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CA boards > 9 > Flashcards

9 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Bovine Banamine overdose?
    a. Liver abscess
    b. Endotoxic shock
    c. Rumen impaction
    d. GI ulceration
A

d. GI ulceration

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2
Q
  1. Best for surgical analgesia of bovine digit:
    a. Tourniquet and 2% lidocaine IV
    b. Tourniquet and IV morphine
    c. Epidural with 2% lidocaine
    d. Abaxial block
A

a. Tourniquet and 2% lidocaine IV

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3
Q
  1. What is contraindicated in a cow with a retained placenta >24 hours?
    a. Do nothing
    b. Manual removal
    c. Infuse 2% chlorhexidine solution
    d. Influse 50ml oxytetracycline in 500ml sterile saline
A

b. Manual removal

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4
Q
  1. How do you diagnose a displaced abomasums in a cow?
    a. Abdominocentesis
    b. Rectal palpation
    c. Abdominal auscultation and percussion
    d. Abdominal ballottement
A

c. Abdominal auscultation and percussion (pinging)

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5
Q
  1. You are presented with a cow that came into milk 24 hours ago, she is recumbent, depressed and with decreased rumen contractility and motility. What is the most likely cause of these signs?
    a. Ketosis
    b. Hypokalemia
    c. Hypocalcemia
    d. Hypercalecmia
A

c. Hypocalcemia

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6
Q
  1. Foal for elective castration with T=102.5, P=40, R=48
    a. The foal is normal, do sx
    b. The foal is tachycardic, postpone surgery
    c. Some other combination
    d. Febrile, tachypneic. Don’t perform surgery
A

d. Febrile, tachypneic. Don’t perform surgery (HR is WNL)

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7
Q
  1. An owner is concerned about nutrition for a growing foal. He has been feeding a mixture of timothy grass and oat hay. Protein: 8%, calcium 0.6%, phosphorous 0.1%. Is this adequate to meet the needs of the foal (growth, prevention of developmental bone abnormalities)
    a. Protein is deficient, Ca and P are adequate
    b. Protein is deficient, Ca and P are deficient
    c. Protein is adequate, Ca and P are adequate
    d. Protein is adequate, Ca and P are deficient
A

b. Protein is deficient, Ca and P are deficient (protein=14-16%, Ca=1% , Phos=0.75%)

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following equine diseases is not reportable?
    a. EIA
    b. WEE
    c. VSD
    d. EPM
A

d. EPM

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9
Q
  1. A healthy horse presents to you for a routine breeding exam. On abdominal ultrasound you see non-homogenous echogenic material swirling in the bladder. What is your top ddx?
    a. Neoplasia
    b. Hematuria
    c. Cystic calculi
    d. Normal horse
A

d. Normal horse

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10
Q
  1. An 8 week old kitten presents with otitis externa secondary to Otodectes infection. Which of the following topical treatments would you use?
    a. Rotenone (insecticide)
    b. Mineral oil
    c. Selamectin
    d. Pyrethrin spray (contraindicated in cats)
A

c. Selamectin

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following poultry diseases must be reported 24 hours after discovery?
    a. Avian influenza
    b. Pullorum
    c. Infectious bronchitis
    d. Psittacosis
A

a. Avian influenza

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following emergency diseases should be reported in sheep in 24 hours?
    a. Scrapie
    b. Rift Valley Fever
    c. Brucellosis
    d. Q-fever
A

b. Rift Valley Fever

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13
Q
  1. Horse with mild colic episodes that respond to medical therapy. But they are getting progressively more frequent and severe. There is no improvement with antiparasitics and change of feed or exercise. Next step?
    a. Give NSAIDs for 2 weeks
    b. Send it home and recheck in 1 month
    c. Abdominal ultrasound
    d. Refer for abdominal radiographs
A

d. Refer for abdominal radiographs

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14
Q
  1. A miniature horse presents with anorexia. She has a severely elevated GGT, low BUN, low glucose and high creatinine. What is her most likely disease?
    a. Viral hepatitis
    b. Hepatic lipidosis
    c. Theiler’s disease
    d. Something else
A

Unknown answer. Figure it out.

