Q

WHat is the name of the event where a specific cow is separated from the herd by a person fiding a horse?

A

Cutting

441
Q

What is the name of the event where riders on horseback work together separating cattle?

A

Team Penning

442
Q

What is a form of English riding that focuses on developing the natural movements of the horse?

A

Dressage

443
Q

What has dressage been likened to a form of?

A

Dance

444
Q

What event for horses involves one or more horses pulling a cart, wagon, or carriage?

A

Driving

445
Q

What event for horses is very strenuous and tests the horse’s ability to cover very long distances in a single day?

A

Endurance riding

446
Q

What distance might a horse and rider in Endurance riding events be required to cover in a single day?

A

50 or 100 miles

447
Q

What event for horses includes hounds that are used to track and chase foxes while horse and rider follow?

A

Fox hunting

448
Q

What event tests a horse and rider’s speed and agility through basic skills such as mounting, dismounting, starting, and stopping in a way that is fun and competitive?

A

Gymkhana

449
Q

What event for horses is a team sport in which riders use mallets to hit a ball in a goal?

A

Polo

450
Q

What event for horses focuses on the speed of the horses?

A

Racing

451
Q

What type of riding events are rodeos?

A

Western

452
Q

Most of the events in rodeo are derived from skills required for?

A

Cattle ranching

453
Q

What event for horses includes events that test the skill of both the horse and rider and might include reining and jumping?

A

Show Ring

454
Q

How are the parts of a horse unique?

A

Horses have parts not found on other livestock

455
Q

What three things are included for basic horse identification?

A

Color, Breed, and Gender

456
Q

What color describes a horse whose body color is reddish or coppered and the mane and tail may be the same color or blonde?

A

Sorrel

457
Q

What color describes a horse that has a dark red or brownish red body and the mane and tail is the same color or blonde?

A

Chestnut

458
Q

What color describes a horse that has a brown or red body color ranging from tan to redish brown to very brown and the points are black?

A

Bay

459
Q

What is the difference between a bay and a chestnut colored horse?

A

A bay has black points

460
Q

What color describes a horse that has a brown or black body with light areas at the muzzle, eyes, flank, and inside upper legs?

A

Brown

461
Q

What color would describe a brown horse with black points?

A

Brown Bay

462
Q

hat color would describe a horse that has a solid black body without any light areas except possible white markings on the face and legs and has a black mane and tail?

A

Black

463
Q

What color describes a horse that has a mixture of white with any other colored hairs?

A

Gray

464
Q

How is a gray horse colored when it is born?

A

A solid color

465
Q

When does a grey colored horse begin to turn gray?

A

After it loses its foal coat

466
Q

What color would describe a horse that has a body color of golden yellow with a white or flazen mane and tail and does not have a dorsal stripe?

A

Palomino

467
Q

What color describes a horse that has a yellowish or gold body with black points and does not have a dorsal stripe?

A

Buckskin

468
Q

What color would describe a horse that has a very light cream color with pumpkin skin and blue eyes?

A

Cream

469
Q

What variation of cream color is a horse with a cream colored body with white mane and tail?

A

Cremello

470
Q

What variation of cream color is a horse that had a light cream body color with a reddish tinge to the mane and tail?

A

Perlino

471
Q

What color describes a horse that is truly white all over and lacks pigment in all the hair and skin and usually has brown eyes?

A

White

472
Q

Dun is a term for what?

A

Color pattern that includes darker tips, dorsal stripe, barring on the legs, and a shoulder stripe across the withers.

473
Q

What is a term for a color pattern that includes darker tips, dorasl stripe, barring on the legs, and a shoulder stripe across the withers?

A

Dun

474
Q

What color would describe a horse with a bluish, smoky, or mouse gray body color and the points and dun marking are black

A

Mouse Dun or Grulla

475
Q

What color would describe a horse that has a yellowish or gold body color and the points and dun markings are black?

A

Buckskin Dun

476
Q

What color would describe a horse that has a yellowish or light red body color and the points and dun markings are darker red?

A

Red Dun

477
Q

What color describes a horse that has a mixture of white hairs with any other dark color on the body and does not get lighter with age?

A

Roan

478
Q

What color describes a horse that has a fairly uniform mixture of white and red hairs on the body and the points are a darker red although the mane and tail may be lighter?

A

Red Roan

479
Q

What color describes a horse that has a mixture of white and black hairs on the body but is usually darker on the head and lower legs and is not gray because it does not get lighter with age?

A

Blue Roan

480
Q

What color describes a horse that has a mixture of white with red hairs and the points are black?

