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5 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the most important parameter to monitor during anesthesia?
    a. Cardiac electrical activity
    b. Arterial blood pressure
    c. Respiration
A

b. Arterial blood pressure

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2
Q
  1. An intact 5 yo male cat with severe stomatitis likely has what disease?
    a. FIP
    b. FeLV
    c. FIV
    d. Herpes
A

c. FIV

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3
Q
  1. A dog that has been HBC comes in obtunded, in shock, with loss of deep pain and anal tone, paralysis of all 4 limbs. What do you tell the owner?
    a. Has cervical lesion
    b. Has an intracranial lesion
    c. You need to stabilize the dog and re-evaluate later
    d. Has severe neurologic deficits with poor prognosis
A

c. You need to stabilize the dog and re-evaluate later

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4
Q
  1. How do you diagnose FIP in a cat with ascites?
    a. Cytology of abdominal fluid
    b. FeCV titer (serology)
    c. FeCV fluid
    d. Biopsy and histopathology
A

d. Biopsy and histopathology

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5
Q
  1. You see a 5 yo Persian with elevated BUN, creatinine, phosphorus and isosthenuria. Radiographs show bilaterally enlarged kidneys. What is your likely diagnosis?
    a. Ethylene glycol toxicity
    b. Renal failure
    c. Polycystic kidney disease
    d. Pyelonephritis
A

c. Polycystic kidney disease

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6
Q
  1. A Dobie HBC with dyspnea and an open fracture. What is your primary treatment and diagnostic plan?
    a. Anesthetize for rads and wound repair
    b. Control hemorrhage and give pain meds
    c. Control hemorrhage, treat shock, radiographs and stabilize wounds
    d. Anesthetize for fracture repair
A

c. Control hemorrhage, treat shock, radiographs and stabilize wounds

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7
Q
  1. Surgical treatment of choice for chronic otitis externa?
    a. Total ear canal ablation
    b. Lateral ear canal resection
    c. Bulla osteotomy
    d. Pinna resection
A

a. Total ear canal ablation (recent choice)

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8
Q
  1. Soft tissue swelling under eye of dog:
    a. Foxtail under 3rd eyelid
    b. Infraction of nasolacrimal duct
    c. Abscess of maxillary PM4
    d. Fracture of maxillary PM4
A

c. Abscess of maxillary PM4

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9
Q
  1. An adult female chinchilla presents to your clinic. She attempts to escape and in doing so you tear a chunk of fur off her flank and reveal normal healthy skin. What do you do?
    a. Ask owner about previous estrus activity
    b. Restrain properly to prevent “fur slip”
    c. Do a cellophane test and check for ectoparasites
    d. Do a dermatophyte test
A

b. Restrain properly to prevent “fur slip”

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10
Q
  1. Fractious 9 yo painful, paraparetic cat. What organ system should you focus on?
    a. Cardiovascular
    b. Endocrine
    c. Lymphatic
    d. Urogenital
A

a. Cardiovascular (HCM causing thromboemboli)

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11
Q
  1. An 8 yo Boxer has tachycardia, pulse deficits and a cough. What is most likely diagnosis?
    a. Pheochromocytoma
    b. Atrial fibrillation
    c. Mitral regurgitation
A

b. Atrial fibrillation

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12
Q
  1. What is the distribution for Cheyletiellosis?
A

a. Dorsal distribution

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13
Q
  1. You have a dog that had a seizure. The dog has a normal blood biochemistry. What would be the appropriate next test?
    a. EMG and CSF
    b. EMG and Echocardiography
    c. MRI and CSF
    d. MRI and Echocardiography
A

c. MRI and CSF

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14
Q
  1. How do you diagnose a cranial cruciate ligament rupture in a dog?
    a. Cranial drawer and tibial thrust
    b. Patellar reflex
    c. Ortallani (hip dysplasia)
    d. Barlow
A

a. Cranial drawer and tibial thrust

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15
Q
  1. How long from mosquito bite to adult heartworm infection?
    a. 2 months
    b. 6 months
    c. 8 months
    d. 12 months
A

b. 6 months

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16
Q
  1. What is the most common tumor found on the tonsils of small animals?
    a. SCC
    b. Osteosarcoma
    c. Histiocytoma
    d. Lipoma
A

a. SCC (epithelium)

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17
Q
  1. 5 yo lab with ocular discharge, 105F, vomiting, diarrhea, lymphadenopathy. What is primary differential?
    a. Ehrlichia
    b. Lyme disease
    c. Salmonella
    d. Distemper
A

d. Distemper (ocular discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, fever, lymphoid)

