Additional Questions Flashcards
A Chronological log is required in:
A. Category 1 complaints
B. Category 2 complaints
C. Non complaints
D. All complaints
A. Category 1 complaints
Category I, II and other complaints Shall be destroyed after _____.
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
C. 5 years
When is the final evaluation for field training ?
A. The last two days of the final phase
B. The last 10 days of the final phase
C. The last 2 days of phase III
D. During all of phase IV
D. During all of phase IV
The use of Radar/Lidar to enforce freeway speeds is approved by the _____
A. AC staff
B. AC field
C. Commissioner
D. None of the above, use of RADAR/LIDAR on a freeway is permitted statewide.
D. None of the above, use of RADAR/LIDAR on a freeway is permitted statewide.
Radar certified officers must be recertified ____
A. Quarterly
B. Annually
C. Semi-annually
D. Biennially
B. Annually
In the event an officer is involved in an incident such as a shooting, assault, or vehicle accident and the soft body armor is hit by a bullet or other penetrating object or damaged in any way, the officer shall have thorough physical exam even if no apparent injury and as soon as practical after the incident, but no later than _____ a report is to be forwarded to Supply Services Unit concerning the ballistics protection afforded by the soft body armor.
A. 10 business days
B. 10 working days
C. 30 business days
D. 30 working days
B. 10 working days.
Missed quarterly shoots ____ be satisfied by completing a make-up shoot.
A. May
B. Must
C. Should
D. Shall
A. May
During field training, what is the maximum number of days a trainee can miss without training being expanded the number of days missed?
A. One during a phase
B. Up to two during a phase
C. Up to three during a phase
D. The trainee may not miss any days of training
B. Up to two during a phase
Officers ___ (should/shall) not use OC at a distance of less than ____ feet unless an extreme hazard exists, and ____ (should/shall) not aim directly into the subject’s eyes at a distance less than ____ feet.
A. Shall/3 feet & shall/5 feet
B. Shall/3 feet & should /5 feet
C. Should/ 3 feet & should/5 feet
D. Should/5 feet & should/5 feet
Shall/3 feet & should/5 feet
When responding to a custodial facility, the mission of the CHP will be limited to:
A. Prevention of death or injury to any person including inmates or wards and protection of property.
B. Traffic Control
C. Establishing a perimeter
D. Prevention of death or injury to state employees and civilians.
A. Prevention of death or injury to any person including inmates or wards and protection of property.
You are the on-duty ranking supervisor; you are dispatched to a spontaneous riotous situation aft Dager won the Mr. Universe competition. You arrived on scene and set up your IC and made your notifications. You determine that the threat is beyond the capabilities of teh on-duty command personnel to manage/control, what should you do next?
A. You shall notify your Lieutenant and have him make the decision to initiate a tactical alert.
B. You shall notify your Commander and have him make the decision to initiate a tactical alert.
C. You as the on-scene ranking supervisor may initiate a tactical alert.
D. You shall inform your chain of command of the situation and they will notify AC field, he is the only one that can authorize a tactical alert.
C. You as the on-scene ranking supervisor may initiate a tactical alert.
What are the limbo periods during field training?
A. The first day of each phase
B. The first tow days of each phase
C. The first two days of Phase I, and the first day of Phases II and III.
D. The first 6 days of Phase I, and the first day of Phases II and III.
A. The first day of each phase
What is an Arrest Squad comprised of?
A. Squad leader and 8-10 officers.
B. Squad leader and 11 officers
C. Squad leader and 4 to 5 officers
D. Squad leader and 11-12 officers.
B. Squad leader and 11 officers.
How many categories of knowledge are captured on the CHP 115A, Daily Observation Report (DOR).
A. 30
B. 35
C. 38
D. 40
C. 38
In accordance with Section 13380 VC, when shall officers submit a sworn report (DS 367/DS 367M) to DMV?
A. Only when the arrestee’s BAC is .08% or above.
B. BAC is .08% or above or DUI drugs
C. Every 23140, 23152, 23153 arrest.
D. Only DUI arrests that will result in files being charged.
C. Every 23140, 23152, 23153 arrest.
Who can authorize the use of a wooden dowel as a distraction tool during an incident?