A

Bay Roan

481
Q

What two words are interchangeable and describe a horse with a spotted coat?

A

Pinto and Paint

482
Q

What registry will register horses and ponies of any breed that exhibit the spotted coat coloring

A

The Pinto horse association of America

483
Q

What registry will register only horses that are of Quarter horse or Thoroughbred descent that have the spotted coat coloring?

A

The American Paint horse association

484
Q

What are two patterns of the Pinto and Pint coloration?

A

Overo and Tobiano

485
Q

What pattern of Paint or Pinto horse is described by the white originates on the underside of the horse and will rarely cross the back of the horse between its withers and its tail, at least one or all four legs will be dark color, and head markings are predominately white?

A

Overo

486
Q

What pattern of Paint or Pinto horse is described as white across the spine extending downward between the ears and tail in a clearly marked pattern and the head markings are like those of a solid colored horse, all four legs are usually white at least below the hocks and knees and the spots are regular and distinct as ovals or round patterns that extend down over the neck and chest?

A

Tobiano

487
Q

What are three common Appaloosa color patterns?

A

Leopard, Blanket, and Snowflake

488
Q

Which Appaloosa color pattern is described as white all over with dark spots scattered all over the body?

A

Leopard

489
Q

Which Appaloosa color pattern is described as the horse is a dark color with a blanket of white hair over the hips and croup area?

A

Blanket

490
Q

Which Appaloosa color pattern is described as any color with small white spots scattered randomly over the body?

A

Snowflake

491
Q

What is an example of a relative of the domestic horse that exists in the wild?

A

Zebra

492
Q

Why can a zebra not be domesticated?

A

A zebra is truly a wild animal

493
Q

What is a crossing between a zebra and a horse called?

A

Zorse

494
Q

What is a cross between a zebra and a donkey called?

A

Zebrass

495
Q

What is any marking on a horse’s forehead called?

A

Star

496
Q

What is any marking usually vertical, between a horse’s nostrils called?

A

Snip

497
Q

What is a narrow marking between the horse’s forehead and nostrils extending vertically called?

A

Strip

498
Q

What is a marking on the horse’s forehead with a strip to the nasal peak called?

A

Star and Strip

499
Q

What is a marking on the horse’s forehead with a narrow extension of the nasal peak and opening up again between the nostrils?

A

Star, Strip, and Snip

500
Q

What is a vertical marking that extends the length of the face and is of medium width and is relatively uniform?

A

Blaze

501
Q

What is a broad blaze extending out and around the eyes and also down to the horse’s upper lip and around the nostrils called?

A

Bald face

502
Q

What is any narrow marking around the horse’s coronet above the hoof?

A

Coronet

503
Q

What is a marking that includes half of the horse’s pastern above the coronet?

A

Half Pastern

504
Q

What is a marking that includes the hores’s entire pastern?

A

Pastern

505
Q

What is a marking that extends from the coronet halfway up the cannon bone, halfway to the knee on the foreleg or halfway to the hock on the back leg?

A

Sock

506
Q

What is an extended sock that is a full marking to the area of the knee on the foreleg and to the hock on the back leg?

A

Stocking

507
Q

Who is the founding sire of the Morgan breed of horses?

A

Figure

508
Q

What year was figure, the founding sire of the Morgan breed of horses born?

A

1789

509
Q

Who owned figure, the founding sire for the Morgan breed of horses?

A

Justin Morgan

510
Q

What breed of horses originated in Belgium

A

Belgium

511
Q

What breed of horses is considered America’s favorite Draft horse?

A

Belgium

512
Q

What breed of horses is an old breed that originated in France?

A

Percheron

513
Q

What color is the American Belgian almost always?

A

Sorrel

514
Q

In what year were Percheron horses first imported into the United States?

A

1839

515
Q

What breed of horses originated in Scotland?

A

Clydesdale

516
Q

What was the original purpose for the Clydesdale breed of horses?

A

To perform work on the farm and pull freight.

517
Q

What breed of horses is a tiny breed that originated in the Shetland Islands off the coast of Scotland?

A

Shetland

518
Q

What breed of horses is one of the most popular breeds of ponies?

A

Shetland

519
Q

What breed of horses originated in the hills of Wales?

A

Welsh

520
Q

The Welsh pony has a refinement that shows the influence of what?

A

Arabian Ancestors

521
Q

What are two color patterns that include patches of white or colorless skin?

A

Piebald and Skewbald

522
Q

The Welsh pony can be any color except what two?

A

Piebald or Skewbald

523
Q

What is the difference in height between a draft horse and a pony?