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18
Q
  1. What can cause polyarthritis in a dog?
    a. Ehrlichia canis
    b. Blasomycoses
    c. Coccidiomycosis
    d. Histo
A

c. Coccidiomycosis

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19
Q
  1. 3 yo Boston in c-section. What are your anesthetic goals?
    a. Uterine relaxation
    b. Slow induction
    c. Rapid recovery for mom/pups
A

c. Rapid recovery for mom/pups

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20
Q
  1. What is a safe/effective oral analgesic in a cat?
    a. Ibuprofen
    b. Acetaminophen
    c. Butorphenol
    d. Flunixin
A

c. Butorphenol

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21
Q
  1. A 6mo lab presents with acutely swollen face. PE is normal except for markedly swollen face, lips and eyelids. Swelling is symmetrical. Most likely dx and tx.
    a. Puppy strangles - antibiotics and pred (usually 3 weeks to 4 months)
    b. Allergic reaction - dex sp and diphenhydramine
    c. Snake bite - antivenin, IV catheter, LRS and antibiotics
    d. Electric cord shock - antibiotics and cold pack
A

b. Allergic reaction - dex sp and diphenhydramine

22
Q
  1. Which of the following drug combos can be used in a dog with liver disease?
    a. Ace, halothane mask, halothane induction
    b. Ace, thiopental induction, iso maintenance
    c. Morphine, ket/val, iso
    d. Morphine, propofol, halothane maintenance
A

c. Morphine, ket/val, iso

23
Q
  1. What is the major cause of infection post-op in a bone repair surgery in a small animal?
    a. Excessive tissue/bone damage
    b. Overzealous antibiotic usage
    c. Airborne pathogens
A

b. Overzealous antibiotic usage

24
Q
  1. What are you trying to prevent when you spay a 5 yo breeding bitch?
    a. Pyometra
    b. Acute metritis
    c. Mammary neoplasia
    d. Mammary hyperplasia
A

a. Pyometra

25
Q
  1. A 2 yo dog with hyphema, swollen stifle and ventral cervical region chemical exposure:
    a. NSAID
    b. Anticoagulant rodenticide exposure
    c. Antimolluscicides
    d. Topical antiparasitics
A

b. Anticoagulant rodenticide exposure

26
Q
  1. Disease and treatment for a baby rabbit diarrhea
    a. Tyzzer’s ; tetracycline
    b. Coccidia; sulfadimethoxine
    c. Salmonella; oral antibiotics
    d. Mucoid enteropathy; oral antibiotics
A

a. Tyzzer’s (clostridium piliformes); tetracycline

27
Q
  1. Dalmation with desiccated corneas and thick ocular discharge. Which is important historic detail?
    a. Use of antimicrobials
    b. Use of antiparasitics
A

a. Use of antimicrobials (TMS causes KCS)

28
Q
  1. Drug to treat suspected coccidiosis in a litter of 8 week old
    a. Fenbendazole
    b. Metronidazole
    c. Sulfadimethoxine
A

c. Sulfadimethoxine (isospora)

29
Q
  1. Dog being treated for pulmonary edema from trauma. What other drug is contraindicated?
    a. Nitroprusside infusion
    b. Some thiazide diuretic
    c. Spironolactone
    d. Epinephrine
A

d. Epinephrine

30
Q
  1. How do you confirm a diagnosis of FIP in a cat?
    a. Cytology of abdominal fluid
    b. FeCV titer
    c. Biopsy and histopathology of tissue
A

c. Biopsy and histopathology of tissue (pyogranulomatous)

31
Q
  1. How do you diagnose Cryptococcus in a cat?
    a. Organisms in nasal swab sample
    b. Organisms circulating in blood
A

a. Organisms in nasal swab sample (old answer - probably now LCAT)

32
Q
  1. A dog presents with ataxia and head tilt. There are no CP deficits. A non-positional, horizontal nystagmus with the fast phase to the left is present. Where is the lesion?
    a. Peripheral vestibular disease; lesion on the left
    b. Peripheral vestibular disease; lesion on the right
    c. Central vestibular disease; lesion on the left
    d. Central vestibular disease; lesion on the right
A

b. Peripheral vestibular disease; lesion on the right (no CP = peripheral; lesion away from fast phase)

33
Q
  1. Why is it not recommended to give MLV vaccinations in pregnant queens or bitches?
    a. May cause fetal deformation and/or death
    b. May cause revision to a virulent form
    c. May cause fetal immunosuppression
    d. Pregnancy decreased effective antibody production
A

a. May cause fetal deformation and/or death

34
Q
  1. A 5 yo intact male cat presents with stomatitis. What is the most likely underlying disease?
    a. FIP
    b. FeLV
    c. FIV
    d. Don’t remember
A

c. FIV (biting)

