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1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Minimum legal age for rabies vaccine in dog?
    a. 3 months
    b. 4 months
    c. 5 months
    d. 6 weeks
A

b. 4 months

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2
Q
  1. Boston terrier comes in with a thick, mucoid discharge eye its eye. It is most likely:
    a. Corneal ulcer
    b. Foxtail
    c. KCS
A

c. KCS

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3
Q
  1. Mucocele in a dog. What should you do to treat this condition?
    a. Incise the mucocele and place a drain
    b. Aspirate the mucocele and place on systemic antibiotics
    c. Remove the ipsilateral salivary gland
    d. Remove the mucocoele and salivary gland
A

d. Remove the mucocoele and salivary gland

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4
Q

A woman brings in her 8 week old shelter kitten. The kitten will be a strictly indoor cat. In addition to FVRCP at 8, 12 weeks and rabies at 12 weeks (4 months), what else do you recommend?

a. Deworm based on fecal float results
b. Deworm every two weeks with pyrantel until 12 weeks
c. FeLV vaccinate at 8, 12 weeks and deworm based on fecal float results
d. Deworm every 2 weeks with pyrantel pamoate until 12 weeks

A

Deworm every 2 weeks with pyrantel pamoate until 12 weeks

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5
Q

Cat with open mouth breathing and muffled heart sounds. Best technique to radiograph thorax with minimal compromise to patient?

a. VD and laterals with sedation
b. DV and laterals with sedation
c. VD and laterals with NO sedation
d. DV and laterals with NO sedation

A

d. DV and laterals with NO sedation

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6
Q

Piperazine is used for control of what parasite?

a. Hookworms
b. Tapeworms
c. Roundworms
d. Flukes

A

c. Roundworms

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7
Q

Right ventricular hypertrophy caused by

a. Heartworm disease
b. Aortic stenosis
c. Mitral regurgitation
d. VSD

A

a. Heartworm disease

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8
Q

Cat comes in with pruritic lesions on ears, neck and face:

a. Notoedres cati
b. Otodectes cyanotic (ears)
c. Cheyletiella (Walking dandruff)
d. Demodex (not pruritic)

A

a. Notoedres cati

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9
Q

Cat that is PU/PD and has a plantigrade stance with difficulty jumping onto furniture. Most likely has what disease?

a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Hyperthyroid
c. Cushings

A

a. Diabetes mellitus

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10
Q
  1. Pain management consideration for 1 yo OVH?
    a. Post-op parental morphine, followed up with oral rimadyl
    b. Post-op parental butorphanol, followed up with oral butorphanol
    c. Pre and post-op morphine, followed up with oral rimadyl
    d. Pre and post-op butorphanol followed up with fentanyl patch
A

c. Pre and post-op morphine, followed up with oral rimadyl

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11
Q

Which is zoonotic?

a. Yersinia pestis
b. Babesia
c. Neospora
d. Neorickettsia helminotheca

A

a. Yersinia pestis

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12
Q

ech gets bit by cat in finger joint. In addition to cleaning and bandaging immediately, as supervising veterinarian, you should:

a. Recommend that the tech see a physician
b. Advise to keep bandage clean
c. Start tech on antibiotics
d. Something else like watch the finger for swelling

A

a. Recommend that the tech see a physician

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13
Q
  1. Indicator of poor response to therapy for EPI?
    a. Increased appetite
    b. Increased stool
    c. Increased urine
    d. Increased activity
A

a. Increased appetite

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14
Q
  1. Pot-bellied, febrile kitten with a viscous fluid on abdominocentesis, diagnosis?
    a. Ascarids
    b. FIV
    c. FIP
A

c. FIP

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15
Q
  1. Middle aged standard poodle with pelvic limb lameness and swollen stifle
    a. Radiographs
    b. Joint tap
    c. Elicit a cranial drawer
A

c. Elicit a cranial drawer

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16
Q
  1. 17 year old FS mixed breed dog with anorexia, lethargy, PU/PD, USG=1.018. What else would you do next?
    a. Fundic exam
    b. Neuro exam
    c. Rectal exam
    d. Orthopedic exam
A

c. Rectal exam (anal sac adenocarcinoma)