A. Only the IC may authorize the use of the wooden dowel.
B. Only an on-scene manager ay authorize the use of the wooden dowel.
C. Only the IC or in their absence, a designated manager/supervisor may authorize the use of the wooden dowel.
D. Only AC Field may authorize the use of the wooden dowel.
C. Only the IC or in their absence, a designated manager/supervisor may authorize the use of the wooden dowel.
When an employee has a recurrence of an injury, what documentation must be completed within 24 hours?
A. CHP 121
B. CHP 121A
C. CHP 121B
D. A memo
D. A memo
When impounding a vehicle for hit and urn investigation or for being left abandoned after being used to flee a peace officer, the vehicle ____ be released within ____ hours.
A. Cannot/ 8
B. Should / 24
C. May /72
D. Shall /48
D. Shall/ 48 hours
You are the Squad Leader of an Arrest Team at an anti-war demonstration. The demonstrators are passive disabled elder veterans that are unable to walk. in order to arrest the subjects they must be carried. Can you give permission for your arrest team to carry arrestees?
A. No, passive demonstrators shall never be carried.
B. Yes, but have only one officer carry the arrestee.
C. No, only the incident Commander can give permission to carry the arrestees.
D. Yes, you as the squad leader of the arrest team may give permission to carry the arrestee, but a minimum of three officers shall be used to carry the arrestee.
D. Yes, you as the squad leader of the arrest team may give permission to carry the arrestee, but a minimum of three officers shall be used to carry the arrestee.
When an employee of this Department, including the subject to investigation, learns that another agency is conducting an investigation involving CHP personnel, he/she shall immediately____.
A. Notify the involved employee
B. Notify his/her supervisor
C. Notify his/her commander
D. Notify Division
C. notify his/her commander.
The Are FTO coordinator shall participate in how many ride-alongside during which phases?
A. At least 1, during phase II
B. At least 1, during phase III
C. At least 2, during phases I and II
D. At least 2, during phases II and III
B. At least 1, during phase III
In accordance with 23612(h) VC and departmental policy, if an officer uses a PAS the officer shall admonish the suspected violator (for all or informally). If the person is over 21 the officer shall advise the suspect they have the right to refuse the PAS test.
A. True
B. False
A. True
When a command receives a complaint letter from the Department of Industrial Relations or Division of Occupational Safety and Health, a copy of the Complaint letter and a copy of the command’s response are to be posted for a minimum of ____ days or until the unsafe condition is corrected.
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
B. Three
When is the Are management interview conducted during field training?
A. During phase I
B. During phase II
C. During phase III and any extension phase
D. During phase I and III
D. During phase I and III
Documentary evidence ____ be marked with ____ ink.
A. Should, red
B. Should blue
C. Shall, red
D. Shall, blue
D. Shall, blue
You are the designated supervisor at a demonstration, you have thirty arrestees, can you authorize the use of flex cuffs and the Marc-30 arrest chain?
A. No only the IC can authorize the use of flex cuffs and March-30 arrest chain.
B. Yes, the IC or designated manager/supervisor may authorize the use of the flex cuffs or Marc-30 arrest chain.
C. No, the CHP never authorizes the use of the Marc-30 arrest chain, but the flex cuffs can be used anytime by anybody.
D. No, the CHP never authorizes the use of either the flex cuffs or the Marc- 30 arrest chain.
B. Yes, the IC or designated manager/supervisor may authorize the use of the flex cuffs or Marc-30 arrest chain.
Areas are required to provide printed news release to the media ___ hours prior to activation of a sobriety checkpoint.
A. 12
B. 24
C. 48
D. 72
C. 48
Final approval for home storage for State owned vehicles lies with the ____.
A. Office of the Commissioner
B. Are Commander
C. Area Motor Sergeant
D. Division Commander
A. Office of the Commissioner.
A recurrence of any injury is defined as a spontaneous recurrence without a new ____.
A. Injury
B. CHP 121
C. Claim
D. Causative incident
D. Causative incident.
The property officer shall conduct a ____ audit of the property system.
A. Weekly
B. Monthly
C. Quarterly
D. Yearly
C. Quarterly
Per departmental policy, recertification of radar units by a lab approved by the International Chiefs of Police Association is required after every ____ of operation.
A. 12 months
B. 24 months
C. 30 months
D. 36 months
C. 30 months
Regarding substance abuse, the supervisor who made the initial determination of reasonable suspicion must document the report on the ____.
