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2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The heartworm antigen test detects what?
    a. Microfilaria
    b. Male worm
    c. Female worm
    d. L3
A

c. Female worm

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2
Q
  1. To differentiate pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism from adrenal tumor, what test should you use?
    a. ACTH stim (measure cortisol)
    b. Urine creatinine:cortisol ratio
    c. Low dose Dex suppression
    d. High dose Dex suppression
A

d. High dose Dex suppression

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3
Q
  1. A woman brings a litter of Dalmatian puppies to your clinic. How do you check for deafness?
A

a. BAER test

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4
Q
  1. Technician is bitten on the hand by a cat, deep wound. She cleans and bandages her thumb. What should you tell her to do next?
A

a. Request that she go to a physician

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5
Q
  1. Performing an orchiectomy in a rabbit is dangerous because?
    a. Increased risk of hemorrhage as compared to dog/cat
    b. Increased risk of herniation due to open inguinal rings
    c. Increased anesthetic needed for sedation
A

b. Increased risk of herniation due to open inguinal rings

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6
Q
  1. What drug can you use for parasite control in a reptile?
    a. Ivermectin
    b. Praziquantal
    c. Pyrantel
    d. OP
A

a. Ivermectin (not in a turtle or crocodile)

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7
Q
  1. Best diagnostic to ID a dog infected with cocci?
A

a. IgG and IgM titer

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8
Q
  1. Horse with myositis from IM injection. What besides C. difficile causes myositis?
    a. Staph spp
    b. Strep spp
    c. C. novei
    d. C. hemolyticum
A

c. C. novei

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9
Q
  1. A horse has increased lacrimation, blepharospasm, episcleral injection, corneal edema and photophobia. There is no uptake of flourescein dye. What is the most likely differential?
    a. Uveitis
    b. Entropion
    c. Glaucoma
    d. Corneal ulcer
A

a. Uveitis

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10
Q
  1. What are the recommendations for tetanus vaccination in an older horse?
    a. Vaccinate when wounded
    b. Vaccinate infrequently because older horses have an increased sensitivity to vaccine
    c. Vaccinate yearly
    d. Vaccinate semi-annually
A

c. Vaccinate yearly

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11
Q
  1. Ivermectin is ineffective against which parasite?
    a. Anoplocephala
    b. Parascaris
    c. Strongyles
A

a. Anoplocephala (horse tapeworm)

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12
Q
  1. To perform an emergency tracheotomy in a horse, you should?
    a. Make a horizontal incision through an annular ligament
    b. Make a horizontal incision through a cartilage ring
    c. Make a vertical incision through 2 cartilage rings
    d. Make a 2cm horizontal window in trachea
A

a. Make a horizontal incision through an annular ligamen

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13
Q
  1. In a mare with a uterine torsion, you will?
    a. See right flank swelling
    b. See left flank swelling
    c. Visualize twisted vagina/cervix
    d. Feel broad ligament over uterus
A

d. Feel broad ligament over uterus

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14
Q
  1. Which anesthetic should you not use in a horse?
    a. Xylazine, ketamine, diazepam
    b. Atropine, acepromazine, halothane
    c. Dobutamine, guaifenesin
    d. Dobutamine, ketamine, diazepam
A

b. Atropine, acepromazine, halothane

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15
Q
  1. Pony presents with signs of COPD. Pony spends most of time in stall but is out on pasture 2 days a week. What recommendations do you give the owner?
    a. Stall confinement
    b. Put out to pasture and feed wet hay/pelleted food
    c. Change bedding, keep in stall
    d. Put out to pasture a little more and switch to grass feed
A

b. Put out to pasture and feed wet hay/pelleted food

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16
Q
  1. A pony with COPD is kept in a 40 yo wooden barn and has access to pasture twice a week. Besides medication, how else would you treat?
    a. Dirt paddock, baled hay, regular exercise
    b. Pasture 50%, hay in open manger, regular exercise
    c. Pasture, wet down feed or pelleted feed, limited exercise initially
    d. Keep in barn, sun-cured baled hay, limited exercise initially
A

c. Pasture, wet down feed or pelleted feed, limited exercise initially

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17
Q
  1. Presented with a colt for elective castration. Initial physical exam findings are T=102.5, P=48, R=40. What do you do?
    a. The foal is febrile, normocardic, do surgery
    b. The foal is febrile, tachycardic, postpone sx
    c. The foal is normal; do sx
    d. The foal is normothermic, tachycardic; postpone sx
A

c. The foal is normal; do sx

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18
Q
  1. What is the cause of synchronous diaphragmatic flutters?
A

a. Electrolyte imbalance

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19
Q
  1. When should you move a mare to a different farm before foaling in order for the mare to develop Ig to the local pathogens?
    a. 4-6 weeks
    b. 8-10 weeks
    c. 12-14 weeks
    d. 16-18 weeks
A

a. 4-6 weeks

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20
Q
  1. When should artificial lighting program begin in order to achieve the best ovulation in a horse?
    a. Dec 1
    b. March 1
    c. 30 days before ovulating
A

a. Dec 1 (8-10 weeks before breeding season)

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21
Q
  1. Horse with vesicles around mouth, what should you do?
    a. Call local public health vet
    b. Call state vet
    c. Give antibiotics
    d. Quarantine
A

b. Call state vet

22
Q
  1. A 12 year old barren mare has purulent vaginal discharge. Which of the following is contraindicated for diagnosis?
    a. Abdominocentesis
    b. Transrectal ultrasound
    c. Endometrial cytology and culture
    d. Vaginal and cervical exam with speculum
A

a. Abdominocentesis

23
Q
  1. Where would you take pulse in the horse
    a. External carotid, lateral thoracic, median
    b. Facial, femoral, external carotid
    c. Median, external iliac, digital
    d. Facial, digital, metatarsal
A

d. Facial, digital, metatarsal

24
Q
  1. What is an RVT not allowed to do in CA?
    a. Place a cast
    b. Take a skin punch biopsy
    c. Suture a pre-existing incision
    d. Induce anesthesia
A

b. Take a skin punch biopsy

25
Q
  1. Horse with history of gradual, persistent weight loss. Which is not important to ask owner?
    a. History of colic
    b. Oleander exposure
    c. Deworming history
A

b. Oleander exposure (cardiotoxic)

26
Q
  1. Which can you feel on normal rectal palpation of horse with abdominal discomfort?
    a. Urinary bladder, spleen, cecum
    b. Urinary bladder, transverse colon, cecum
    c. Stomach, transverse colon, cecum
    d. Stomach, spleen, cecum
A

a. Urinary bladder, spleen, cecum

27
Q
  1. Three year old horse with bilateral, mandibular symmetrical, non-painful swellings. What is it?
    a. Tooth root abscess
    b. Dental caries
    c. Permanent tooth eruption
    d. Interdental feed impaction
A

c. Permanent tooth eruption

28
Q
  1. What parasite group is not killed by ivermectin?
    a. Gastrophilus
    b. Anoplocephala
    c. Cyathostomes
    d. Strongylus
A

b. Anoplocephala (tapeworm)

29
Q
  1. What do you do when a horse that you are treating with TMS becomes anorexic and develops diarrhea?
    a. Stop TMS, CBC, banamine
    b. Continue TMS, CBC, banamine
    c. Stop TMS, chemistry, bute
    d. Continue TMS, chemistry, bute
A

a. Stop TMS, CBC, banamine

30
Q
  1. Yearling is being fed diet consisting of 8% protein, 0.6% Ca, and 0.1% phosphorus. This diet is:
    a. Adequate in protein and Ca:Ph
    b. Deficient in protein, but adequate Ca:Ph
    c. Adequate in protein, but deficient in Ca:Ph
    d. Deficient protein and Ca:Ph
A

d. Deficient protein and Ca:Ph

31
Q
  1. What combination of drugs should you not use for equine anesthesia?
A

a. Atropine and acepromazine should not be given

32
Q
  1. An 8 year old Warmblood presents with signs of colic. You are unable to perform a rectal exam, abdominocentesis, or gastric reflux. What drugs would you use?
    a. Xylazine and acepromazine
    b. Xylazine and butorphanol
    c. Detomidine and atropine
    d. Ketamine and valium
A

b. Xylazine and butorphanol

33
Q
  1. A 2 year old Quarterhorse shows signs of intermittent muscle fasciculations, weakness, recumbency, facial spasms. These signs are reduced following administration of IV Calcium gluconate, Bicarb, dextrose. What changes would you make to the diet?
    a. Increase protein, decrease carbs,, supplement with Ca and P, molasses
    b. Acetazolamide, vitamine supplementation
    c. Feed more beet pulp
    d. Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay, put out to pasture
A

d. Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay, put out to pasture

34
Q
  1. A 24 hr. old white foal was normal at birth, but has not passed any feces and is now inappetant. What do you do?
    a. Euthanize immediately
    b. Give mineral oil
    c. Perform a pelvic flexure enterotomy
    d. Give fluids
A

a. Euthanize immediately (fatal white foal syndrome)

35
Q
  1. In a horse with exercise intolerance, which of the following is associated with increasing age?
    a. Allergic bronchitis
    b. Bacterial pneumonia
    c. Selenium/vitamin E deficiency
    d. VSD
A

a. Allergic bronchitis

36
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of food material coming out of a horse’s nose?
    a. Pharyngeal paralysis
    b. Sphenopalatine bone fracture
    c. Esophageal obstruction
    d. Guttural pouch empyema
A

c. Esophageal obstruction

37
Q
  1. A BAR 7 yo Holstein cow with lymphadenopathy is unable to rise. After diagnosis, what should you do?
    a. Recommend flotation therapy
    b. IV administration of Ca gluconate (not milk fever)
    c. Euthanasia
    d. Antibiotics and anti-inflammatories
A

c. Euthanasia

38
Q
  1. What food animal species is susceptible to malignant hyperthermia from inhalation anesthetic halogens?
    a. Cattle
    b. Swine
    c. Sheep
    d. Goats
A

b. Swine

39
Q
  1. What is the best diagnostic test for nutritional myodegeneration (white muscle disease) in a 4 month old Suffolk ewe?
    a. CSF selenium
    b. Whole blood selenium
    c. Plasma selenium
    d. Urine selenium
A

b. Whole blood selenium

40
Q
  1. Cows in a dry lot in February present with matted fur on dorsum and scabby lesions under hair mats. What is most likely?
    a. Trichophyton verrucusum
    b. Chorioptes
    c. Dermatophilus congolensis
A

c. Dermatophilus congolensis (rain scald)

41
Q
  1. In a cow with a schizont emphasematous fetus, what should you do?
    a. Fetotomy
    b. C-section
A

a. Fetotomy

42
Q
  1. What would help to treat a cow with fusobacterium necro foot rot?
    a. Bandage
    b. Wire affected claw to unaffected claw
    c. Systemic antibiotics
    d. Topical anesthetics/never block
A

c. Systemic antibiotics

43
Q
  1. If you need to perform surgery on a distal extremity of a cow, what technique should you use?
    a. Epideral
    b. Distal nerve block
A

b. Distal nerve block

44
Q
  1. What one finds on necropsy with Bacillary hemoglobinuria (redwater disease)?
    a. Hepatic infarct
    b. Renal infarct
    c. Splenic infarct
A

a. Hepatic infarct

45
Q
  1. Antibiotic for 2 day old septicemic calf?
    a. Ceftiofur
    b. Gentamicin
    c. Pen G
    d. NSAIDs
A

a. Ceftiofur

46
Q
  1. What would you expect to see with a 4-point block for an enucleation on a cow?
    a. Exophthalmos and miosis
    b. Exophthalmos and mydriasis
    c. Endophthalmos and miosis
    d. Endophthalmos and mydriasis
A

b. Exophthalmos and mydriasis

47
Q
  1. What is the most important first step to do when treating foot rot?
    a. Bandage
    b. Systemic antibiotics
    c. Wire claws together
    d. Foot block
A

b. Systemic antibiotics

48
Q
  1. How to surgically correct LDA?
    a. Left sided abomasopexy and right sided omentopexy
    b. Left sided ometopexy and left sided abomasopexy
    c. Right sided abomasopexy and right sided omentopexy
    d. Right sided omentopexy and left sided omentopexy
A

a. Left sided abomasopexy and right sided omentopexy

49
Q
  1. A pregnant cow is BAR and has emphysematous schistasomus reflex calf. Whatdo ou do?
    a. C-section
    b. Euthanize cow because of poor prognosis
    c. Fetotomy
    d. Manually remove calf
A

c. Fetotomy

50
Q
  1. It is February in a CA dry lot dairy, 15% of cows have crusty lesions on their backs. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
    a. Photosensitization
    b. Dermatophilus congelensis
    c. Chorioptes
    d. Trichophyton verricosum
A

b. Dermatophilus congelensis (rain scald)

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