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17
Q
  1. What changes would you expect to see in a dog with pleural effusion?
    a. Stridor (laryngeal)
    b. Wheezing (alveolar)
    c. Dyspnea
    d. Increased breath sounds
A

c. Dyspnea

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18
Q
  1. 10 yo white outdoor DSH with chronic nasal discharge and facial rubbing. There are pink ulcerated masses at his ear tips and on his right nasal planum. What’s the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Upper respiratory infection
    b. SCC
    c. Notoedres Cati
A

b. SCC

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19
Q
  1. Bacteria most commonly associated with foxtail migration?
    a. Pasteurella
    b. Actinomyces pyogenes
    c. Mycobacterium
    d. Staphylococcus
A

b. Actinomyces pyogenes

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20
Q
  1. Toxoplasmosis is associated with which of these?
    a. Corneal ulcer; myositis
    b. Anterior uveitis; fever
    c. KCS; anemia
    d. Chemosis; arthritis
A

b. Anterior uveitis; fever

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21
Q
  1. Acute ethylene glycol toxicity?
    a. Increased osmolal gap with metabolic acidosis
    b. Increased osmolal gap with metabolic alkalosis
    c. Decreased osmolal gap with metabolic acidosis
    d. Decreased osmolal gap with metabolic alkalosis
A

a. Increased osmolal gap with metabolic acidosis

22
Q
  1. What did a dog ingest causing it to get acute renal failure?
A

a. Ethylene glycol

23
Q
  1. Why do you not want to vaccinate a pregnant bitch or queen?
    a. May cause fetal deformation and/or death
    b. May cause revision to a virulent form
    c. May cause fetal immunosuppression
    d. Pregnancy decreased effective antibody production
A

a. May cause fetal deformation and/or death

24
Q
  1. What toxicosis does a bird get from a galvanized cage?
    a. Zinc
    b. Lead
    c. Copper
    d. Iron
A

a. Zinc

25
Q
  1. A 2 yo lab has a chronic draining tract in the 11 o’clock position near the anus which as been non-responsive to antibiotic therapy. You most likely differential is:
    a. Foxtail
    b. Anal gland impaction
    c. Infected perianal hernia
    d. Anal sac adenocarcinoma
A

a. Foxtail

  • Anal gland impaction
  • Infected perianal hernia (would resolve with antibiotics)
  • Anal sac adenocarcinoma (not usually a draining tract)
26
Q
  1. How do you restrain a bird to prevent injury to the patient?
    a. Hold beak and head
    b. Make sure the keel is freely moveable
    c. Keep legs tucked close to body
    d. Keep wings folded closely to the body
A

b. Make sure the keel is freely moveable

27
Q
  1. A dobie presents with a right thoracic limb lameness. What diagnostic should be included in your initial work up?
    a. Lyme titer
    b. Chem panel
    c. Orthopedic examination
    d. Survey rads of the right thoracic limb
A

c. Orthopedic examination

28
Q
  1. What is the treatment for warfarin toxicity in addition to vitamin K1?
    a. Fresh plasma
    b. Whole blood
    c. pRBCs
    d. Charcoal
A

a. Fresh plasma

29
Q
  1. Complications caused by snake bite envenomation ultimately manifests as?
    a. Coagulopathy
    b. Cardiovascular
    c. Depression
    d. DIC
A

d. DIC

30
Q
  1. What parasite is treated with piperazine?
A

a. Roundworms

31
Q
  1. You tested a 4 month old stray kitten with FIV using the ELISA snap test. What can you conclude?
    a. Kitten has FIV
    b. Cannot conclude and retest in a month
    c. The queen has FIV
    d. Retest after 6 months due to maternal antibiodies
A

c. The queen has FIV (gave cat maternal antibodies)

32
Q
  1. You tested a cat with HW but it is asymptomatic. What is your recommendation?
    a. Don’t treat
    b. Treat with melarsomine
    c. Treat with ivermectin
A

a. Don’t treat (risk of adverse effects doesn’t justify treatment)

DON’T TREAT WITH MELARSOMINE

33
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of diarrhea in rabbits and what is the appropriate treatment?
    a. Tyzzer’s disease; tetracycline
    b. Salmonella, oral antibiotics
    c. Mucoid enteropathy; oral antibiotics
    d. Coccidiosis; sulfadimethoxine
A

a. Tyzzer’s disease; tetracycline

  • Salmonella, oral antibiotics (rare in rabbits)
  • Mucoid enteropathy; oral antibiotics (diarrhea as a result of mixture of constipation, toxins and non-specific bacteria - need to increase fiber)
  • Coccidiosis; sulfadimethoxine (usually subclinical)
34
Q
  1. What is the proper protocol for transferring radiographs from vet A to vet B?
    a. Vet A mails them directly to vet B with verbal consent of owner
    b. Owner verbally requests them from vet A and hand delivers to vet B
    c. Vet A obtains written authorization from owner and mails them to vet B
    d. Vet obtains oral authorization from owner and mails them to vet B
A

c. Vet A obtains written authorization from owner and mails them to vet B??