35
Q
  1. A 2 yo FS border collie presents with violent persistent sneezing with unilateral epistaxis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Intranasal carcinoma
    b. Intranasal foreign body
    c. Aspergillus
    d. Infectious rhinitis
A

b. Intranasal foreign body

36
Q
  1. Which psittacine is predisposed to problems with hypocalemia, weakness and seizures?
    a. Love bird
    b. Amazon parrot
    c. African grey parrot
    d. Umbrella cockatoo
A

c. African grey parrot

37
Q
  1. A 7 yo Persian presents with anorexia, lethargy, BUN=89, Creat=7.5, Phos=16, bilateral enlargement of kidneys is noted on rads and ultrasound. What is most likely diagnosis?
    a. Urolithiasis
    b. Polycystic kidney disease
    c. Renal dysplasia
    d. Bilateral nephritis
A

b. Polycystic kidney disease

38
Q
  1. A 5 yo GSD presents hypersalivating, tremoring and the owner has recently put out snail bait in the yard. What is the toxic agent in snail bait?
    a. Carbamate
    b. Ops
    c. Metaldehyde
    d. Strychnine
A

c. Metaldehyde

39
Q
  1. Why does high humidity predispose a dog to hyperthermia?
    a. Impaired evaporation
    b. Enhanced conduction
    c. Increased convection
    d. It predisposes the animal to vasodilation
A

c. Increased convection

40
Q
  1. A 17yo FS mixed breed dog presents with anorexia, lethargy, PU/PD, USG=1.018 and hypercalcemia
    a. Rectal exam for adenocarcinoma
    b. Orthopedic exam
    c. Neuro exam
    d. Fundic exam
A

a. Rectal exam for adenocarcinoma

41
Q
  1. 5 yo cat presents with bilateral nasal swelling, nasal discharge and a mass over nose. The cat is afebrile and the owner has financial constraints. What diagnostic test is indicated in this situation in order to diagnose this cat’s problem?
    a. Biopsy
    b. Cytology
    c. Radiographs
    d. FeLV test
A

b. Cytology (crypto)

42
Q
  1. What is the most consistent finding in an animal that has E. canis acutely?
    a. Thrombocytopenia
    b. Leukopenia
    c. Neutrophilia
    d. Eosinophilia
A

a. Thrombocytopenia

43
Q
  1. A cat that is blocked presents and has elevated serum potassium. Which of the following would NOT be useful to treat elevated serum potassium?
    a. Insulin
    b. Dextrose
    c. Bicarbonate
    d. Epinephrine
A

d. Epinephrine

44
Q
  1. A dog tests positive for heartworm. To treat the heartworm disease, what are the best drugs to use in the order you would use them?
    a. Melarsomine microfilaricidal therapy, followed by ivermectin adulticidal therapy
    b. Melarsomine adulticidal therapy, followed by ivermectin microfilaricidal therapy
    c. Ivermectin microfilaricidal therapy, followed by melarsomine adulticidal therapy
A

b. Melarsomine adulticidal therapy, followed by ivermectin microfilaricidal therapy

45
Q
  1. A dog comes in with rattlesnake bite. What is a common, life-threatening sequela to rattlesnake bite and how would you treat it?
    a. Coagulopathies
    b. Cellulitis
    c. Compartment syndrome
A

a. Coagulopathies - antivenin and cardiovascular support

46
Q
  1. Which anesthetic protocol would be contraindicated in a dog undergoing treatment for glaucoma?
    a. Ace/atropine, ketamine/diazepam, isoflurane
    b. Torb/diazepam, thiopental, isoflurane
    c. Ace/torb, propofol, isoflurane
    d. Ace/morphine, etomidate, sevoflurane
A

a. Ace/atropine, ketamine/diazepam, isoflurane (nothing with atropine!)

47
Q
  1. You observe a soft, flocculent swelling over the left zygomatic arch of a dog. The dog is reluctant to eat. What is the next diagnostic step?
    a. Skull rads to examine TMJ
    b. Dental rads for periapical tooth abscess
    c. Salivary duct endoscopy
A

b. Dental rads for periapical tooth abscess

48
Q
  1. A toy breed dog presents to you with periodontal disease. What is the likely condition it has?
    a. Enamel hypoplasia
    b. Retained deciduous teeth
    c. Odontoclastic resorptive lesions
A

b. Retained deciduous teeth

49
Q
  1. When cooling a hyperthermic patient, why is it important to stop before reaching normal temperature?
    a. Somogyi causes hypothermia
    b. Periphery and core cool at the same rate
    c. After-drop can cause hypothermia
    d. Decreased evaporative abilities
A

c. After-drop can cause hypothermia

50
Q
  1. What is an RVT not allowed to do?
    a. Place a cast
    b. Take a skin punch biopsy
    c. Suture a pre-existing incision
    d. Induce anesthesia
A

b. Take a skin punch biopsy

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