A. CHP 216 and marked SECRET
B. CHP 216 and marked CONFIDENTIAL
C. CHP 202 and marked SECRET
D. CHP 202 and marked CONFIDENTIAL
D. CHP 202 and marked CONFIDENTIAL.
How much time is normally given for a trainee to seek out advice and consult with an advisor before resignation?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
B. 48 hours.
With regards to Citizen’s Complaints, closings correspondence shall be sent within ____ of the investigation being approved.
A. 10 work days
B. 10 calendar days
C. 30 work days
D. 30 calendar days
D. 30 calendar days
A supervisor shall accept a written grievance/complaint without an informal discussion and shall investigate the grievance/complaint.
A. True
B. False
B. False
Specific location of DUI checkpoints shall not be released to the public sooner than ____ hours prior to the checkpoint start time.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
A. 2
Patrol vehicle speedometers shall be checked for accuracy at least every ____, whichever comes first.
A. 30,000 miles or 30 days
B. 40,000 miles or 120 days
C. 25,000 miles or 60 days
D. 30,000 miles or 90 days
D. 30,000 miles or 90 days
In order to be valid, a suspect’s waiver of Miranda rights must be:
A. Voluntary, expressive and intelligent
B. Voluntary, willingly, and intelligent
C. Voluntary, deliberate and intelligent
D. Voluntary, knowing and intelligen
D. Voluntary, knowing and intelligent
At least ____ warning signs shall be used when setting up a sobriety checkpoint.
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
C. Six
The nylon leg restraint is ____ for use on subjects who are extremely combative?
A. Recommended
B. Required
A. Recommended
Site selection of a sobriety checkpoint shall be based on alcohol and drug related accident experience or on past DUI activity.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Upon receiving test results from the laboratory, the MRO ____ provide a written explanation of the test results to the Commissioner for review and consideration.
A. May
B. Should
C. Shall
D. Can
C. Shall
The four levels of increasing responsibility and activation in the organizational framework for mutual aid activation are…
A. Local areas, operational areas, regional areas, state law.
B. Area level, division level, statewide, federal
C. Cities, counties, multi-jurisdictional areas, reservations.
A. Local areas, operational areas, regional areas, state law.
All complaints shall be acknowledged by correspondence within how many days?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10
B. 5
When an officer arrests a commercial driver for violation of 23152(d) VC, other than when the arrestee refuses the chemical test, provisions of Admin Per Se (immediate license suspension/revocation) can only be invoked when____.
A. The person’s BAC is .08% or greater
B. The person’s BAC is .06% or greater
C. The person’s BAC is .04% or greater
D. The arrestee voluntarily would like to submit to the test.
A. The person’s BAC is .08% or greater.
The lawfulness of an entry is always a separate inquiry. An entry into the protected area without a warrant, search conditions, existent circumstances, or consent will be invalid:
- regardless of how much probable cause you have; and
- dispute the fact that you see incriminating evidence inside the protected area from a place outside where you have the right to be.
A. True
B. False
A. True
From age ___ through ___, minors are considered responsible for their actions and are normally subject to the jurisdiction of the juvenile court. However, under some circumstances, minors ___ years and older and presumed unfit for juvenile court; and for the long list of serious offenses appearing in Welfare and Institutions Code section 707, subdivision (b), minors as young as ____ can be found unfit for treatment under the juvenile court law and therefore transferred to adult court jurisdiction.
A. 15,17,17,14
B. 14,17,16,14
C. 14,16,14,16
D. 15,17,14,17
B. 14,17,16,14
All juvenile murder suspects must be video-recorded when custodial interrogation occurs in a fixed place of detention.
A. True
B. False
A. True
It is unlawful to leave a child under____ years unaccompanied in a car when there are conditions that present a significant risk to the child’s health or safety or if the engine is running or the keys are in the ignition. Note that after a reasonable effort to locate the responsible party, peace officers and Good Samaritans may remove a child under ____ years old form a car if the child’s safety appears to be in immediate danger(because of weather, ventilation, or other circumstances.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
B. 6
“The law” comes from three primary sources:
a. Statutes, case law, and attorney general decisions
b. The United States and California Constitutions, statutes, and case law
c. The California Constitution, Ex Parte proceedings, and state adjudications
d. Case files, common law, and default judgments
b. The United States and California Constitutions, statutes, and case law
It is ________ for a peace officer to physically enter into an area where a person has a “reasonable expectation of privacy” in order to conduct a search or for the purpose of seizing something unless:
- you have a warrant; or
- an emergency or exigent circumstances exist; or
- you have obtained a valid consent.
