Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology II > Adrenergic Stimulants > Flashcards

Adrenergic Stimulants Flashcards

1
Q

Cocaine, Tyramine, Amphetamines and MAOIs are an example of what type of adrenergic effector?

A

indirect acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This type of adrenergic effector has the following characteristics:

inhibits reuptake

increases synth and release

acts presynaptically

A

indirect acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This type of adrenergic effector has the following characteristics…

active on target tissues

mimics SNS stimulation

A

direct acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This type of adrenergic effector has the following characteristics…

stops indirect acting, enhances direct acting

A

denervation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The only adrenergic receptor that is inhibitory is…

A

Alpha 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 6 types of adrenergic receptor?

A

alpha 1 and alpha 2

beta 1, beta 2, beta 3

Dopamine 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the specific agonist for alpha 1?

A

phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the specific agonist for alpha-2?

A

clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the specific agonist for beta 1?

A

dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the specific agonist for beta 2?

A

albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the specific agonist for beta 3?

A

mirabegron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the agonist for dopamine receptors?

A

fenoldopam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the receptor:

Isoproterenol > Epi/NE

A

Beta 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name the receptor:

Isoproterenol > Epi&raquo_space; NE

A

Beta 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name the receptor:

Isoproterenol = NE > Epi

A

beta 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which catecholamines are non-specific adrenergic receptor activators?

A

NE

Epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This catecholamine is rarely used clinically, causes severe vasoconstriction, but can increase BP in severe hypotension

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which two drugs activate alpha 1 and beta 1 receptors, causing an increase in HR and BP>

A

epi and NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

alpha 1 activation causes…

A

vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

beta 1 activation causes…

A

increased HR and contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

This drug has the following indications:

anaphylaxis

emergency tx of cardiac arrest/heart block

decrease local anesthetic distro

glaucoma

A

epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

describe the receptor affinity of norepineprine…

A

alpha = beta1&raquo_space; beta2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

describe the receptor affinity of epinephrine

A

beta 1 = beta 2 > alpha 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is a contraindication for use of epinephrine?

A

beta blocker use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The following are adverse effects for which drug?

Tremor
Tachycardia
HTN
HA
Vasoconstriction/necrosis

Angina (CAD pts.)

A

epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Low dose epinephrine activates beta 2 receptors. What effect does this have on HR and by what mechanism?

A

beta 2 activation = skeletal muscle vasodilation

baroreflex doesn’t activate

HR remains elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

High dose eopinephrine causes a decreased HR by what mechanism?

A

alpha-1 activation overrides beta 2.

Increased diastolic leads to increased MAP

Increased MAP activates baroreflex which slows HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

An alpha blocker given in the presence of epinephrine will have what effect?

A

stabilize systolic pressure by allowing beta-2 vasodilation to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

a beta blocker given in the presence of epinephrine will have what effect?

A

prevents increased HR and contractility

elevate BP, decrease CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the three alpha 1 agonists?

A

phenylephrine, pseudoephedrine, oxymetazoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

This alpha 1 agonist is indicated for…

hypotensive emergency
nasal decongestion
mydriasis

A

phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are precautions when giving phenylephrine

A

caution in HTN and BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

This drug is an alpha 1 agonist that has a similar mechanism as phenylephrine, but is more effective

A

pseudoephedrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

this alpha 1 agonist is delivered topically to cause vasoconstriction of the eye and nasal mucosa…

A

oxymetazoline (Afrin & Visine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

for whom should you give oxymetazoline with caution

A

HTN

Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma

36
Q

what three drugs are considered alpha 2 agonists?

A

clonidine, methyldopa, tizanidine

37
Q

These alpha agonists have the following indications:

HTN

Addiction

Hot Flashes

Pre-Anesthesia

A

Clonidine and Methyldopa

38
Q

Which alpha 2 agonist is the DOC for HTN during pregnancy?

A

methyldopa

39
Q

these alpha agonists can cause xerostomia and sedation

A

clonidine and methyldopa

40
Q

these alpha agonists stimulate alpha 2 receptors in the brain, causing a decreased SNS response to relevant sites

A

clonidine and methyldopa

41
Q

What are three precautions/contraindications for clonidine and methyldopa

A

no used as monotherapy due to CNS effects

No rapid withdrawal of clonidine due to HTN crisis

Clonidine patch cannot get heated

42
Q

By what mechanism do clonidine and methyldopa decrease HTN?

A

decrased SNS leads to decreased renin secretion, which leads to decreased BP

43
Q

This alpha agonist should be considered when spasticity control is important. It is used to treat neurological conditions to reduce muscle spasticity…

A

tizanidine

44
Q

What is the major adverse effect of tizanidine?

A

asthenia, weakness

45
Q

is tizanidine useful in BP therapy?

A

no

46
Q

Which 4 drugs are considered beta agonists?

A

isoproterenol, dobutamine, albuterol, mirabegron

47
Q

This non-specific beta agonist is useful in the emergency treatment of cardiac arrest and complete heart block…

A

isoproterenol

48
Q

This beta agonist is a potent beta 1 and beta 2 agonist leading to skeletal, renal and mesenteric vasodilation and increased HR

A

isoproterenol

49
Q

a large dose of isoproterenol can have what adverse effects?

A

tachycardia

palpitations

arrhythmia

50
Q

This beta agonist is useful in treating:

cardiogenic shock
HFrEF
Cardiac Stress Testing

A

Dobutamine

51
Q

By what mechanism does dobutamine increase HR?

A

increased contractility and CO

52
Q

describe the half-life of dobutamine…

A

2 minutes

53
Q

This beta agonist when given in patients with HTN can rapidly increase their BP

A

dobutamine

54
Q

Which beta agonist is useful in treating asthma?

A

albuterol

55
Q

What are three adverse effects from albuterol?

A

tachycardia

tremor

Palpitations

56
Q

This is the only beta 3 agonist

A

mirabegron

57
Q

this beta agonist causes detrusor relaxation and increased bladder capacity…

A

mirabegron

58
Q

which beta agonist is useful in treating overactive bladder?

A

mirabegron

59
Q

What are two adverse effects of mirabegron?

A

HTN

sinus tachycardia

60
Q

a low dose of dopamine actives the _____ receptors in the ______, leading to what?

A

D1 receptors in Kidney

Leads to renal vasodilation

61
Q

A moderate dose of dopamine activates the _______ receptor in the ________ leading to what?

A

Beta 1 receptors in heart

Leads to inotropic fx

62
Q

A high dose of dopamine activates the _______ receptors in the _________ leading to what?

A

alpha receptors in the vessels

leading to vasoconstriction

63
Q

When is dopamine indicated?

A

short term tx of severe heart failure

64
Q

When is dopamine contraindicated?

A

use with MAOIs

65
Q

This dopamine receptor agonist can cause reflex tachycardia and flushing…

A

fenoldopam

66
Q

When is fenoldopam indicated?

A

HTN emergency

67
Q

Describe the mechanism by which fenoldopam decreases BP…

A

dilation of renal vascular beds

68
Q

HTN emergency parameters…

A

SBP > 180 or DBP > 120 + end organ damage

69
Q

describe the half life of fenoldopam…

A

5 minutes

70
Q

What five drugs are indirect sympathomimetics?

A

amphetamine, methylphenidate, methamphetamine, cocaine, tyramine

71
Q

This drug class works via the following mechanism:

uptake by NET leads to NT displacement and increased NE release

Increased NE in the cleft leads to denervation.

Denervation causes constriction with phenylephrine, decreased constriction with amphetamines

A

indirect sympathomimetics

72
Q

These drugs are CNS stimulants that are DOC for ADHD and can be used to treat narcolepsy…

A

amphetamine and methylphenidate

73
Q

What are adverse effects with high dose amphetamine/methylphenidate administration?

A

cerebral hemorrhage

convulsions

coma

74
Q

What are normal adverse effects of amphetamine and methylphenidate?

A

tremor

tachycardia

htn

psychosis

75
Q

cocaine is a reuptake inhibitor for…

A

dopamine and NE

76
Q

cocaine can be used as a ____

A

local anesthetic

77
Q

cocaine is synergistic with what drug? How?

A

amphetamine

cocaine blocks NET so entire amphetamine and NE dose goes to synaptic cleft

78
Q

In young, otherwise healthy adults, cocaine use can have what adverse effects?

A

HTN

Stroke

79
Q

What are the three common side effects of cocaine use?

A

tachycardia

arrhythmia

MI

80
Q

What is a long-term side effect of cocaine use?

A

psychosis

81
Q

This is the dinner party drug… found in pepperoni, salami, cheese, beer, wine and nuts…

A

tyramine

82
Q

This drug causes increased catecholamine release, forming octopamine, a false transmitter

A

tyramine

83
Q

who should avoid tyramine?

A

MAOI use

84
Q

Describe the breakdown of tyramine…

A

rapid hydrolization by MAO

85
Q

What is an adverse effect of tyramine?

A

tachypylaxis

Pharmacology II (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions