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8 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A daschund comes in with diffusely hyperechoic and highly granular liver on u/s. It has elevated ALT, ALP and cholesterol. What other organ would you expect to be affected?
    a. Liver
    b. Kidney
    c. Adrenal
    d. Pancreas
A

c. Adrenal

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2
Q
  1. What analgesic is safe and effective in rabbits?
    a. Acetominophen
    b. Ibuprofen
    c. Butorphanol
    d. Salicylic acid
A

c. Butorphanol

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3
Q
  1. A dog is referred to you post-cystotomy and appears ill. Abdominal radioraphs and ultrasound are unavailable. What is most indicative of leakage from the bladder?
    a. BUN abdominal fluid > serum
    b. BUN abdominal fluid < serum
    c. Creatinine abdominal fluid > serum
    d. Creatinine abdominal fluid < serum
A

c. Creatinine abdominal fluid > serum

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4
Q
  1. What is the vector for Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme’s disease)
    a. Ixodes
    b. Boophilus
    c. Dermacentor
    d. Rhiphicephalus
A

a. Ixodes (also Anaplasmosis)

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5
Q
  1. An adult horse with limb edema, icterus, anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, neutrophilic inclusions has what?
    a. Ehrlichia risticii
    b. Anaplasma phagocytophilum
    c. Equine viral arteritis
    d. Equine herpes virus
A

b. Anaplasma phagocytophilum (Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis)

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6
Q
  1. Hypoderma bovis infected cattle hide. What do you do??
    a. Condemn the carcass
    b. Condemn the hide
A

b. Condemn the hide

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7
Q
  1. When is an LDA most likely to develop?
A

a. Within the first month of lactating (after freshening)

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8
Q
  1. A pregnant lactating cow with Actinobacillosis ligneresii is treated with?
    a. Potassium iodide
    b. Potassium chloride
    c. Sodium iodide
    d. Sodium chloride
A

c. Sodium iodide

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9
Q
  1. Oleander toxicosis in cattle, best treatment option.
A

a. Rumenotomy

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10
Q
  1. What causes a head tilt and ear droop in rabbits
A

a. E. cuniculi and P. multocida

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11
Q
  1. Signs of cerebellar disease
A

a. Hypermetria, ataxia, tremors

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12
Q
  1. An emergency tracheostomy on a horse?
A

a. Horizontal incision through annular ligaments

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13
Q
  1. Management of parasites on a pasture
    a. Clean up fecal matter 2x week
    b. Clean up fecal matter every 2 weeks
A

a. Clean up fecal matter 2x week

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14
Q
  1. What to give a horse with too much detomidine
A

a. Yohimbine

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15
Q
  1. Aggressive Rottweiler needs oral exam. What is best method of restraint in order to perform the exam?
    a. Have tech restrain the dog
    b. Muzzle the dog
    c. Medetomidine
    d. Some other drug
A

c. Medetomidine

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16
Q
  1. 2 year old cat with unilateral nasal discharge and headshaking. What is most likely diagnosis
    a. Neoplasia
    b. Chronic upper respiratory tract infection
    c. Otodectes cynoti
    d. Nasopharyngeal polyp
A

d. Nasopharyngeal polyp

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17
Q
  1. Dog with mitral insufficiency will have which of the following signs?
    a. Weight loss and cyanosis
    b. Systolic murmur and cough
    c. Systolic murmur and ascites
    d. Systolic murmur and cyanosis
A

b. Systolic murmur and cough (left heart failure)

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18
Q
  1. You have a cat with sinusitis and suspect calicivirus. What other clinical finding would you likely see?
    a. Bronchitis
    b. Diarrhea/vomiting
    c. Corneal ulceration
    d. Oral ulcers and lameness
A

d. Oral ulcers and lameness

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following disease carried by rhesus macaques is the biggest problem if transmitted to humans?
    a. Herpes virus B
    b. Hepatitis
    c. Cytomegalo virus
    d. Respiratory syncitial virus
A

a. Herpes virus B

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20
Q
  1. Pregnant client whose cat is serologically positive for toxoplasmosis. Which of the following is true?
    a. The cat has been exposed to toxoplasmosis
    b. The cat has an active infection
    c. The cat is shedding the virus
A

a. The cat has been exposed to toxoplasmosis

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21
Q
  1. Signs of acute anterior uveitis:
A

a. Miosis (pain), low intraocular pressure (in contrast to glaucoma), blepharospasm, hyperemia

22
Q
  1. What dose the heartworm antigen test detect?
    a. Microfilaria
    b. Male adults
    c. Female adults
    d. L3 larvae
A

c. Female adults

23
Q
  1. How long from mosquito bite to heartworm infection?
    a. 2 months
    b. 4 months
    c. 6 months
    d. 8 months
A

c. 6 months

24
Q
  1. A bull has had a sample of smegma from his sheath cultured in a Trichomonas pouch. Flagellated organisms are isolated in the media (Bull cultures positive for T. foetus). What do you do?
    a. Turn the bull out with a group of cows
    b. Cull
    c. Reculture in 2 weeks
    d. Perform further diagnostics on the sample
A

b. Cull

25
Q
  1. A cow presents with bilateral corneal opacity, epiphora, and blepharospasm. There is 4mm of corneal neovascularization on the right eye. Fluoroscein stain reveals 3mm of uptake in the left eye and 10mm uptake in the right eye. What is next?
    a. Biopsy for SCC
    b. Cryotherapy of neovascularization
    c. Flush nasolacrimal duct
    d. Digitally palpate around the 3rd eyelid for plant awns
A

d. Digitally palpate around the 3rd eyelid for plant awns

26
Q
  1. What is CA Brucellosis Status and Tuberculosis status?
A

a. Brucellosis free since 1997; modified accredited advanced for Bovine tuberculosis

27
Q
  1. Transporting a 24 month old bull from Oregon to California, you need to test for which diseases:
A

a. Brucellosis, Trichomonosis, Tuberculosis

28
Q
  1. Common indication for feline dental extraction.
    a. Hypereruption
    b. Dentigerous cyst
    c. Hypoplastic enamel
    d. Odontoclastic resorptive lesion
A

d. Odontoclastic resorptive lesion

29
Q
  1. Feline presented for stiffness and lameness in all 4 limbs. On PE all 4 limbs have decreased range of motion in joints. Radiographs show multiple locations of vertebral spondylosis and exostoses around joints. Owner feeds home cooked diet of exclusively liver. Diagnose which nutrient disease?
    a. Hypocalcemia
    b. Vitamin D deficiency
    c. Vitamin A toxicity
    d. Vitamin E toxicity
A

c. Vitamin A toxicity

30
Q
  1. What is the vector for WEE?
    a. Tick
    b. Mosquito
    c. Gnat
    d. Sand fly
A

b. Mosquito

31
Q
  1. Who may sign a health certificate?
    a. An accredited federal vet or CA licensed veterinarian
    b. A CA licensed veterinarian
    c. A veterinarian approved by CDFA
    d. Any licensed from the state can sign a health certificate for that state
A

a. An accredited federal vet or CA licensed veterinarian

32
Q
  1. A dog with C6-T2 spinal cord lesion would present with which of the following signs?
    a. UMN signs in pelvic and thoracic limbs
    b. Normal thoracic limbs, UMN signs in pelvic limbs
    c. Normal thoracic limbs, LMN signs in pelvic limbs
    d. LMN signs thoracic limbs, UMN signs in pelvic limbs
A

d. LMN signs thoracic limbs, UMN signs in pelvic limbs

33
Q
  1. An 8 week old kitten with fever, pot belly, and poor hair coat is presented. Evaluation of a viscous material from abdominocentesis indicates the problem is:
    a. Panleukopenia
    b. FeLV
    c. FIP
    d. Ascarids
A

c. FIP (pyogranulomatous inflammation)

34
Q
  1. Which disease must be tested for interstate transport of horses?
A

a. EVA (Coggin’s test)

35
Q
  1. What treatment is best for mildly contracted tendons in a foal?
    a. Increased exercise, tenotomy
    b. Increased exercise, oxytetracycline
    c. Splint, tenotomy
    d. Splint, oxytetracycline
A

b. Increased exercise, oxytetracycline

36
Q
  1. What is a once a day drug that can be used in a horse to treat a gastric ulcer?
    a. Nizatadine
    b. Sucralfate
    c. Omeprazole
    d. Aluminum hydroxide
A

c. Omeprazole

37
Q
  1. Middle aged horse with painful abdomen (COLIC). Medication to control the pain and for sedation?
    a. Xylazine and ketamine
    b. Xylazine and butorphanol
    c. Flunixin meglamine and ketamine
    d. Flunixin meglamine and butorphanol
A

b. Xylazine and butorphanol

38
Q
  1. A cat housed outdoors presents for acute severe blepharospasm of the right eye. What diagnostic procedure should you do first?
    a. Search for foreign body
    b. Check intraocular pressure
    c. Fluorescein stain
    d. Schirmer tear test
A

a. Search for foreign body

39
Q
  1. How to diagnose Cryptococcus in a cat?
    a. LCAT titer of serum, urine and CSF
    b. Cytology of nasal swab
    c. See organism in peripheral blood
    d. See organism in CSF
    e. See nasal turbinate destruction on rads
A

a. LCAT titer of serum, urine and CSF (more recent)

40
Q
  1. What is the best way to test for Ionophore (Monensin) toxicity?
    a. Serum
    b. Feed
    c. Plasma
    d. Urine
A

b. Feed

41
Q
  1. Consistent post-mortem lesion with P. multocida and Actinobacillus (Haemophilus) pleuopneumoniae in pigs?
    a. Fibrinopurulent polyarthritis
    b. Meningoencephalitis
    c. Fibrinous pleuritis and pericarditis
    d. Cranioventral consolidation
A

c. Fibrinous pleuritis and pericarditis

42
Q
  1. What is the best way to tell if a pet parrot is dehydrated?
    a. Ulnar vein refill time
    b. Heart and respiratory rate
    c. Basilic vein refill time
A

c. Basilic vein refill time (less than ½ second)??

43
Q
  1. Which of the following has No anti-inflammatory effects?
    a. Aspirin
    b. Carprofen
    c. Ketoprofen
    d. Acetaminophen
A

d. Acetaminophen (analgesic and anti-pyretic)

44
Q
  1. Best way to relieve chronic bloat in a cow with tetanus?
    a. Tube the rumen
    b. Create a rumen fistula
    c. Mineral oil
    d. Bloat guard
A

b. Create a rumen fistula

45
Q
  1. Which of the following are considered to cause/contribute to feline HCM?
    a. Acromegaly, hyperthyroid
    b. Acromegaly, hyperparathyroid
    c. Taurine deficiency, hyperthyroid
    d. Taurine deficiency, hyperparathyroid
A

a. Acromegaly, hyperthyroid

46
Q
  1. A bird breeder with a bunch of birds has some of the birds come down with Aspergillosis. What do you tell them?
    a. This is a serious zoonotic disease
    b. All birds need to be treated because it is highly contagious
    c. This is an opportunistic infection and should address any predisposing environmental factors
A

c. This is an opportunistic infection and should address any predisposing environmental factors

47
Q
  1. Most common place for enteroliths in the horse.
    a. Transverse colon
    b. Ileocolic junction
A

a. Transverse colon

48
Q
  1. What do you do with a ram with bilateral hard swelling of epididimus?
    a. Cull
    b. 2 weeks sexual rest
    c. Breeding soundness exam
A

a. Cull (for epididimitis)

49
Q
  1. What is polycythemia rubra vera?
A

a. Absolute increase in RBC (myeloproliferative disease)

50
Q
  1. What is an acanthocyte?
A

a. RBC with points/spiculation

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