35
Q
  1. What information must be on the label of a non-controlled drug?
    a. Name and address of prescribing veterinarian
    b. Patient weight
    c. Patient’s condition
    d. Prescribing veterinarian’s license number
A

a. Name and address of prescribing veterinarian

36
Q
  1. Cat that has difficulty jumping up onto furniture with poor haircoat. What is you next diagnostic step?
    a. FeLV/FIV test
    b. BG and urinalysis
    c. T4
    d. CBC
A

b. BG and urinalysis (ddx diabetes mellitus)

37
Q
  1. Your patient is a puppy with T=102.5, P=150, R=48. What is the cause?
    a. Left in hot car
    b. Normal
    c. Excited puppy
A

b. Normal

38
Q
  1. You patient needs to have an ocular exam. What is the correct order of diagnostics?
    a. Schirmer tear test, fluoroscein dye, procainamide, tonometry
    b. Tonometry, fluoroscein dye, STT, procainamide
A

a. Schirmer tear test, fluoroscein dye, procainamide, tonometry

39
Q
  1. What is the best method for diagnosing pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity?
    a. Kidney histopathology
    b. BUN
    c. Liver histopathology
    d. AST
A

c. Liver histopathology

40
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of endodontic disease in a dog?
    a. Carries
    b. Tooth pulp exposure
    c. Periodontal disease
    d. Tooth wear
A

b. Tooth pulp exposure (Fracture)

41
Q
  1. What is contraindicated in a dog with tick paralysis?
    a. Oxygen
    b. Vitamin K1
    c. Hyperimmune serum
    d. Fipronyl
A

Vitamin K1

42
Q
  1. When is the best time to apply a fentanyl patch?
    a. Immediately after surgery before they wake up from anesthesia
    b. 12-24 hours before sx
    c. 1-2 hours before sx
    d. 12-24 hours after sx
A

b. 12-24 hours before sx

43
Q
  1. Which mycotic disease is most zoonotic?
    a. Histoplasmosis
    b. Blastomycosis
    c. Sporotrichosis
    d. Coccidioidomycosis
A

c. Sporotrichosis

44
Q
  1. Which species is reservoir for rabies in CA?
    a. Foxes
    b. Skunks and bats
    c. Raccoon
    d. Opposum
A

b. Skunks and bats

45
Q
  1. Which condition is most likely to contribute to recurrent UTI?
    a. Hyperthyroidism
    b. Diabetes mellitus
    c. Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s disease)
    d. Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s disease)
A

b. Diabetes mellitus

46
Q
  1. You think a dog has nasal Aspergillus. To make the diagnosis:
    a. Flush nasal cavity first then radiograph
    b. Biopsy first, then flush, then radiograph
    c. Radiograph before biopsy or flush
    d. Obtain negative culture, rhinoscopy and serology before radiographing
A

c. Radiograph before biopsy or flush

47
Q
  1. Ethylene glycol toxicity presents with which lab abnormalities?
    a. Increased anion gap, alkalosis
    b. Increased anion gap, acidosis
    c. Decreased anion gap, acidosis
    d. Decreased anion gap, alkalosis
A

b. Increased anion gap, acidosis

48
Q
  1. Which clinical signs would you expect to see in a dog with digitalis toxicity?
    a. Increased appetite
    b. Decreased appetite
    c. Increased urination
    d. Decreased defecation
A

b. Decreased appetite

49
Q

Which of the following conditions and treatments would interfere with the diagnosis of Cushing’s disease in a dog?

a. Chronic otitis externa; triamcinolone
b. Hypothyroidsm; thyroxine
c. Degenerative joint disease; carprofen
d. Epileptic seizures; Phenobarbital

A

a. Chronic otitis externa; triamcinolone

50
Q
  1. A 9 year old fractious cat is paraparetic. Which body system should you examine closely?
    a. Cardiovascular
    b. Endocrine
    c. Genitourinary
    d. Lymphoid
A

a. Cardiovascular

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