Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CA boards > 7 > Flashcards

7 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What diagnostic test would be performed to diagnose uroperitoneum in a 2 yo colt?
    a. Serum BUN
    b. Urine BUN
    c. Serum creatinine
    d. Abdominocenesis
A

d. Abdominocenesis (to obtain creatinine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. How long must a placenta remain in the mare post-partum to be considered retained?
    a. 0.5 hours
    b. 3 hours
    c. 12 hours
    d. 24 hours
A

b. 3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. A horse has fallen down after administration of detomidine. How do you reverse it?
    a. Yohimbine
    b. Naloxone
A

a. Yohimbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. What do you do with a horse you are treating with TMS and becomes anorexia and develops diarrhea?
    a. Stop TMS, CBC, give banamine
    b. Continue TMS, CBC, banamine
    c. Stop TMS, chem., bute
    d. Continue TMS, chem., bute
A

a. Stop TMS, CBC, give banamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

100.Once a day drug to be used in a foat with a gastric ulcer?

A

a. Omeprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which schedule drug requires a triplicate form to be sent to the DEA?
    a. I
    b. II
    c. III
    d. IV
A

b. II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which of the following species is known to be a reservoir for WEE in CA?
    a. Skunks
    b. Squirrels
    c. Wild horses
    d. Birds
A

d. Birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. An owner is concerned about nutrition for a growing foal. He has been feeding a mixture of timothy grass and oat hay. Protein: 8%, calcium 0.6%, phosphorous 0.1%. Is this adequate to meet the needs of the foal (growth, prevention of developmental bone abnormalities)
    a. Protein is deficient, Ca and P are adequate
    b. Protein is deficient, Ca and P are deficient
    c. Protein is adequate, Ca and P are adequate
    d. Protein is adequate, Ca and P are deficient
A

b. Protein is deficient, Ca and P are deficient (protein=14-16%, Ca=1% , Phos=0.75%; Ca/P ratio = 3:1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Corneal ulcers in sheep are frequently caused by which of the following etiologies?
    a. Chlamydophila
    b. Pseudomonas
    c. Mycoplasma
    d. Herpes
A

a. Chlamydophila

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Corneal ulcers in cats are frequently caused by which of the following etiologies?
    a. FeLV
    b. FIV
    c. FIP
    d. Feline calicivirus
    e. Herpesvirus
A

e. Herpesvirus (dendritic ulcers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. You are presented with a 5 yr old Dalmatian with bilateral mucopurulent ocular discharge and a positive fluororscein stain on the left eye. What of the following is most important question to ask the owner?
    a. What is the dog’s current diet?
    b. Has the dog been on antibiotics recently?
    c. Has the dog been vaccinated for parvo?
    d. Does the dog live outside?
A

b. Has the dog been on antibiotics recently? (KCS secondary to Abtc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. An 8 yr old male GSD presents with weakness in the hind legs of 1 week duration. The owner says the dog’s “hips are giving out.” Neurologic exam reveals normal cranial nerves, normal reflexes in the front limbs, hyperreflexia in the rear limbs. Where is the lesion most likely located?
    a. C1-C5
    b. C6-T2
    c. T3-L3
    d. L4-S1
A

c. T3-L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. You have just diagnosed equine viral arteritis (REPORTABLE) on a breeding farm, what is the most appropriate next step?
    a. Reassure the owner that EVA is self limiting and that no specific treatment will be required
    b. Euthanize the horses immediately due to potential zoonotic risk
    c. Contact state veterinarian
    d. Separate the horses by age
A

c. Contact state veterinarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which of the following species is the primary reservoir for plague in CA?
    a. Cat
    b. Rat
    c. Squirrel
    d. Dog
A

c. Squirrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which of the following abdominal structures can be palpated rectally in a horse?
    a. Stomach, bladder, pelvic flexure
    b. Stomach, bladder, cecum
    c. Cecum, bladder spleen
A

c. Cecum, bladder spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. What is the most common active ingredient in snail bate?
    a. Strichynine
    b. Warfarin
    c. Metaldehyde
    d. Brodifacoum
A

c. Metaldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. What is the most appropriate suture material for wound repair of a contaminated skin laceration to a horse’s dorsal MC3?
    a. Vicryl
    b. PDS (polydioxanone)
    c. Silk
    d. Prolene
A

d. Prolene (polypropylene - lease reactive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. What is the most appropriate suture pattern for wound repair of a skin laceration to a horse’s dorsal MC3?
    a. Horizontal mattress
    b. Vertical mattress
    c. Simple interrupted
    d. Lembert
A

b. Vertical mattress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. What is the most effective treatment of trichobezars in rabbits?
    a. Metoclopramide
    b. Fiber
    c. Pineapple and papaya juice
    d. Mineral oil
A

b. Fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which of the following species is most sensitive to ivermectin?
    a. Guinea pigs
    b. Cats
    c. Birds
    d. Tortoise
A

d. Tortoise (and turtles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. What is the most human way to euthanize a 4 month old calf?
    a. Blunt force to the head
    b. Carbon dioxide
    c. Electrocution
    d. Gunshot to the head
A

d. Gunshot to the head

22
Q
  1. A group of goat kids are exhibiting poor growth, fractured limbs, swollen joints, and have bones with thin cortices. What is the most likely cause?
    a. Vitamin A deficiency
    b. Vitamin D deficiency
    c. Vitamin E deficiency
    d. Ca deficiency
A

b. Vitamin D deficiency

23
Q
  1. 1000 cow herd bulk tank sample has 800,000 SCC. The machinery is clean and there is good post-milking sanitation. What is your next step?
    a. Culture a bulk tank sample
    b. Culture each individual
    c. Cull the whole herd
    d. Culture only the clinically affected cattle
A

a. Culture a bulk tank sample (blood agar)

24
Q
  1. Which vaccine is only available killed?
    a. Leptospirosis
    b. Distemper
    c. FeLV
    d. Rabies
A

a. Leptospirosis (old answer -bacterin vax)

25
Q
  1. Which of the following is the only way to arrive at a definitive diagnosis of FIP in cats?
    a. Coronavirus titers
    b. Abdominal ultrasound
    c. Biopsy and histopathology
    d. ELISA
A

c. Biopsy and histopathology

26
Q
  1. Several lambs in a flock are diagnosed with urolithiasis (most likely struvite). What is the best recommendation you can give the farmer?
    a. Increase P in diet
    b. Increase Mg in diet
    c. Increase salt in diet
    d. Decrease Ca in diet
A

c. Increase salt in diet (increase H2O intake)

27
Q
  1. A 3 year old intact male cat presents with severe stomatitis. What is the most likely differential?
    a. FeLV
    b. FIP
    c. FIV
    d. Herpes
A

c. FIV

28
Q
  1. What is the most important parameter to monitor while under general anesthesia?
    a. Blood pressure
    b. Arterial blood gas
    c. Venous blood gas
    d. Respiration
A

a. Blood pressure

29
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of endodontic disease in dogs?
    a. Periodontal disease
    b. Fractured tooth exposing pulp cavity
    c. Enamel hypoplasia
    d. Retained deciduous teeth
A

b. Fractured tooth exposing pulp cavity

30
Q
  1. Under which of the following conditions would infestation with Damalinia species (lice) be most likely?
    a. Winter, good body condition, poor hair coat
    b. Winter, poor body condition, poor hair coat
    c. Summer, poor body condition, good hair coat
    d. Summer, good body condition, poor hair coat
A

b. Winter, poor body condition, poor hair coat

31
Q
  1. Which combination of drugs would you use to sedate a warmblood with signs of colic?
    a. Xylazine and acepromazine
    b. Xylazine and butorphanol
    c. Detomidine and atropine
    d. Ketamine and valium
A

