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3 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Signs of bluetongue in cattle
    a. No signs
    b. Oral ulcers
    c. Abortion and congenital defects
    d. Cough and increased respiratory rate
A

a. No signs

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is consistent with signs of heart failure, thoracic edema and swollen liver in dairy calves
    a. Nitrate toxicity
    b. Urea toxicity
    c. Copper toxicity
    d. Gossypol
A

d. Gossypol (cardiotoxic)

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3
Q
  1. One of your clients has several yearling Dorset lambs that came down with Dictyocaulus this season (lungworm). What changes in management do you rcommend?
    a. Use of molluscicides
    b. Sulfathiazole added to the feed
    c. Move flock to dry ground
    d. Implement early wean, medication protocol
A

c. Move flock to dry ground

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4
Q
  1. You are performing a necropsy on a 6 mo angus steer. On inspecting the brain tissue with a UV light you get fluorescence. What disease does this finding suggest?
    a. TEME
    b. Salt poisoning
    c. Polioencephalomalacia
    d. Lead poisoning
A

c. Polioencephalomalacia

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5
Q

105.You are performing surgery on the distal extremity of a cow. What anesthetic
technique is most appropriate?

a. Lumbar epidural
b. Sacral epidural
c. Perineal block
d. IV local block

A

d. IV local block (Baer block)

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6
Q
  1. Which agent is transmitted venerally in a horse?
    a. Staph aureus
    b. Strep equi zooepidemicus
    c. E. coli
    d. Klebsiella
A

b. Strep equi zooepidemicus (most common infectious cause of infertility)

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7
Q
  1. How do you STORE the brain of a rabies suspect?
    a. Freeze the brain
    b. Refrigerate in airtight container
    c. Store in formalin
    d. Store in alcohol
A

b. Refrigerate in airtight container

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8
Q
  1. What is minimum age when a horse has all of its permanent dentition
    a. 1 year
    b. 3 years
    c. 5 years
    d. 7 years
A

c. 5 years

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9
Q
  1. What is the vector for Lyme’s disease?
    a. Flea
    b. Ixodes (tick)
    c. Dermacentor (RMSF)
    d. Rhipicephalus (Ehrlichia)
A

b. Ixodes (tick)
- —

c. Dermacentor (RMSF)
d. Rhipicephalus (Ehrlichia)

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10
Q
  1. What is the best way to control Strongylus vulgaris in a horse ranch with high stocking of 0.25 acres/horse?
    a. Double dose of antihelmintics
    b. Rotate pastures by age of horse
    c. Clean up and compost manure biweekly
    d. Fertilize and keep the pasture lush
A

c. Clean up and compost manure biweekly

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11
Q
  1. You suspect a horse has pleuropneumonia and pleuritis; how would you verify this?
    a. Lung FNA
    b. Thoracic ultrasound
    c. Pleuroscopy
    d. Thoracic ultrasound and percussion
A

d. Thoracic ultrasound and percussion

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12
Q
  1. How do you treat duodenal and stomach ulcers in a horse as a once a day treatment?
    a. Sucralfate
    b. Ranitidine
    c. Omeprazole
    d. Aluminum magnesium hydroxide
A

c. Omeprazole

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13
Q
  1. What factors predispose horses to urolithiasis?
    a. Urine constituents, nutrition, gender, bacterial
    b. Exercise level, nutrition, gender, bacterial
    c. Viral disease, nutrition, exercise, gender
    d. Urine constituents, viral disease, gender, exercise level
A

a. Urine constituents, nutrition, gender, bacterial

EXERCISE DOES NOT

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14
Q
  1. Which drug would provide effective treatment for Gasterophilus?
    a. Ivermectin
    b. Praziquantel
    c. Pyrantel
    d. Fenbendazole
A

a. Ivermectin (oral and gastric stages)

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15
Q
  1. A horse presents with a swollen sheath that is painful upon urination. A lesion is palpable and has yellow granules in it. What is likely diagnosis?
    a. SCC
    b. Pseuomonas cellulites
    c. Granulation tissue
    d. Habronemiasis
A

d. Habronemiasis (stomach worm)

