ADV TEST Q&A Flashcards

0
Q

Treatment of Bio warfare agent cass

A

NAVMED P-5042

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1
Q

Treatment for chem agents

A

-named p-5041

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3
Q

Nutrition Standard Education

A

Bumedinst 10110.6

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3
Q

Med Events Report

A

-Bu 6220.12

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4
Q

Quality Assurance program

A

-BUMEDINST 6010.13

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5
Q

Claim of Benefits

A

-VA 526

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7
Q

Imms & Chemoprolax

A

-Bumedinst 6230.15

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8
Q

HSAP

A

-Bumedinst 6440.5

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9
Q

Den Infection Control prog.

A

-Bumedinst 6600.10

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10
Q

Imm requirements & Recommend

A

-Bumedinst 6230

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12
Q

Health Service Support

A

-JP 4-02

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13
Q

Field Hygiene and Sanitation

A

-MCRP 4-11.1

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14
Q

Manual of the Med Dept

A

NAVMED P-117

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15
Q

Man of Naval Prevention Med

A

-NAVMED P-5010

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16
Q

Decedent Affairs Manual

A

-navmedcominst 5360.1

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17
Q

Consultation sheet

A

-SF 513

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19
Q

Navy Directives Issuance System

A

-Opnavinst 5215.17

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20
Q

Cerebrovascular Accident

A

-stroke or Apoplexy

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21
Q

Angina Pectoris

A
  • insufficient oxygen circula to heart

- treat w/ nitroglycerin tablets

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22
Q

Acute Myocardinal Infraction

A

-coronary artery severely occluded

/completely blocked by clot

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23
Q

Congestive Heart Failure

A
  • prolonged hypertension

- increased size of left ventricular pump chamber

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24
Q

Grand Mal seizure

A
  • more serious seizure
  • generalized muscle contraction
  • loss of bladder and bowel
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25
Q

Petite Mal Seizure

A
  • short duration
  • localized muscle contractions
  • partial loss of conscious
  • altered state of awareness
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26
Q

HREC charge out receipt

A

-NAVMED 6150/7

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27
Q

Chronological rec of med care

A

-SF 600

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28
Q

Report of Med Examination

A

-SF 88

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29
Q

Report of Med History

A

-SF 93

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30
Q

Progress Report

A

-SF 509

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31
Q

Immunization record

A

-SF 601

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32
Q

What are the fat soluble vitamins

A

ADEK

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33
Q

How many prescriptions can be filled on a DD Form 1289?

A

Only 1 prescription

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34
Q

Eye wear prescription

A

-DD Form 771

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35
Q

Narrative Summary

A

-SF 502

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37
Q

Management of Infectious waste

A

-Bumedinst 6280.1

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38
Q

What form is carried by service member while on independent international travel.

A

PHS-731

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39
Q

How many orders can a Polyprescription, NAVMED 6710/6 fill?

A

Four prescriptions

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40
Q

What is the common name for Pediculosis capitus

A

Head Lice

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41
Q

What is the common name for Phthirus pubis?

A

Crab Lice

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42
Q

What is the treatment for head lice?

A

Permethrin (Elimite (R)/Nix

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43
Q

What is a symptom of crab lice?

A

Scabies

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44
Q

An infection resulting from treatment in a hospital and is secondary to an original condition unrelated to a primary diagnosis??

A

Nosocomial infection

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45
Q

What are the most common infections caused by fungus?

A

Athlete’s foot and Ringworm

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46
Q

How often is a wall to wall inventory conducted?

A

Annually or when random inspections store room fails to meet 90% accuracy OR custodian turn over.

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47
Q

Medical Records RETIREMENT TAPE name the colors for the following years: 2013, 2012, 2011, 2010, 2009, 2008,

A

2013 Green, 2012 White, 2011 Yellow, 2010 Black, 2009 Blue, 2008 Red,

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48
Q

What military weight control program does dining facilities offer?

A

Reduced Calorie Menu offers 1500-1600 calories per day.

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49
Q

What is the virus that causes Syphylis? 1.) Clymidia 2.) Strepto cocci 3.) Treponema pallidum 4.) Gonococcal Infections

A

Treponema pallidum

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50
Q

What is the treatment for Syphylis?

A

Penicillin, Doxycycline, Tetracycline

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51
Q

What stage in Syphylis has no physical symptoms?

A

Latent

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52
Q

How many series of Anthrax are administered? 1.) 4 2.) 8 3.)6 4.) 10

A

6 Series

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53
Q

How many series of Hep A are administered? 1.) 4 2.) 5 3.)8 4.)2

A

2 Series

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54
Q

What is the access to care for Tricare?

A

Urgent 24hrs, Routine 7 days, Specialty 28 Days

55
Q

What is the most common cane used?

A

Wooden Cane

56
Q

What is the treatment for Candida?

A

Antifungals, Miconazole nitrate, Flagly,

57
Q

How old must a dependent be to recieve Hep A?

A

2-18 years old

58
Q

What is the dose administered for Hep A?

A

Adult (19+) 1.0ml and Children (2-18) 0.5ml

59
Q

What documents must accompany the remains from OCONUS to the U.S. entry point?

A

3 signed copies of DD Form 2064, Certificate of Death, 2 DD Form 565

60
Q

When are spot checks conducted in a supply warehouse?

A

By higher authority OR when materials are found to be defective.

61
Q

What has the same authority as a instruction?

A

Notice

62
Q

What system is used to update immunizations on a ship? 1.) ALTHA 2.) SAMS 3.) CDA 4.) CHCS

A

SAMS

63
Q

For unconcious patients what assesment is used?

1.)AVPU 2.) ATBLS 3.) CPR

A

AVPU

64
Q

What is the form used to request medical records?

  1. ) VA Form 526 2.) DD Form 877
  2. ) NAVMED 6150/7 4.) DD Form 771
A

DD Form 877

65
Q

What percentage of body weight does a wooden cane support? 1.) 45% 2.) 75% 3.)15% 4.) 35%

A

15%

66
Q

What are the symptoms of Congestive heart failure?

A

Shortness of breath, swelling feet and legs, tender abdoment, cough with “frothy” mucus or phlym, and increased urination at night.

67
Q

What form are special physicals recorded on?

A

DD 2808/ NAVYMED 6150/2

68
Q

What is a surgical ward composed of?

A

Four ORs and 20 beds

69
Q

What is the treatment for Anthrax?

A

Doxycycline

70
Q

How is Dengee Fever transmitted?

A

Transmitted by misquito

71
Q

What are the symptoms of Typhoid?

A

High fever 103 - 104 C, rashes, vomitting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, constipation.

72
Q

How is Typhoid contracted?

A

Contaminated food and water

73
Q

What AMAL hold the SICKCALL block?

A

699

74
Q

What AMAL is the Field Dental Unit?

A

662

75
Q

What AMAL is the X-Ray Equipment

A

627

76
Q

What AMAL is the Preventive Medicine Technician

A

638

77
Q

What is the AMAL for Preventive Med Entomology

A

650

78
Q

What is the AMAL for NBC Unit?

A

688

79
Q

What is the AMAL for Individual?

A

687

80
Q

What NEC is 8432?

A

Preventive Medicine Technician

81
Q

What NEC is 8425?

A

IDC

82
Q

What is the NEC for BIO MED tech?

A

8410

83
Q

What is the NEC for Pharmacy Tech?

A

8482

84
Q

What is NEC is 8483?

A

Surgery Technician

85
Q

What is the NEC for FMF HM?

A

8404

86
Q

What is the NEC for Dental Hygienist?

A

8708

87
Q

What is the NEC for Dental Assistant?

A

8701

88
Q

What is the NEC for Dental Lab Basic?

A

8752

89
Q

What is the NEC for Lab Tech Advance?

A

8506

90
Q

After a medication is opened how many days is it kept?

A

30 Days

91
Q

Once a death is confirmed with in how many hours must it be reported?

A

4 Hours

92
Q

What are the Water Soluble Vitamins?

A

Vitamin C, B6, B12, Thiamin, Niacin, Riboflavin, Folic Acid, Biotin

93
Q

What symptom would a patinent have if they have a deficiency in Vitamin A?

A

Night Blindness

94
Q

Vitamin D helps with what function in the body?

A

Mineralization of Bones

95
Q

Vitamin K helps with what fuction in the body?

A

Blood Clotting

96
Q

Scurvy is caused by what vitamin deficiency?

A

Vitamin C

97
Q

Pharmacy Operation and Drug Control is what chapter in the NAVMED P-117

A

Chapter 21

98
Q

What chapter is Preventive Medicinces and Occupational Health in the NAVMED P-117

A

Chapter 22

99
Q

What is Chapter 19 in the NAVMED P-117

A

Fleet Marine Force

100
Q

What is Chapter 8 in the NAVMED P-117

A

Nurse Corps

101
Q

What is Chapter 6 in the NAVMED P-117

A

Dental Corps

102
Q

What is Chapter 16 in the NAVMED P-117

A

Health Records

103
Q

What is Chapter 18 in the NAVMED P-117

A

Medical Evaluation Boards

104
Q

What is chapter 1 in the NAVMED P-5010

A

Food Sanitation

105
Q

What chapter is 9 in the NAVMED P-5010

A

Preventive Medicines for Ground Forces

106
Q

Gram positive is what color?

A

Dark blue

107
Q

What chapter is Entomology and Pest control in the NAVMED P-5010

A

Chapter 8

108
Q

What is the normal white blood cell count?

A

4800-10600

109
Q

How many MGTF squadron are there?

A

Four

110
Q

A normal WBC should contain what minimum to maximum number of cells per cubic millimeter of whole blood?

A

4,000 to 11,000

111
Q

What chemical is considered to be best urine preservation?

A

Toluene

112
Q

The Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) card test is a screening test for what infection or disease?

A

Syphilis

113
Q

Leuckocytosi can be caused by which of the following infections?

A

Meningitis

114
Q

The normal hematocrit value for adult female is within what range of percentages?

A

40% to 48%

115
Q

Aboard ship, which of the following is the only form of chlorine that may be carried?

A

Calcium Hypochlorite 70%

116
Q

What is the most common cockroach found aboard ships?

A

German

117
Q

Staphylococcal infectious agents are known to be responsible for what conditions?

A

Carbuncles

118
Q

Which of the following contagious infections is the most common form of ulceration? 1.) Syphilis 2.) Herpes Simplex Type 2 3.) HPV 4.) Herpes Simplex Type 1

A

Herpes Simplex Type 2

119
Q

What term should be used to record ringworm of the body?

A

Tinea Corporitis

120
Q

A complaint of pain, dischage, hearing loss and a blowing sensation in the ear is suspected to be what condition? 1.) Swimmer’s Ear 2.) Tinnitus 3.)Perforated Typanic Membrane 4.)Acute Otitis Media

A

Perforated Typanic Membrane

121
Q

What form of lague is transmitted by the bite of the infective rat flea (xenopsylla cheopis) ?

A

Bubonic

122
Q

What mosquito is responsible for transimitting Yellow Fever?

A

Aedes Egypti

123
Q

What is the ideal temperature for the storae of fresh eggs?

A

32 F

124
Q

What Federal Supply class catalog pertains to X-ray equipment & supplies?

A

6525

125
Q

What measurement indicates the minimum quantity of a stock item that is required to support operations?

A

Stocking objecives

126
Q

What document should be used to requistion medical books & Jouralist?

A

DD-1149

127
Q

What form should be used to report a discrepancy when you receive ordered supplies?

A

SF-364

128
Q

Four Quarentenable Diseases are?

A

(PYSC) Plague, Yellow Fever, Small Pox, Cholera

129
Q

Disease Transmitted by water or fly?

A

(CAT) Cholera, Amebiasis, Typhoid Fever