A

Draft measure over 17 hands, ponies are 8 to 14.2 hands.

524
Q

What are groups of tiny units where milk is produced within an animals mammary system?

A

Aveoli

525
Q

What is a holding area for milk withing an animals mammary system?

A

Cisterns

526
Q

What is the first milk a female animal produces after giving birth?

A

Colostrum

527
Q

What is the portion of milk that rises to the top?

A

Cream

528
Q

What is the solid portion of milk after it is curdled and strained?

A

Curds

529
Q

What is a cow approximately two months before calving that has stopped producing milk in preparation for birth?

A

Dry cow

530
Q

What are substances that keep together liquids that tend to separate such as oil and water?

A

Emulsifiers

531
Q

What is the milking period of an animal?

A

Lactation

532
Q

What is the sugar naturally found in milk?

A

Lactose

533
Q

What is the milk producing system within an animal, especially important for a dairy cow?

A

Mammary system

534
Q

What is a hormone produced by an animal that signals the milk letdown reflex?

A

Oxytocin

535
Q

What is the process of heating a food product to kill bacteria?

A

Pasteurization

536
Q

What is a bred cow showing signs of pregnancy?

A

Springer

537
Q

What is a combination of processes into one company such as Braum’s Dairy?

A

Vertically Integrated

538
Q

What is the water portion of milk after it is curdled ans strained?

A

Whey

539
Q

What are three states in the United States with the most dairies?

A

California, Wisconsin, and New York

540
Q

What is the name of one of the largest dairies in the United States located in Oklahoma?

A

Braum’s dairy

541
Q

What is Oklahoma’s claim to dairy fame?

A

Braum’s Dairy

542
Q

In what year does archaeological evidence show that the Egyptians used milk, cheese, and butter?

A

3,000 BC

543
Q

Archaeological evidence shows that what group of people used milk, cheese, and butter in 3,000 BC?

A

Egyptians

544
Q

Humans were milking cows as early as when?

A

9,000 BC

545
Q

In what year were the first dairy cows brought to the Jamestown colony in America?

A

1611

546
Q

What type of bovine animal was first brought to the Jamestown colony in America in 1611?

A

Dairy cow

547
Q

Why did the lack of transportation and refrigeration cause large-scale dairying difficult?

A

Milk and milk products are perishable

548
Q

What was difficult before transportation and refrigeration were available for milk and milk products?

A

Large-scale dairying

549
Q

Who invented a process for making canned condensed milk in 1856?

A

Gail Borden

550
Q

Gail Borden invented a process for making canned condensed milk in what year?

A

1856

551
Q

What did Gail Borden invent in 1856

A

Process for making canned condensed milk?

552
Q

What allowed milk to be transported much greater distances without spoiling in 1861?

A

Mechanical Refrigeration

553
Q

In what year did mechanical refrigeration allow milk to be transported much greater distances without spoiling?

A

1861

554
Q

Who invented a method for determining the amount of butterfat in milk products in 1890?

A

Stephan Babcock

555
Q

What did Stephan Babcock invent in 1890?

A

A method for determining the amount of butterfat in milk products?

556
Q

What year did Stephan Babcock invent a method for determining the amount of butterfat in milk products?

A

1890

557
Q

What year did milk pasteurization become commercially available?

A

1895

558
Q

What are two advantages for pasteurized milk?

A

Safer to drink and can be kept longer

559
Q

When did artificial insemination become commercially available?

A

1930’s

560
Q

When were embryo transfers introduced?

A

1970’s

561
Q

When did the recombinant bovine somatotropin hormone start being used on dairy cows to increase milk production?

A

1990’s

562
Q

What does the abbreviation rBST mean?

A

Recombinant Bovine Somatotropin

563
Q

What does the abbreviation rBGH mean?

A

Recombinat Bovine Growth Hormone

564
Q

What is one of the most important characteristics of any dairy animal?

A

Milk production

565
Q

How many days per year is the average dairy cow milked?

A

305

566
Q

What unit of measurement is used to report milk production in dairy cows?

A

Pounds

567
Q

What is the most popular breed of dairy cow in the United States?

A

Holstein

568
Q

What other name is the Holstein breed of dairy cow known as?

A

Holstein Friesian

569
Q

Where did the Holstein breed of dairy cow originate?

A

Netherlands

570
Q

What color markings identify the Holstein breed of dairy cow?

A

Black and white or red and white

571
Q

What is the average yearly production for the Holstein breed of dairy cow?