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16
Q
  1. What can you give to a mare to decrease OCD in her foal?
    a. Supplement calcium
    b. Supplement phosphorous
    c. Supplement copper
A

c. Supplement copper

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17
Q
  1. A female intact horse is anestrus and is mouting other females. In addition to a rectal exam and ultrasound, what would you do to determine her reproductive status?
    a. Vaginoscopy
    b. Uterine culture
    c. Endometrium biopsy
    d. Endocrine assay
A

d. Endocrine assay

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following practices would predispose a horse to Strongylus vulgaris infection? What is treatment?
    a. Dry pasture, milbemycin/avermectin
    b. Dry pasture, benzimiadazole
    c. Irrigated pasture, milbemycin/ avermectin
    d. Irrigated pasture, benzimidazole
A

d. Irrigated pasture, benzimidazole

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19
Q
  1. To perform an emergency tracheostomy in a horse, you should:
    a. Make a horizontal incision through an annular ligament
    b. Make a horizontal incision through a cartilage ring
    c. Make a vertical incision through 2 cartilage rings
    d. Make a 2cm horizontal window in the trachea
A

a. Make a horizontal incision through an annular ligament

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20
Q
  1. A 2 yo Quarterhorse shows signs of muscle fasciculations, facial spasms, weakness, and recumbency. Signs are reduced after administration of IV calcium gluconate, Bicarb and dextrose. What changes would you make to the diet?
    a. Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay and oats, put out to pasture
    b. Give molasses
A

a. Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay and oats, put out to pasture

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21
Q
  1. What causes diaphragmatic flutters in a horse?
    a. Electrolyte and acid/base imbalances
    b. Hypoglycemia
    c. Exercise induced
A

a. Electrolyte and acid/base imbalances

22
Q
  1. You auscultate a horse with decreased gut sounds, intermittent diarrhea, and scratchy ventral abdominal sounds. Likely diagnosis?
    a. Intussception
    b. Enterolith
    c. Sand
    d. Strangulating lipoma
A

c. Sand

23
Q
  1. Which disease is NOT reportable in CA?
    a. EIA
    b. VSV
    c. EPM
    d. Equine encephalitis
A

c. EPM
- —-

a. EIA (within 2 days)
b. VSV (within 24 hours)
d. Equine encephalitis (within 2 days)

24
Q
  1. A horse has a retained placenta; what is a likely sequelae?
    a. Laminitis
    b. Uterine torsion
    c. Anaphylaxis
A

a. Laminitis

25
Q
  1. You examine a horse with COPD. What management recommendations do you make to the owner?
    a. Confine to stall and feed baled hay
    b. Put out to pasture and feed moist food, initially restrict exercise
    c. Put out to pasture and feed moist food, encourage exercise daily
A

b. Put out to pasture and feed moist food, initially restrict exercise

26
Q
  1. What plant causes necrosis of the globus pallidus and substantia nigra in a horse?
    a. Yellow star thistle
    b. Lupine
A

a. Yellow star thistle

- Lupine (cleft palate in cow)

27
Q
  1. What are male neonate foals predisposed to?
    a. Urolith
    b. UTI
    c. Ruptured bladder
    d. E. coli
A

c. Ruptured bladder

28
Q
  1. Goat with epididymitis. What should you do?
    a. Cull the goat
    b. Treat with tetracycline
    c. Vaccinate for Brucella ovis
    d. Advise that it be rested sexually
A

a. Cull the goat (Brucella mellitensis)

29
Q
  1. A cow is recumbent, bellowing, salivating, has no anal or tail tone and has tonic-clonic seizures. Its tongue is flaccid. It has a menace buts its pupils are mydriatic. Its CSF has high protein with lots of mononuclear cells. What is the likely cause?
    a. Botulism
    b. Rabies
    c. Polioencephalomalacia
    d. TEME
A

b. Rabies

  • Botulism (no seizures)
  • Polioencephalomalacia (menace absent b/c blind)
  • TEME (neutrophils predominate, not monocytes)
30
Q
  1. Which disease would not likely to be foodborne in soft cheese?
    a. TB
    b. Brucella
    c. Leukosis
    d. Listeria
A

c. Leukosis

31
Q
  1. How do you surgically correct an LDA?
    a. Left sided abomasopexy and right sided ometopexy
    b. Left sided ometopexy and left sided abomasopexy
    c. Right sided abomasopexy and right sided omentopexy
    d. Right sided omentopexy and left-sided omentopexy
A

a. Left sided abomasopexy and right sided ometopexy

32
Q
  1. What occurs after a 4-point block for an enucleation on a cow?
    a. Exophthalmus and miosis
    b. Exophthalmus and mydriasis
    c. Endophthalmus and miosis
    d. Endophthalmus and mydriasis
A

b. Exophthalmus and mydriasis

33
Q
  1. What is the toxic cause of heart failure, thoracic edema, a swollen liver in dairy calves?
    a. Nitrates
    b. Urea
    c. Copper
    d. Gossypol
A

d. Gossypol (cardiotoxic)