b. Xylazine and butorphanol

32
Q
  1. A 2 yr old Quaterhorse shows signs of muscle fasciculation, weakness, recumbency and facial spasms. These signs re reduced when the horse is treated with Ca gluconate, Bicarb and dextrose. What changes would you make to the diet?
    a. Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay, put onto pasture
    b. Increase protein, decrease carbohydrates, supplement with P and Ca
    c. Feed more beet pulp
    d. Add molasses to feed and increase grains
A

a. Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay, put onto pasture

33
Q
  1. What would you expect to see in a cow with a four-point block for encluation
    a. Exophthalmos and miosis
    b. Enopthalmos and mydriasis
    c. Exophthalmos and mydriasis
    d. Enopthalmos and miosis
A

c. Exophthalmos and mydriasis

34
Q
  1. A woman bring in a group of budgies that range in age from a few months to 5 years. Two have died, other are sick with ruffled feathers, respiratory distress and lethargy.
    She feeds them seeds along with vegetables and fruit. Which food item is most likely responsible for their deaths?

a. Olives
b. Avocado
c. Tomatoes

A

b. Avocado

35
Q
  1. Which of the following is contraindicated in treated retained fetal membranes?
    a. Manual removal
    b. Oxytocin
    c. IV fluids
    d. Ca gluconate
A

a. Manual removal

36
Q
  1. A pigeon presents to you with trichomoniasis. What is the best way to diagnose this?
    a. A wet mount of the crop and esophagus contents
    b. Fecal float
    c. Fecal smear
    d. Skin scraping
A

a. A wet mount of the crop and esophagus contents

37
Q
  1. How can you tell a horse is under a deep plane of anesthesia with halothane?
A

a. Absent corneal reflex

38
Q
  1. Placing a mare on progestin. Advice to owners?
A

a. Tell women to wear gloves when handling the drug

39
Q
  1. A horse with non-ulcerated, non-painful, non-pruritic lesions has?
A

a. Nodular necrobacillosis???? Doesn’t exist

40
Q
  1. Xanthochromia, straining to urinate and decreased perineal tone in horse?
A

a. EHV-1/EHV-4

41
Q
  1. A pig with rectal prolapse is going to fair in 3 days.
    a. Put a prolapse ring on it
    b. Amputate the rectum
    c. Replace and don’t do anything else
A

a. Put a prolapse ring on it (can also do a purse string)

42
Q
  1. How do you identify a cow 55 days pregnant
    a. Positive membrane slip
    b. Fremitus
    c. Palpate fetus
    d. Placentomes
A

a. Positive membrane slip

43
Q
  1. 3 yo female lab goes hunting and had a purulent vaginal discharge. What is your next diagnostic?
A

a. Vaginoscopy - look for foxtails

44
Q
  1. Castration will not decrease the incidence of which disease in a dog?
    a. Prostatic neoplasia
    b. Testicular neoplasia
    c. Anal sac adenocarcinoma
A

a. Prostatic neoplasia

45
Q
  1. When is the best time to apply a fentanyl patch
A

a. 12-24 hours before surgery

46
Q
  1. A dog has a swelling under his right eye that is painful. Most likely
A

a. Periapical abscess of PM4

47
Q
  1. What is not likely to result in diuresis in ARF dog
A

a. Dexamethasone

48
Q
  1. Why is it not recommended to give a MLV vaccine to pregnant queens and bitches
A

a. Fetal deformation and death

49
Q
  1. What treatment is required for a tooth fracture in a dog involving the enamel but not exposing the pulp cavity?
    a. Vital pulpectomy
    b. Crown
    c. Standard endodontic treatment
    d. Smooth the sharp edges of the fracture
A

d. Smooth the sharp edges of the fracture

50
Q
  1. What is a possible complication of a simple, closed, transverse fracture of the distal radius in a 3 lb, 3 year old Yorkie?
    a. Non-union
    b. Osteomyelitis
    c. Sequestrum formation
A

a. Non-union??

CA boards (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions