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6 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which animal is the reservoir for Yersinia pestis (Plague)?
    a. Cats
    b. Deer
    c. Bears
    d. Ground squirrel
A

d. Ground squirrel

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2
Q
  1. What organ is affected in mushroom toxicity?
    a. CNS
    b. Heart
    c. Lung
    d. Liver
A

d. Liver

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3
Q
  1. Where should controlled drugs be kept?
    a. In a cupboard with other controlled drugs
    b. Lock box intermingled with non-controlled drugs
    c. In the veterinarian’s locked office
    d. In a drawer
A

c. In the veterinarian’s locked office

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4
Q
  1. Which test changes first in warfarin toxicity?
    a. PTT
    b. APT
    c. PT
    d. Fibrinogen
A

c. PT

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5
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of endodontic disease?
A

a. Tooth fracture

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6
Q
  1. What type of drug is contraindicated with glaucoma?
    a. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
    b. Topical beta blocker
    c. Mydriatic
    d. Miotic
A

c. Mydriatic (atropine)

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7
Q
  1. What species are the carrier for rabies in CA?
    a. Skunk
    b. Bat
    c. Fox
    d. Coyote
A

a. Skunk

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8
Q
  1. There is a 70% abortion rate in unvaccinated cows in the 3rd term, which retained placenta and placentitis. What is the cause?
    a. BVD
    b. IBR
    c. Neospora canis
    d. Brucella
A

a. BVD (doesn’t usually cause abortion late term)
b. IBR (herpes virus that causes abortion)
c. Neospora canis (no placentitis)
d. Brucella (not in CA!)

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9
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of endometritis in cattle?
    a. E. coli
    b. Actinomyces pyogenes
    c. Strep agalactica
    d. Staph
A

b. Actinomyces pyogenes

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is prohibited in lactating dairy cattle?
    a. Sulfadiazine
    b. Penicillin
    c. Sulfadimethoxine
A

a. Sulfadiazine

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11
Q

eradicated?

a. Strep uberis
b. Strep dysgalactiae
c. E. coli

A

b. Strep dysgalactiae

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12
Q
  1. Goat kid with multiple bony problems. What is cause?
    a. Vitamin D deficiency
    b. Calcium deficiency
    c. Phosphorous deficiency
A

a. Vitamin D deficiency

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13
Q
  1. Bellowing, flaccid paralysis, blind, recumbent cow frothing at the mouth, CSF shows xanthochromia.
    a. Rabies
    b. Botulism
    c. TEME
    d. Polioencephalomalacia
A

a. Rabies

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14
Q
  1. Regulatory question on how to proceed if a herd of sheep sent to market were discovered to have fence-line contact with scrapie-infected sheep. What do you do?
    a. Send them to market anyway
    b. Contact authorities
    c. Wait 30 days and ship
    d. Test them and then ship
A

b. Contact authorities (within 2 days)

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15
Q
  1. Question on a cow with a uterine mass and exophthalmos
    a. TB
    b. Bovine leukosis
    c. Mycoplasma
A

b. Bovine leukosis (lymphoma)

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16
Q
  1. Where is the “ping” from a LDA best auscultated on a cow?
    a. On the middle to upper left abdomen, cranial to rib 11
    b. Starting at the point of the left elbow and extending up to and over the dorsal spinal column
    c. On the right abdomen, extending over the dorsal spinal column to the left rib cage
    d. Along a line drawn from the left tuber coxae to the point of the left elbow in an area between ribs 9 and 13.
A

d. Along a line drawn from the left tuber coxae to the point of the left elbow in an area between ribs 9 and 13.