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15
Q
  1. Signs of bluetongue in a cow
    a. No clinical signs
    b. Acute encephalitis
A

a. No clinical signs

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16
Q
  1. Six month old goats have died on an irrigated pasture. Few have inappetance, weight loss and pale mm.
    a. Anaplasmosis
    b. CAEV
    c. Tapeworm
    d. Haemonchus contortus
A

d. Haemonchus contortus (blood sucking nematode in abomasum)

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17
Q
  1. Horse is 2/5 lame on the right front. Becomes sound after a palmar digital nerve block. You let that block wear off and then perform a distal interphalangeal joint block. After 5 minutes the horse is sound. Where is the lameness located?
    a. Dorsal hoof wall
    b. Superficial digital flexor tendon
    c. Navicular bursa
    d. Proximal interphlangeal joint
A

c. Navicular bursa

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18
Q
  1. Horse with recurrent choke. Which of the following would you recommend for diet?
    a. Chopped hay
    b. Soaked hay
    c. Soaked pellets
    d. Alfalfa cubes
A

c. Soaked pellets

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19
Q
  1. If you distance yourself by a factor of 2 from a radiation source, it will reduce your exposure by what fraction?
    a. 1/2
    b. ¼
    c. 1/6
    d. 1/8
A

b. ¼

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20
Q
  1. For how long can you refill a rimadyl or non-controlled substance without seeing the patient?
    a. 4 months
    b. 6 months
    c. 12 months
    d. 24 months
A

c. 12 months

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21
Q
  1. What could you do to prevent polyarthritis and pneumonia in kids (CAEV)?
    a. Feed the kids pasteurized milk
    b. Vaccinate the kids at 2 weeks of age
    c. Give antibiotics to kids at 2 weeks of age
    d. Vaccinate dams 2 months prior to kidding
A

a. Feed the kids pasteurized milk

22
Q
  1. Cow shipped to fair in Arizona. Who do you call to find out the shipping requirements?
    a. AZ state Department of Agriculture
    b. CA state Department of Agriculture
    c. USDA office in CA
    d. USDA office in AZ
A

a. AZ state Department of Agriculture

23
Q
  1. Mare mounting other mares, you do rectal palpation and ultrasound. What else should you do diagnostically?
    a. Vaginoscopy
    b. Uterine culture
    c. Endometrium biopsy
    d. Endocrine assay
A

d. Endocrine assay

24
Q
  1. What are the clinical signs most consistently seen with snake bite?
    a. Two puncture wounds
    b. Regions of necrotic tissue
    c. Edema and erythema
    d. Ten puncture wounds
A

c. Edema and erythema

25
Q
  1. Young dog with presumed parvovirus is vomiting and has diarrhea. Which of the following is the most likely sequelae?
    a. Fever and septicemia
    b. Septicemia and DIC
    c. Hypothermia and dehydration
    d. Electrolyte imbalances and dehydration
A

d. Electrolyte imbalances and dehydration

26
Q
  1. Most likely source of rabies in CA
    a. Skunks and bats
    b. Skunks and opossums
    c. Raccons and bats
    d. Raccons and opossums
A

a. Skunks and bats

27
Q
  1. A 7 year old Persian cat presents with anorexia, lethargy, BUN=89, creatinine=7.5, phosphorous=16, bilateral enlargement of kidneys on radiographs and ultrasound. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Urolithiasis
    b. Polycystic kidney disease
    c. Renal dysplasia
    d. Bilateral nephritis
A

b. Polycystic kidney disease

28
Q
  1. What toxicosis does a bird get from a galvanized cage?
    a. Zinc
    b. Lead
    c. Copper
    d. Iron
A

a. Zinc

29
Q
  1. What clinical signs would you expect to see in a dog being treated with Digitalis?
    a. Increased appetite
    b. Decreased appetite
    c. Increased urination
    d. Decreased defecation
A

b. Decreased appetite

30
Q
  1. What is the most common zoonotic disease that is transmitted from rabbits to humans?
A

a. Dermatophytes (T. mentagrophytes)

31
Q
  1. A dog has raised lesions on its inguinal area and abdomen that are diagnosed as cutaneous hemangioma. What environmental changes do you make?
    a. Decrease sunlight
    b. Increase sunlight
    c. Grass
    d. Cement floor
A

a. Decrease sunlight

32
Q
  1. A puppy was diagnosed with demodex and treated with amitraz. He is now lethargic and hypothermic. What drug is contraindicated?
    a. IV fluids
    b. Induce emesis
    c. Bathe in warm water
    d. IV yohimbine
A

b. Induce emesis (because amitraz is an OP)

33
Q
  1. A fentanyl patch was placed on the back of a dog. What drug should you avoid using due to its antagonistic effects?
    a. Butorphanol
    b. Morphine
    c. Carprofen
A

a. Butorphanol (mu antagonist, kappa agonist)

34
Q
  1. A dog vomits blue/green pellets and is noise sensitive with other clinical signs. What was ingested?
A

a. Strychnine (rat bait)

35
Q
  1. How long do you have to keep medical records by law?
    a. 3 years
    b. 5 years
    c. 7 years
    d. 9 years
A

a. 3 years

36
Q
  1. How long do you have to keep prescription records according to law
    a. 2 years
    b. 3 years
    c. 4 years
    d. 5 years
A

b. 3 years (Same as medical records)

37
Q
  1. You are worried about passive transfer in a foal that is dehydrated. What test will be falsely elevated?
    a. Refractometer total proteins
    b. Zinc sulfate turbidity test
A

a. Refractometer total proteins

38
Q
  1. A horse was given a high dose of banamine. You need to adjust the dose. What test do you do to look for the side effects of banamine?
    a. Measure BUN
    b. Creatitine
    c. Fecal occult blood
    d. Total proteins
A

c. Fecal occult blood (Bleeding due to GI ulcers)

39
Q
  1. Wrinkly, white, soft skin in a cow predisposes it to:
A

a. Infectious disease

40
Q
  1. To maintain a veterinary-client relationship, you must examine the patient within:
    a. 3 months

b. 6 months
c. 12 months
d. 24 months

A

c. 12 months

41
Q
  1. Sensitivity questions: 60 cats test positive for FIP, 40 test negative for FIP. Post mortem exam showed that only 30 cats of that tested positive actually had FIP and that 10 of the cats that tested negative, had FIP. What is the sensitivity?
    a. 25%
    b. 40%
    c. 60%
    d. 75%
A

d. 75% (sensitivity = true pos/true pos + false neg)

42
Q
  1. What cell type is affected by anaplasma phagocytophilum?
A

a. Neutrophils and eosinophils

43
Q
  1. With acute Ehrlichia canis infection, what is seen on CBC?
    a. Leukocytosis

b. Thromboytopenia
c. Anemia
d. Lymphopenia

A

b. Thromboytopenia

44
Q
  1. Horse with a droopy right eyelid, right ear, curled left lip, circling to the right, head tilt to the right, nystagmus with fast phase to the left. What is your first diagnostic test?
    a. Nasopharyngeal endoscopy
    b. Head radiographs
    c. CSF tap
A

a. Nasopharyngeal endoscopy (examine for guttural pouch mycosis)

45
Q
  1. A cow with urolithasis. What do you do?
A

a. Add NaCl 12-16% to the top of the feed

46
Q
  1. Which is not zoonotic?
    a. Brucella mellitensis
    b. Bartonella henselae (cat scratch fever)
    c. Franciscella tularemia
    d. Something else that was the answer
A

d. Something else that was the answer

47
Q
  1. A healthy cow without any clinical signs has a SCC of the eye. What do you do?
    a. Euthanize
    b. Condemn the carcass
    c. Enucleate the eye
    d. Call the state vet
A

c. Enucleate the eye

48
Q
  1. A SCC of the eye of a cow. What do you do?
    a. Close the skin
    b. Remove the parotid gland
    c. Remove the mass
    d. Do nothing
A

c. Remove the mass

49
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of exophthalmos in cows?
    a. Lymphoma
    b. SCC
A

a. Lymphoma (invades periocular structures)

50
Q
  1. A Yorkie puppy has retained deciduous teeth. What do you tell the owner?
    a. Remove when elective castration is performed
    b. Leave it in, won’t cause a problem
    c. Pull immediately
    d. Pull in 1 year with routine periodontal treatment
A

a. Remove when elective castration is performed

CA boards (16 decks)

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