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CA boards > 14 > Flashcards

14 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Ivermectin doesn’t kill
    a. anoplocephala
    b. gasterophilus
    c. small strongyles
A

a. anoplocephala (horse tapeworm)

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2
Q
  1. Salmon poisoning is DX by
    a. aspirating LN looking for intracellular neorickettsia and fecal float looking for nanophytes fluke ova
    b. Biopsy LN look for rickettsial agent, fecal for adult nanophytes
A

a. aspirating LN looking for intracellular neorickettsia and fecal float looking for nanophytes fluke ova

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3
Q
  1. Abortion in dogs
    a. prolactin inhibitors
    b. May use dex and
A

a. prolactin inhibitors (Dopamine agonists = bromocryptine)

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4
Q
  1. What drug is used for treating conjunctivitis due to chlamydophila tx
    a. Tetracycline
    b. Neomycin
    c. Amikacin
    d. Gentamicin
A

a. Tetracycline

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5
Q
  1. Physaloptera =
A

stomach roundworm of dogs/ cats

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6
Q
  1. Transmission of WEE to humans is:
    a. rare occurrence
    b. Often if interacting with viremic horse
    c. Rare if horse is subclinical
    d. Rare because horses die acutely
A

a. rare occurrence

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7
Q
  1. Acepromazine is given as a preanesthetic:
    a. Decreases seizure threshold (increases actually)
    b. Hypotension and tachycardia
    c. Easily temporarily reversible by stimulating patient
    d. It potentiates general anesthetic drugs
A

d. It potentiates general anesthetic drugs

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8
Q
  1. Liver disease patient anesthesia protocol = nothing with barbiturate
    a. Ace, thio, iso
    b. Morphine, ket/val, iso
    c. Ace, thio, halothane
A

b. Morphine, ket/val, iso

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9
Q
  1. Eye surgery = non-depolarizing NMBA (atracurium)
    a. Propofol
    b. Ketamine
A

a. Propofol

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10
Q
  1. Canary presents for voice change and has lesions in liver, lung, spleen and heart. What is the diagnosis?
    a. Aspergillus
    b. Avian pox
    c. Polyoma virus
    d. Pacheco’s disease
A

c. Polyoma virus

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11
Q
  1. Polyarthritis in dogs = RMSF (Rickettsia rickettsii), Canine Granulocytic ehrlichosis (Anaplasma phagocytophilum), Lyme Disease (Borrelia burgdorferi),
    a. Coccidioidiomycosis
    b. Blastomycosis
    c. Histoplasma
    d. E. canis
A

a. Coccidioidiomycosis

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12
Q
  1. Lymphadenopathy, fever, inclusions in neutrophils (granulocytes), icterus in cow =
A

Bovine Granulocytic ehrlichiosis caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilum transmitted by Ixodes pacificus in CA

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13
Q
  1. What pathogen is a major concern in milk?
    a. Leptospirosis
    b. Brucella
    c. Salmonella
A

b. Brucella

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14
Q
  1. Horse with dental disease of caudal maxillary molars. Where can this spread to?
    a. maxillary sinusitis
    b. TMG
    c. Eyes
A

a. maxillary sinusitis

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15
Q
  1. Budgerigar colony with increased death, lesions in heart, lungs, spleen, liver =
A

polyoma virus

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16
Q
  1. Pregnant mare with T=100.2, P=48, R=20
    a. Normal
    b. Normal temp, increase P and R
    c. Febrile, high P and R
A

b. Normal temp, increase P and R

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17
Q
  1. Diagnosing feline pancreatitis
    a. TLI
    b. Amylase
    c. ALP
    d. Triglycerides
A

a. TLI

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18
Q
  1. 9 month old Filly with mandibular swelling, stridor, respiratory distress. What do you do?
    a. Insufflate with O2, treat with penicillin
    b. Insufflate with O2, treat with gentamicin
    c. Perform tracheostomy and treat with penicillin
    d. Perform tracheostomy and treat with gentamicin
A

(STRANGLES?)

c. Perform tracheostomy and treat with penicillin

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19
Q
  1. How do you treat a rabbit with perineal myiasis?
    a. Mechanical removal
    b. Ivermectin
    c. Flush with chlorhex
    d. Put some Tyzzer’s on it to combat the maggots
A

a. Mechanical removal

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20
Q
  1. Area of ping for LDA?
    a. Entire paralumbar fossa bilaterally
    b. Entire left paralumbar fossa, extending to vertebrae
    c. Left paralumbar fossa from tuber coxae cranial to 13th rib
    d. Left paralumbar fossa extending cranial to 11th rib (RDA)
A

c. Left paralumbar fossa from tuber coxae cranial to 13th rib

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21
Q
  1. Area of lesions on necropsy of horse that died of sand colic?
    a. Small intestine
    b. Large colon
    c. Cecum
    d. Epiploic foramen
A

b. Large colon

22
Q
  1. Hound gets attacked by a bear one week prior to presentation with generalized muscle rigidity, lips pulled back and ears erect?
    a. Tetanus
    b. Distemper
    c. Rabies
    d. Smiler’s disease
A

a. Tetanus

23
Q
  1. What is the only legal course of action for a dairy cow that has fractured its metacarpus, is down and the owner doesn’t want to treat it?
    a. Transport to federal slaughter house and notify of condition beforehand
    b. Transport to state slaughter house
    c. Euthanize and dispose of carcass according to state and county regs
    d. Slaughter on the dairy for meat consumption
A

c. Euthanize and dispose of carcass according to state and county regs

24
Q
  1. Cat in carrier sitting quietly, then attacks the front of the carrier. What group of diseases should be considered?
    a. Rabies, hepatic encephalopathy, lead poisoning
    b. Rabies, tetanus, lead poisoning
A

b. Rabies, tetanus, lead poisoning

25
Q
  1. Kitten presents with obtundation, ventrolateral strabismus, a noticeable fontanelle. What do you suspect?
    a. Hydrocephalus
    b. Toxoplasmosis
A

a. Hydrocephalus

26
Q
  1. Normal incubation for Rhodococcus equi?
    a. 1-2 days
    b. 7-10 days
    c. 14-21 days
    d. 4 weeks
A

c. 14-21 days (according to VIN)