Illegal
The curtilage of a home enjoys the same protection as the home itself. Curtilage is the real property “so intimately tied to the home” that it is placed within “the home’s ‘umbrella’ of Fourth Amendment protection.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Scenario: Officers, who had probable cause but no warrant to arrest McCollister, saw him standing in his open garage, which was attached to his house. McCollister had just arrived home from work and was dressed in a fuchsia polo shirt. Officers walked into the garage through its open door and took McCollister into custody. Was this legal?
No
It was illegal for the officers to walk into the garage through its open door without a warrant, consent, or exigent circumstances. “Simply put, a person’s garage is as much a part of his castle as the rest of his home.” CPOLS Chapter 3 – II – C – 1 “A home”
You may not normally enter the back yard to search or seize without a warrant, consent or exigent circumstances.
a. True
b. False
A. True
Apartment dwellers have a reasonable expectation of privacy in the shared back yard of a multi-unit complex.
A. True
B. False
B. False (they do not have)
The general rule relating to the expectation of privacy created by the erection of walls and fences is that if, while standing in a lawful place, you can see over or through the fence or wall (1) without extraordinary effort (e.g., without using a stepladder or standing on a car or cinder block), or (2) without getting very close and “peeking,” the viewing will normally not be considered a “search;” i.e, the person does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy in the area viewed.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Areas beyond the curtilage are “open fields.” “Open fields” do not have to be either “open” or real “fields” to qualify. “Open fields” are areas of land so open to public view that the owner or possessor is deemed to have “implicitly invited” the police to observe his contraband.
A. True
B. False
A. True
You may seize any object that is in plain view, as long as:
- you have a lawful right to be in the place from which you are viewing the object;
- the incriminating character of the object is immediately apparent, i.e., you have probable cause to believe it is crime related; and
- you have a lawful right of access to the location of the object.
a. True
b. False
A. True
(Residential searches) Because you see an object in plain view–including contraband– you may legally enter without a warrant to seize it. You will not need consent or exigent circumstances.
a. True
b. False
b. False
(Simply because you see an object in plain view–even contraband–does not automatically mean that you may legally enter without a warrant to seize it. You will need consent or exigent circumstances.) CPOLS Chapter 3 – III – Plain view
Warrantless entries by police into a residence are presumed illegal unless justified by consent or exigent circumstances. “Exigent circumstances” include an emergency requiring swift action to prevent:
• Imminent danger to live or welfare (including yours); or
• Serious damage to property; or
• Imminent escape of a suspect; or
• The destruction of evidence.
a. True
b. False
A. True
Exigent circumstances do not include the need to enter or search a residence to render emergency aid.
a. True
b. False
B. False (includes the need…)
A “protective sweep” is a thorough search of those places where a person who poses a danger to you or others might be hiding and any evidence of a crime they committed may be located.
a. True
b. False
B. False
(A “protective sweep” is a limited, quick, visual inspection of those places where a person who poses a danger to you or others might be hiding.) CPOLS Chapter IV – A – 1. Protective Sweep
Knock and Notice Requirements for both arrests and searches. Even though the statutes governing “knock and notice” for arrests and search warrants are not identical, they are treated as “functional equivalents” and are governed by the same policy considerations for most purposes. Basically, they require you to convey to the occupant who you are and what your purpose is. Specifically, before you enter (not while you enter) you must:
• knock (or do something else that will alert the people inside to your presence);
• identify yourself as a police officer;
• explain your purpose;
• demand entry and then wait a reasonable period before entering.
A. True
B. False
A. True
When a person is lawfully arrested in a home or other building, a limited right exists to conduct a warrantless search not only of his person, but also of the area within his “immediate control” (“arm’s length,” “lunging distance”).
a. True
b. False
A. True
A detention is valid if you have “reasonable suspicion” that: (1) something relating to criminal activity has just happened (or is happening, or is about to happen); and (2) the vehicle or the person in the vehicle you are about to detain is connected with that activity.
a. True
b. False
A. True
Scenario. At 1:43 a.m., CHP dispatch reported a possibly intoxicated driver “weaving all over the roadway” in a ’80s model blue van traveling northbound on Highway 99. An officer who was less than four miles from where the van was seen positioned himself on the shoulder of Highway 99 to intercept the van. He stopped the van two to three minutes later. He did not observe any weaving, speeding, or other violation of traffic laws before initiating the stop. Was this stop legal?
a. Yes
b. No
A. Yes
The anonymous tip of a possible intoxicated driver “weaving all over the roadway” combined with the officer’s spotting the described vehicle at the expected time and place provided reasonable suspicion to justify an immediate stop to protect the driver and other motorists. CPOLS Chapter 4 – II – 3 – Anonymous Tips/9-1-1 Calls
Scenario: Officers discovered that an orange and black motorcycle that was involved in separate traffic infractions likely was stolen and was being kept at Collins’ girlfriend’s house based on a photo he posted on Facebook. One of the investigating officers located the address and saw what appeared to be a motorcycle under a tarp at the top of the driveway enclosure abutting the house. The officer walked onto the property, lifted the tarp, and obtained the license and VIN numbers to confirm that the motorcycle was stolen. Was this legal?
a. Yes
b. No
B. No
It is unlawful to run a random license plate check on a vehicle you see in a public place (or a place you have a right to be), because you have no reasonable suspicion of criminal activity. There is an expectation of privacy in a license plate on the exterior of a car being driven in public.
a. True
b. False
b. False
(It is lawful to run a random license plate check on a vehicle you see in a public place (or a place you have a right to be), even if you have no reasonable suspicion of criminal activity. This is because there is no expectation of privacy in a license plate on the exterior of a car being driven in public.) CPOLS Chapter 4 – V – C – Random license plate checks/Name checks.
In the search warrant context, “probable cause” means enough credible information to reasonably provide a “fair probability” that the object you seek will be found at the place you want to search.
a. True
b. False
A true
The general rule when detaining a suspect pending a field show up is that the suspect should be brought to the witness. The witness is assisting with a law enforcement investigation and should not be inconvenienced
A. True
B. False
b. False
(The courts require that you inconvenience the suspect as little as possible in making this arrangement. As a general rule, this means the witness should be brought to the suspect; do not take the suspect to the witness if there is any reasonable alternative.) 3 exceptions – probable cause to arrest suspect, consent, impracticability.
All juveniles fall under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court system. However, juveniles under the age of ____ are presumed incapable of criminal intent and the prosecution bears the burden of proving that a juvenile under age ____ knew the wrongfulness of his act. The standard of proof is “clear proof,” which means that the People must prove by “clear and convincing evidence that the minor appreciated the wrongfulness of the charged conduct at the time it was committed.”
a. 13
b. 14
c. 15
d. 16
B. 14
Welfare and Institutions Code section 625 requires you to give four advisements to any minor who is in “temporary custody” even if you are not about to interrogate him.
• [1] that anything he says can be used against him and shall advise him of his constitutional rights, including
• [2] his right to remain silent,
• [3] his right to have counsel present during any interrogation, and
• [4] his right to have counsel appointed if he is unable to afford counsel.
True or False
True
Ver Batam
Although a parent or guardian may request counsel for the minor in certain circumstances, a parent may not invoke a minor’s Miranda rights because those rights are personal to the minor and may not be vicariously invoked by any other person, even an attorney.
a. True
b. False
A. True
All juvenile murder suspects must be video-recorded when custodial interrogation occurs in a “fixed place of detention.
a. True
b. False
A. True
Scenario: A 15-year-old killed her baby after secretly giving birth in her home. Officers obtained her written consent to search her cell phone while she was still in the hospital and before charges were filed. The consent form broadly permitted any investigation of her phone that could result in potential evidence and advised her that she could refuse to consent. She signed the form and provided her passcode. Was her consent valid?
a. Yes
b. No
A. Yes
Welfare and Institutions Code section 627 requires that when a juvenile is going to be held in custody under section 601 or 602, the arresting officer _____ notify the juvenile’s parents or guardian immediately. Within an hour after being taken to a place of confinement (e.g., juvenile hall), juveniles must be advised that they may call (1) a parent, guardian, other relative, or employer and (2) an attorney, and they must be allowed to do so.
a. Should
b. Shall
c. May
d. Must
B. Shall
It is an _______ for a person under the age of 18 to possess not more than 28.5 grams of marijuana or not more than 4 grams of concentrated cannabis on school grounds when school is open for classes or school-related functions. The same conduct is a _____ for persons over the age of 18.