A

21,167 pounds

572
Q

What can be said of Holstein cow’s milk when compared to milk of other breeds of dairy cows?

A

Lower in butterfat and protein

573
Q

Where did the Jersy breed of dairy cow originate?

A

Isle of Jersey, Britain

574
Q

What is the Jersey breed of dairy cow famous for?

A

The amount of butterfat and protein in their milk.

575
Q

How much milk does the Jersey breed of dairy cow produce annually?

A

16,100 pounds per cow

576
Q

What breed of dairy cow varies their color from nearly white to mousy grey to a dark tan or fawn color, often darker around the head and shoulders than the body, and also may have a dark tail switch?

A

Jersey

577
Q

Where did the Guernsey breed of dairy cow originate?

A

Britain

578
Q

What is the color of the Guernsey breed of dairy cow?

A

Fawn color with white markings

579
Q

What is the Guernsey breed of dairy cow’s milk noted for?

A

It’s golden color

580
Q

Why is a Guernsey dairy cow’s milk golden colored?

A

The milk is high in beta-carotene.

581
Q

What is the average yearly milk production for the Guernsey breed of dairy cow?

A

Approximately 18,000 pounds per cow

582
Q

Where did the Ayrshire breed of dairy cow originate?

A

Scotland

583
Q

What breed of dairy cow originates in Scotland?

A

Ayrshire

584
Q

What color is the Ayrshire breed of dairy cattle?

A

Spotted red and white

585
Q

How much butterfat does the milk from the Ayrshire breed of dairy cattle have?

A

Moderate

586
Q

What can be said of the protein amount in milk from Ayrshine cows?

A

Relatively high in protein

587
Q

How much milk does an Ayrshire cow produce annually?

A

17,230 pounds

588
Q

Where did the Miking Shorthorn breed of dairy cattle originate?

A

England

589
Q

What bred of dairy cow is one of the oldest breeds in the world?

A

Milking Shorthorn

590
Q

What color is the Milking Shorthorn breed of dairy cattle?

A

Red, red and white, or roan

591
Q

How much milk on average does a Milking Shorthorn cow produce annually?

A

15,030 pounds

592
Q

Where did the Brown Swiss breed of dairy cattle originate?

A

Switzerland

593
Q

What breed of dairy cow originated in Switzerland?

A

Brown Swiss

594
Q

hat color is the Brown Swiss breed of dairy cattle?

A

Brown ranging from light to dark including grayish to black-brown

595
Q

What breed of dairy cattle is brown in color ranging from light to dark including grayish to black-brown?

A

Brown Swiss

596
Q

What three things is the Brown Swiss breed of dairy cattle noted for?

A

Good udders, feet, and legs

597
Q

How much milk doea a Brown Swiss cow produce annually?

A

21,127 pounds

598
Q

What parts of the dairy cow are more important than on a beef animal?

A

Udder and Teats

599
Q

What does it tell you if you cannot see the pin bones on a dairy cow?

A

The cow is storing fat instead of turning grain and forage into milk.

600
Q

What should be present leading into the fore udder on the underneath side of a cow?

A

Mammary Veins

601
Q

What is the function of the mammary veins?

A

To carry blood to and from the udder

602
Q

How many compartments does a cow’s udder have?

A

4

603
Q

How much can a cow’s udder weigh when empty?

A

40 pounds

604
Q

What is the function of the skin around a cow’s udder?

A

Protective covering

605
Q

What attaches and holds a cow’s udder?

A

Ligaments

606
Q

What are the four categories that fluid milk products can be separated into?

A

Whole milk, reduced fat, low fat, and fat free

607
Q

What percent milk fat is contained in whole milk?

A

No less than 3.25%

608
Q

How many grams of fat are in a 8-ounce serving of whole milk?

A

8

609
Q

What is whole milk fortified with?

A

Vitamin D

610
Q

What percent fat is in reduced fat milk?

A

2%

611
Q

What percent fat is in low fat milk?

A

1%

612
Q

What percent fat is in fat free milk?

A

0

613
Q

What is fat free milk also called?

A

Skim milk

614
Q

What kind of milk contains 2% fat?

A

Reduced Fat milk

615
Q

What kind of milk contains 1% fat?

A

Low Fat Milk

616
Q

What kind of milk contains no fat?

A

Fat Free Milk

617
Q

What kind of milk contains no less than 3.25% fat?

A

Whole Milk

618
Q

What type of milk is whole milk that has not been homogenized, pasteuized, or fortified?

A

Raw Milk

619
Q

What is present in raw milk that is normally destroyed in the pasteurization process?