  • Nitrates (methemoglobinemia)
  • Urea (neurotoxic)
34
Q
  1. There is an outbreak of Moraxella bovis in a free-range herd. What is the best treatment option?
    a. Topical gentamicin
    b. Spray with cleaner
    c. Subconjunctival injection of oxytetracycline
    d. IM injection of long lasting oxytetracycline
A

d. IM injection of long lasting oxytetracycline

  • Topical gentamicin (best injected into bulbar conjunctiva)
  • Subconjunctival injection of oxytetracycline (causes conjunctival necrosis)
35
Q
  1. What is the current status of Brucella and TB in CA?
    a. Brucella free; TB free
    b. Modified accredited advanced TB; Brucella free
    c. Modified accredited Brucella; TB free
    d. TB free; Brucella level B
A

b. Modified accredited advanced TB; Brucella free (as of 2007)

36
Q
  1. How do you best prevent contagious mastitis?
    a. Wipe down teat before milking with iodine solution
    b. Dip the teat post-milking
    c. Spray the cows’ udders
    d. Milking machine rate 60/40
A

b. Dip the teat post-milking

- Wipe down teat before milking with iodine solution (environmental mastitis)

37
Q
  1. What is the best restrained for pregnancy check on 100 nervous Brahma range cattle
    a. Sedate with xylazine
    b. Close in stanchion
    c. Squeeze chute
    d. Tie to wall
A

c. Squeeze chute

38
Q
  1. There is a bulk tank SCC of 800,000. What do you do?
    a. Culture the bulk tank on chocolate agar and Mycoplasma medium
    b. Culture the milk of mastitis cows (this milk is not in bulk tank - in hospital tank)
    c. Culture the milk of all cows
    d. CMT of all calls
A

c. Culture the milk of all cows

39
Q
  1. How do you treat for Actinobacillus ligneresii?
    a. Sodium chloride
    b. Potassium iodide
    c. Sodium iodide
    d. Potassium chloride
A

c. Sodium iodide

40
Q
  1. A 6 month old calf died and on necropsy you see diffuse pleural edema and interstitial pneumonia. What is the cause?
    a. Mannheimia hemolytica
    b. PI3
    c. BRSV
A

c. BRSV (diffuse interstitial pneumonia/ emphysema)

- —-

41
Q
  1. You would not want to use a live vaccine for which agent?
    a. Brucella
    b. IBR
    c. BVD
    d. Leptospirosis
A

d. Leptospirosis

42
Q
  1. In an unvaccinated herd, 70% heifers have aborted 3rd trimester with placentitis.
    a. Neospora
    b. IBR
    c. BVD
    d. Brucella
A

b. IBR

43
Q
  1. What drug do you use to put a cow in lateral recumbency?
    a. Xylaxine
    b. Ketamine
    c. Acepromazine
A

a. Xylaxine

44
Q
  1. What will you see with a sweet potato toxicity in a cow?
    a. GI signs
    b. CNS signs
    c. Respiratory signs
    d. Musculoskeletal signs
A

c. Respiratory signs (4-ipomeanol = pneumotoxin)

45
Q
  1. How does milk get contaminated with Salmonella Dublin?
    a. Contamination from equipment
    b. Bulk tank contamination
    c. From milkers’ hands
    d. From carrier cows
A

d. From carrier cows

46
Q
  1. Treatment for parakeratosis in cow?
    a. Magnesium oxide
    b. Copper sulfate
    c. Zinc oxide
A

c. Zinc oxide

47
Q
  1. You see a goat that doesn’t want to lower its head to eat, is mildly depressed and ataxic, and has pain with neck manipulation. What is likely disease?
    a. Polioencephalomalacia (PEM)
    b. Cervical abscess
    c. Botulism
A

b. Cervical abscess

48
Q
  1. What would you palpate in a 55 day pregnancy in a cow?
    a. Placentomes
    b. Fremetous in middle uterine artery
    c. Uterine fluid
    d. Membrane slip
A

d. Membrane slip

49
Q
  1. Which treatment would be contraindicated for a cow with a retained placenta?
    a. Oxytetracycline diluted with water
    b. Flush with chlorhexidine
    c. Do nothing
    d. Manual removal
A

d. Manual removal

50
Q
  1. A 1-2 week old calf has diarrhea. What is the most likely cause?
    a. Rotavirus
    b. Coccidia
    c. Johne’s
    d. M. pleuropneumonia
A

a. Rotavirus (1-3 weeks old)

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