Infraction/Misdemeanor
It is unlawful to smoke a pipe, cigar, or cigarette in a motor vehicle, whether in motion or at rest, if a minor is present. Note that an officer ____ stop a vehicle for the sole purpose of determining if the driver is in violation of Health and Safety Code section 118948.
A. may
B. may not
C. Should
D. Should not
B. May not
It is unlawful to leave a child under_____ years unaccompanied in a car when there are conditions that present a significant risk to the child’s health or safety or if the engine is running or the keys are in the ignition. Note that after a reasonable effort to locate the responsible party, peace officers and Good Samaritans may remove a child under ____years old from a car if the child’s safety appears to be in immediate danger (because of weather, ventilation, or other circumstances).
a. 5
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
B. 6
A driver under the age of ____ years is prohibited from using any mobile service device or wireless telephone while driving, even if the phone is equipped with a hands-free device.
a. 17
b. 18
c. 20
d. 21
b. 18 (Vehicle Code § 23124)
Any person who is unconscious, or otherwise in a condition rendering her incapable of refusal, is deemed to have withdrawn her consent, and a test or tests may not be administered whether or not the person is told that her failure to submit to, or the noncompletion of, the test or tests will result in the suspension or revocation of her driving privileges. Any person who is dead is deemed not to have withdrawn his consent, and a test or tests may be administered at the direction of a peace officer.
a. True
b. False
b. False (deemed not to have withdrawn, tests may be administered)
You ask the driver to take a breath or blood test, and the driver selects breath. She attempts but is unable to complete the breath test. You should now admonish her and inform her that the breath test is unavailable and a blood test must be completed.
a. True
b. False
A. True
When the driver remains silent after being asked whether he will submit to a test, his silence constitutes a “refusal.”
a. True
b. False
A. True
It is a _______to fail to install an ignition interlock device within 30 days following notification by DMV.
a. Infraction
b. Misdemeanor
c. Wobbler
d. Felony
b. Misdemeanor
What are the Department’s Organizational Values?
a. Respect, Equity, Impartiality, Ethical practices
b. Respect for others, Fairness, Ethical practices, Equitable treatment for all
c. Esteem, Honor, Integrity, Equitable treatment for all
d. Equal opportunities, Impartiality, Fairness, Justice for all
b. Respect for others, Fairness, Ethical practices, Equitable treatment for all
How many primary goals are in the Strategic Plan?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
B. 4
What are the Department’s primary strategic goals?
- Protect life and property
- Enhance public trust through superior service
- Invest in our people
- Anticipate public safety and law enforcement trends and provide assistance to allied agencies
_____ means the employee conduction the lineup does not know the identity of the suspect.
A. Blinded administration
B. Blind Administration
C. Photo lineup
D. Recorded lineup
B. Blind Administration
Blind administration ____ be the only method of conducting a live lineup.
A. Should
B. Shall
C. May
D. Must
B. Shall
Blind administration is the preferred method of conducing a lineup and ____ be utilized whenever possible.
A. Should
B. Shall
C. May
D. Must
A. Should
When the blind and ministration is not used the employee ____ document pin the CHP 202 or CHP 216 the reason the presentation of the lineup was not conducted using blind administration, if applicable.
A. Should
B. Shall
C. May
D. Must
B. Shall
_____ means the employee conducting the photographic or recorded lineup may know who the suspect is, but does not know where the suspect has been placed or positioned in the lineup procedure through the use of any of the following:
- an automated computer program that prevents the employee form seeing which photographs the witness is viewing until after the photographic lineup is completed.
- the folder shuffle method, os the employee cannot see or track which photograph is being presented until after the procedure is completed.
- a blinded photograph six pack, which is a system where an employee, other than the investigator, creates the six pack of photographs to be presented to the witness so the employee cannot see the photographs until after the procedure is completed.
- Any other procedure that achieves neutral administration and prevents the employee form knowing where the suspect has been placed or positioned in the lineup.
-
Blinded Administration