A

Bacteria

620
Q

What is the most common flavored milk?

A

Chocolate

621
Q

What is a person whose digestive system lacks the enzymes needed to break down the lactose in milk?

A

Lactose Intolerance

622
Q

What percent milk fat is cream in its normal state?

A

40%

623
Q

What type of cream is a bland of milk and cream containing between 10.5 and 18 percent milk fat>

A

Half and Half

624
Q

What type of cream is 18-30 percent milk fat?

A

Light cream

625
Q

What type of cream is 30 to 36 percent milk fat?

A

Light Whipping Cream

626
Q

What type of cream is at least 36 percent milk fat and whips more readily than light whipping cream?

A

Heavy Whipping Cream

627
Q

What percent of the water has been removed from evaporated milk?

A

60%

628
Q

What type of milk is pasteurized and has 60% of the water removed from it?

A

Evaporated Milk

629
Q

What two forms does dry milk come in?

A

Non-fat and whole

630
Q

What type of milk is pasteurized milk that has had sweetener added to it and has 60% of the water removed from it and is common in recipes?

A

Sweetened Condensed Milk

631
Q

What type of milk is i powdered form and can be used for cooking or have water added to reconstitute it as fluid form?

A

Dry Milk

632
Q

What type of milk has malt added to it then is dehydrated into powder form?

A

Malted Milk

633
Q

What American treat was orriginally sold as a health food?

A

Malted Milk

634
Q

Who invented malted milk?

A

James and William Horlick

635
Q

en was malted milk invented?

A

1870’s

636
Q

What candy favorite contains malted milk?

A

Whoppers

637
Q

What candy favorite contains malted milk?

A

Whoppers

638
Q

What is a mixture of milk and cream fermented by an active culture of lactic acid producing bacteria?

A

Yogurt

639
Q

What is a cream that has been treated with lactic acid producing bacteria to produce a thickened product with a charateristic tangy taste?

A

Sour cream

640
Q

What was once a by-product of making butter but is now generally made through culturing milk with appropriate types of bacteria?

A

Buttermilk

641
Q

What is a mixture of milk, cream, sweeteners, and flavorings that is stirred together and frozen?

A

Ice Cream

642
Q

What percent milk fat is ice cream?

A

Minimum of 10%

643
Q

What is similar to ice cream however contains 3 to 5% milk fat?

A

Ice Milk

644
Q

What has less milk and more sugar than ice cream and is usually made with a mix of syrup or fruit juice, and contains 1 to 2% milk fat?

A

Sherbet

645
Q

How much of the milk produced in the United States is used to make cheese?

A

One Third

646
Q

One third of all the milk produced in the United States is used for what?

A

Making cheese

647
Q

Natural cheeses are made from what milk protein?

A

Casein

648
Q

How many varieties of natural cheeses are there?

A

More than 400

649
Q

How are the more than 400 varieties of natural cheeses classified?

A

According to their degree of hardness

650
Q

What are Parmesan, Swiss, Romano, Cheddar, Gruyere, and Colby cheese examples of?

A

Hard cheeses

651
Q

What are Edam, Gouda, and Provolone cheese examples of?

A

Firm cheeses

652
Q

What are Blue, Mozzarella, and Limburger cheese examples of?

A

Semi-soft cheeses

653
Q

What are Brie, Camembert, Feta, Ricotta, Cottage cheese, and cream cheese examples of?

A

Soft Cheeses

654
Q

What precent milk fat is butter?

A

80%

655
Q

What is butter made from?

A

Pasteurized Cream

656
Q

What is added to whipped butter that increases its volume and making it softer and more spreadable?

A

Air

657
Q

At what age are dairy heifers bred?

A

15 months old

658
Q

What is the gestation period for a dairy cow?

A

9 months

659
Q

If a dairy heifer is bred at 15 months of age, how old will she be when she gives birth?

A

2 years old

660
Q

When is a cow rebred?

A

Three months into her lactation

661
Q

When does a cow begin to stop producing milk in preparation for giving birth?

A

About 2 months prior to calving

662
Q

Each gland cistern can hold how much milk?

A

About 2 pounds

663
Q

On average, how much milk can each cow produce each day?

A

6-8 Gallons

664
Q

What is removed from a superior cow and transplanted into surrogate cows during embryo transfer?

A

Embryo

665
Q

What is one problem associated with embryo transfer?

A

Any genetic problem of the donor cow is passed to more offspring than normal.

666
Q

What is used in order to record data in a database therefore creating a complete production record for the cow?

A

Electronic Identification System

Anything Under The Sun (24 decks)

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