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17
Q
  1. Which mineral deficiency would cause paresis in lambs?
    a. Magnesium
    b. Molybdenum
    c. Zinc
    d. Copper
A

d. Copper (high Mb, Zn)

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18
Q
  1. At 55 days pregnancy, which finding on rectal palpation equals pregnant?
    a. Fremitus
    b. Uterine fluid
    c. Placentomes
    d. Membrane slip
A

d. Membrane slip

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19
Q
  1. How you do a sx correction of LDA?
A

a. Left paralumbar fossa abomasopexy and right paralumbar fossa omentopexy

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20
Q
  1. How do you treat a BAR cow in parturition diagnosed with emphysematous schistosomos reflexus?
    a. Fetotomy
    b. C-section
    c. Lube and manual removal
A

a. Fetotomy

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21
Q
  1. How do you diagnose parasitic pneumonia in cows?
    a. Sample sputum for larvae
    b. Transtracheal wash for eggs
    c. Fecal for eggs
    d. Fecal for larvae
A

d. Fecal for larvae (lungworm)

22
Q
  1. You cattle heard has increasing prevalence of E. coli. Next step is:
    a. Quarantine heard
    b. Segregate the affected animals
    c. Ensure udders are clean and dry before milking
    d. Have milkers wash hands
A

c. Ensure udders are clean and dry before milking

23
Q
  1. What can infect cows after liver biopsy?
    a. Clostridium tetani
    b. C. novyi
    c. C. difficile
    d. C. perfringens
A

b. C. novyi (resides in liver)

24
Q
  1. Which cattle disease is not reportable to the state within 24 hours?
    a. Screwworm myiasis
    b. Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
    c. Vesicular stomatitis
    d. Anaplasmosis
A

d. Anaplasmosis (Anaplasma marginale)

25
Q
  1. 1-2 week old calves with diarrhea - what disease?
    a. Rotavirus
    b. Coccidiosis
    c. Mycobacterium
    d. Pseudotuberculosis
A

Rotavirus

26
Q
  1. Holstein dairy with 10 day calves with diarrhea. 100% morbidity, 0% mortality. Adequate passive transfer has been demonstrated. Next dx step?
    a. ELISA for cryptosporidium
    b. Fecal culture and ELISA for E. coli K99
    c. ELISA for BVD
    d. Fecal float for coccidiosis
A

a. ELISA for cryptosporidium (1-3 weeks)

27
Q
  1. Which drug has no meat/milk withdrawl time?
    a. Subconjunctival PPG (penicillin)
    b. Intrauterine oxytetracycline
    c. Intrammammary penicillin
    d. Intramuscular ceftiofur
A

d. Intramuscular ceftiofur

28
Q
  1. There’s a herd of 50 suffolk sheep, 3 ewes have incoordination and tremors. Some are thin and weak, they have regular deworming program (every 3 months)
    a. Scrapie
    b. Listeriosis
    c. Border disease
    d. Chronic wasting disease
A

a. Scrapie

29
Q
  1. What diagnostic technique would be beneficial in diagnosing hardware disease in a cow with anorexia and decreasing milk production.
    a. Abdominocentesis
    b. Thoracic percussion
    c. Rectal exam
    d. Gastric tube and rumen pH
A

b. Thoracic percussion (TPR)

30
Q
  1. A 4H sheep was given clenbuteral, what do you tell the client:
    a. Can be slaughtered and used for home consumption only
    b. Meat is contaminated and cannot be used for human consumption
    c. Withdrawl time for meat/milk is 30 days and then can be slaughtered
    d. Withdrawl time for meat/milk is 60 days and then can be slaughtered
A

b. Meat is contaminated and cannot be used for human consumption

31
Q
  1. What do you NOT use to treat acute environmental mastitis?
    a. Replacement fluids
    b. NSAIDs
    c. Intramammary antibiotics
    d. Frequent stripping of the teat
A

c. Intramammary antibiotics

32
Q
  1. How do you treat foot rot
A

a. Systemic antibiotics

33
Q
  1. A 10 yo beef cow is examined for poor condition and pitting edema cranial to udder. She is afebrile. There are bilateral softball sized masses at the internal iliac arteries and similar masses in the supramammary region. What is the disease?
    a. Mycoplasma bovis
    b. Bovine leukemia virus
    c. Actinomyces pyogenes
    d. Actinobacillus ligneresii
A

b. Bovine leukemia virus (most common cause of lymphoma)

34
Q
  1. How do you determine if a gastric tube has been successfully placed in a cow?
    a. The tube passes easily
    b. Suck on the tube - if there is positive pressure you are in
    c. Blow into the tube and auscult the rumen
    d. Smell for rumen gas coming out of the tube
A

c. Blow into the tube and auscult the rumen

35
Q
  1. Pig with rectal prolapse that’s fresh and going to the fair in 3 days. How to treat?
    a. Lavage and manually reduce
    b. Put a prolapse ring on it
    c. Cut it off and put a purse string suture in
    d. Leave and treat with antibiotics
A

b. Put a prolapse ring on it

36
Q
  1. Which method is appropriate to anesthetize the globe for enucleation in the cow?
A

a. 4-point retrobulbar block

37
Q
  1. Horse has urinary incontinence, recumbency, ataxia, xanthochromia in CSF. What is diagnosis?
    a. EPM (equine protozoal myelitis)
    b. EDM (equine degenerative myelopathy)
A

a. EPM (equine protozoal myelitis)

38
Q
  1. Goat with epididymitis. What should you do?
    a. Cull
    b. Tetracycline
    c. No sex for 2 weeks
    d. Vaccinate for B. ovis
A

a. Cull (Brucella)

39
Q
  1. Alpine kid, 10 weeks old, varus/valgus, wide costochondral junction:
    a. Mn
    b. P
    c. Ca
    d. Vit D
A

d. Vit D

40
Q
  1. What is the best location for projectile euthanasia in cattle?
    a. Equidistant between ears
    b. Equidistant between eyes
    c. Equidistant between alanto-occipital joint and pole
    d. Equidistant between ears and eyes
A

d. Equidistant between ears and eyes

41
Q
  1. Horse with nutritional osteodystrophy - which of these is the culprit?
    a. Haylage
    b. Alfalfa
    c. Carrots
A

b. Alfalfa

42
Q
  1. Which of these is worst/best for nigropallidal encephalomalacia (yellow star thistle)?
    a. Irrigated pasture only

b. Non-irrigated pasture only
c. Irrigated pasture + alfalfa
d. Non-irrigated pasture + alfalfa

A

d. Non-irrigated pasture + alfalfa

43
Q
  1. An RVT is doing a dental extraction on a horse. Which of these is best scenario?
    a. DVM present only (RVT makes dx and tx plan, extracts tooth)
    b. DVM present and makes dx, tx plan and RVT extracts tooth
A

b. DVM present and makes dx, tx plan and RVT extracts tooth

44
Q
  1. Stallion-like behavior in mare. Why?
    a. Granulosa cell tumor
    b. tetratoma
A

a. Granulosa cell tumor

45
Q
  1. Permanent dentition in a horse
    a. 3 years
    b. 5 years
    c. 7 years
A

b. 5 years

46
Q
  1. Horse has icterus. Which is most likely?
    a. Horse was on trail ride
    b. Horse was at show recently
    c. Horse was boarded recently
A

a. Horse was on trail ride

- suspect tick borne disease

47
Q
  1. Reservoir for WEE
A

a. Birds

48
Q
  1. Which correctly matches horse breed and disease?
    a. Belgian - periodic ophthalmia (equine recurrent uveitis)
    b. Thoroughbreed - laryngeal hemiplegia
    c. Arabian - HYPP (Appaloosa)
    d. Appaloosa - SCID (Arabian)
A

b. Thoroughbreed - laryngeal hemiplegia

49
Q
  1. A middle aged horse presents with a painful abdomen. What medication should be used to control the pain and for sedation?
    a. Xylazine and ketamine
    b. Xylazine and butorphanol
    c. Flunixine meglamine and ketamine
    d. Flunixine meglamine and butorphanol
A

b. Xylazine and butorphanol

50
Q
  1. Dictyocaulus arnfeldi (LUNGWORM) in pasteurized horses is associated with which animal?
    a. Cow
    b. Sheep
    c. Goat
    d. Donkey
A

d. Donkey

CA boards (16 decks)

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