27
Q
  1. 10 yo Cocker presents for hind leg weakness and has diffuse edema of pelvic limbs. What diagnostic steps should you take?
    a. Palpate LN, cardiac auscultation, abdominal rads
    b. Palpate LN, electrocardiogram (ECG), abdominal u/s or rads
    c. Lymphography, LN aspirate, abdominal u/s
    d. Lymphography, auscult heart, something else
A

a. Palpate LN, cardiac auscultation, abdominal rads

28
Q
  1. Horse has been treated and is ready to go. Client refuses to pay bill as he is going bankrupt. What can you legally do?
    a. Hold horse and charge for board
    b. Refuse client entry to clinic
    c. Claim horse as yours
    d. Euthanize the horse with a swift kick to the larynx
    e. With the five point open palmed exploding heart technique
A

a. Hold horse and charge for board (Lien laws)

29
Q
  1. Cat in a shelter, has a positive ELISA for FeLV. How do you confirm cat has FeLV?
    a. ELISA test after 6 months
    b. Isolate positive animals and perform IFA in a few months.
A

a. ELISA test after 6 months

b. Isolate positive animals and perform IFA in a few months.

30
Q
  1. How long after 1st rabies vaccination before animal is considered vaccinated?
A

a. 28 days

31
Q
  1. Who is vet responsible for with radiographs?
A

a. People under 18 yo, owner, pregnant women, responsible for making sure employees have on radiation detection badges

32
Q
  1. What by law is DVM required to post on their door?
A

a. E. coli or strep. Species that’s not strep agalactiae

33
Q
  1. What is incubation period for strangles (Strep equi equi)?
A

a. 3-10days (3-14 days according to Merck)

34
Q
  1. Goat has polyarthritis with white chalky material coming from joints . What is it?
    a. Mycoplasma (M. mycoides spp. Mycoides causes polyarthritis with necrosis)
    b. Bluetongue
    c. CAEV
A

c. CAEV ( causes polyarthritis with calcification)

35
Q

What kind of ovulators are Rabbits, ferrets, cats, and camelids?

A

Induced

36
Q
  1. Where do you give an injection in a turtle?
A

Amikacin IM in front leg

37
Q
  1. Horse has hooks on premolars and molars. What causes this?
    a. Soft feed
    b. Missing teeth
    c. Jaw grown wrong
A

c. Jaw grown wrong (points in front of the front cheek teeth and in the back of the back caudal teeth)

38
Q
  1. Sheep has caseous lymphadenopathy. What is this?
A

a. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

39
Q
  1. A horse with sarcoids (tumors of eye, skin, genitals). What is NOT a treatment?
    a. Vaccine
    b. Ointment (xxterra)
A

TX IS USUALLY benign neglect or sx, chemo, cryo, radiation

a. Vaccine

40
Q
  1. Horse with Anaplasma (Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis). How do you dx?
    a. Serum Ab
    b. Buffy coat(intracellular inclusion bodies in neutrophils and eosinophils)
    c. RBC smear
    d. Infected neutrophils
A

b. Buffy coat(intracellular inclusion bodies in neutrophils and eosinophils)
d. Infected neutrophils

41
Q
  1. Rabbit has headtilt. What infectious disease causes this?
A

a. P. multocida and E. cuniculi

42
Q
  1. Horse with anterior uveitis. What are signs of anterior uveitis?
A

a. Miosis, blepharospasm, low intraocular pressure, hyperemia

43
Q
  1. Foal with Ca, Phos, protein values listed. Are these values high or low(Values given on test were low)?
A

a. Normal: (protein=14-16%, Ca=1% ,

Phos=0.75%; Ca:P = 1:3)

44
Q
  1. Cat with ethylene glycol poisoning. How do you treat?
A

Ethanol

45
Q
  1. Dog with hip problems. Has hyperreflexia of patella and pelvic limb propreception abnormalities, other abnormalities. Where do you localize the lesion to?
A

a. T3-L3

46
Q
  1. Dog in DIC. Where are the symptoms of DIC?
A

a. Thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, increased D-dimers, increased PT/PTT, increased FDP

47
Q
  1. Dog with fractured tibia. Where do you make the incision?
A

a. Craniomedial

48
Q
  1. Geese with floppy neck. What is it?
A

a. Botulism

49
Q
  1. Cow with Strep agalactia (contagious mastitis). How do you treat it?
A

a. Quaratine, intramammary cefa during lactation, post-dip teats and cull if chronic

50
Q
  1. What is common cause of mastitis?
A

a. Contagious: Strep agalactiae, S. aureus, M. bovis
b. Environmental: E. coli, Strep dysagalactiae, strep uberus
c. DX: elevated SCC (nucleated cells found in milk >600,000), CMT (>1+), culture
d. TX: frequent milking, intramammary (Cefa) and systemic antibiotics, fluids, NSAIDs (banamine); cull if chronic

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