Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

As a PT, why should you care about anesthetics?

A

Pts have used anesthetics, and the effects can last days after surgery; PTs can administer anesthetics (phonophoresis, iontophoresis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Patient is not conscious; Effect is on the whole body; Used for more extensive surgical procedures

A

General anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Patient is conscious; used in surgery of relatively small, well defined area or surgery where pt needs to remain conscious

A

Local anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name 6 requirements that most general anesthetics meet

A
  1. Loss of consciousness and sensation
  2. Amnesia
  3. Skeletal muscle relaxation
  4. Inhibition of sensory and autonomic reflexes
  5. Minimum of toxic side effects
  6. Rapid onset, easy adjustment of dosage during use, and rapid, uneventful recovery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name the four stages of anesthesia

A
  1. Analgesia
  2. Excitement (delirium)
  3. Surgical Anesthesia
  4. Medullary Paralysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Loss of sensation of pain

A

Analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Using too much anesthesia; results in loss of cardiac HR, decreased breathing, etc.

A

Medullary paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the goal of anesthesia

A

To bring pt to stage III [surgical anesthesia] as quickly as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the administration techniques for anesthesia?

A
  1. Intravenous
  2. Inhalation
  3. Sequential combo of the two
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is an advantage to intravenous administration?

A

Quick onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a problem with intravenous administration?

A

Lack of control if overdosed; once the drug is in the body, it cannot be removed quickly, so you must wait until the body metabolizes it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the advantage to inhalation administration?

A

Easy to adjust dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the disadvantage to inhalation administration?

A

Slow onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the currently used for inhaled anesthetics? What older anesthetics were used previously?

A

Nitrous oxide; Ether [explosive] or chloroform [toxic]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are 5 IV anesthetics used?

A
  1. Barbiturates
  2. Benzodiazepines
  3. Etomidate
  4. Ketamine
  5. Propofol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

General anesthetic that has fast onset; short-acting forms; relatively safe [respiratory and circulatory depressants, decrease intracranial pressure]; however little analgesic or muscle relaxant effect; Hepatic metabolism required for elimination (do not give to people with liver disease)

A

Barbiturates; Thiopental and methohexital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

General anesthetic that has a slower onset than barbiturates; longer duration of action; more often used as premedication; prolongs recovery period but produces amnesia; used to get pt to relax before surgery

A

Benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Analgesics; usually not used alone to produce anesthesia but can produce anes. with higher doses; help maintain anes. at low doses; causes respiratory depression, post-op nausea and vomiting; can cause constipation, itching

A

Opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

General anestesia; patient not fully awake or asleep [analgesia, retrograde amnesia]; short procedures requiring some pt cooperation

A

Neuroleptanesthesia

  • neuroleptic drug AKA dopamine blocker = droperidol
  • opioid analgesic = fentanyl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Induction of anesthesia (seconds); quick onset, quick recovery; combined with other drugs; adverse effects = no analgesic actions, involuntary movements, pain on injection, nausea and vomiting

A

Etomidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dissociative anesthetic [catatonia, amnesia, analgesia]; poor muscle relaxant; mostly for short procedures; increases muscle tone, BP, HR, breathing rate; increase salivary and bronchial secretions; hallucinations or disturbed dreams - reduced by diazepam

A

Ketamine

22
Q

General anesthesia; Fast onset; antiemetic; lowers BP, ICP; little pain control, lethal metabolic acidosis and skeletal myopathy; dystonia and seizures

A

Propofol

23
Q

Term meaning “stops vomiting”

A

Antiemetic

24
Q

Term meaning “involuntary muscle contractions”

A

Dystonia

25
Q

Drug used to treat dystonia; anticholinergic drug

A

Benzotropine

26
Q

Prevents involuntary movements and make mechanical ventilation easier; block NMJ fxn

A

Neuromuscular blockers

27
Q

Competitive antagonists of muscle nicotinic receptor; similar in structure to curare; no muscle movement

A

Non depolarizing blockers

28
Q

Act like ACh ant NMJ, but not broken down; depolarized muscle is not responsive to further stimulation

A

Depolarizing blockers

29
Q

What are 5 special concerns of general anesthesia?

A
  1. Drowsiness
  2. Confusion or delirium
  3. Weakness
  4. May last several days if a patient has difficulty eliminating the drug
  5. Lung concerns
30
Q

Anesthetics decrease ______________ in airways, which increases risk of infection and atelectasis

A

Mucociliary clearance (move things out from lungs)

31
Q

How can PTs help with residual lung concerns produced by using general anesthesia?

A

Encourage patients to cough and breath deeply to:

  1. Eliminate anesthesia
  2. Mobilize secretions
  3. Breathing exercises
  4. Postural drainage
32
Q

Characterized by a loss of sensation in a specific body part or region

A

Local anesthesia

33
Q

What two environments would you use local anesthetics?

A
  1. Surgery; no post op effects of general anes.; doesn’t interfere with CV, resp. or renal fxn
  2. Non-surgical; short- or long-term pain relief; block sympathetic pathways; iontophoresis or phonophoresis
34
Q

Name 3 local anesthetics

A
  1. Benzocaine (Américaine)
  2. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
  3. Procaine (Novocain)
35
Q

What is local anesthetics often administered with? Why?

A

A vasoconstricting agent such as epinephrine; slows down removal of the drug and to reduce entering the bloodstream

36
Q

How are anesthetics metabolized?

A

Hydrolysis by liver or enzymes in plasma

37
Q

How are anesthetics excreted?

A

Metabolite secreted by kidneys

38
Q

Local anesthetic applied directly to skin, mucous membranes, cornea, etc.; drug is for the thing its being applied to

A

Topical administration

39
Q

Local anes. applied to skin, absorbed into underlying structures; iontophoresis, phonophoresis, transdermal patch

A

Transdermal administration

40
Q

Local anes. injected into a region and saturates it; diffuses to sensory nerve endings; used in dental procedures

A

Infiltration anesthesia

41
Q

Local anes. injected into a nerve trunk so that transmission in peripheral nerve is blocked; prolonged administration into skeletal m. can produce localized m. pain and necrosis

A

Peripheral nerve block

42
Q

Local anes. injected into spaces surrounding the spinal cord; too high of dosage has a risk for neurotoxicity, resulting in nerve damage; used whenever anesthesia is needed for large region

A

Central neural blockade

43
Q

Central neural blockade injected in space between vertebra and dura mater; safer and easier of the 2 blockades

A

Epidural nerve blockade

44
Q

Central neural blockade injected in subarachnoid space (intrathecal anesthesia); faster and more effective, but higher risk for neurotoxicity

A

Spinal nerve blockade

45
Q

Can occur during peripheral and central nerve blocks; can be used for specific treatment - CRPS; tend to work better in beginning of disorder rather than later

A

Sympathetic block

46
Q

What is Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)? How is a block used to treat this?

A

Affects a region of the body, thought to be due to dysfunction of symp. NS; injections into the region surrounding the sympathetic ganglion

47
Q

Injected into peripheral vein; drug diffuses into body region; tourniquet restrict blood flow so anesthetic stays in the region

A

IV regional anesthesia

48
Q

Inhibit of sodium ion channels [blocks action potential]; blockage at one point blocks all forward progression of action potential; smaller diameter axons affected the most

A

MOA (mechanism of action, inhibitor)

49
Q

Drugs meant to have a local effect; if absorbed into general circulation, can affect nervous and CV systems; happens when a blood vessel is hit instead of a nerve

A

Systemic effects

50
Q

What are anesthetic systemic effects of the CNS?

A

Initially stimulates the brane [somnolence, confusion, agitation, excitation, seizures]; followed by CNS depression [respiratory depression, cardiac depression]

51
Q

What are anesthetic systemic effects of the cardiac system?

A

Decreased excitation, HR, force

52
Q

What causes systemic actions due to anesthesia?

A
  1. Long-acting and excessive dose
  2. Increased absorption rate
  3. Injected into systemic circulation